Bacteriology Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Bacteriology is the branch of microbiology that focuses on the study of bacteria, including their classification, structure, metabolism, genetics, physiology, and the roles they play in health, disease, and the environment. This course covers fundamental aspects of bacterial cell biology, methods used to culture and identify bacteria, and their applications in medicine, industry, and biotechnology. Students will also explore topics such as antibiotic resistance, pathogenesis, and the interactions between bacteria and their hosts, equipping them with essential knowledge for careers in microbiology, clinical diagnostics, biomedical research, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology With Diseases By Taxonomy 5th Edition Robert W. Bauman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that literally means "against putrefaction" is A) antisepsis.
B) prokaryote.
C) chemotherapy.
D) recombinant technology.
E) nosocomial.
Answer: A
Q2) The technique developed by Hans Christian Gram is important for bacterial A) etiology.
B) identification.
C) classification.
D) isolation.
E) epidemiology.
Answer: B
Q3) A(n)(photosynthetic/algae/plant)organism makes its own food using light energy.
Answer: photosynthetic
Q4) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n)(observation/hypothesis/theory).
Answer: hypothesis
Q5) Microbes that cause infectious disease are called (pathogens/germs/viruses).
Answer: pathogens
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found in nucleic acids?
A) amines
B) carboxylic acid
C) purines
D) glycerol
E) R group
Answer: C
Q2) The smallest chemical units of matter are elements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) All of the following are components of an amino acid EXCEPT a(n)
A) carboxyl group.
B) pentose group.
C) amino group.
D) -carbon.
E) R group.
Answer: B
Q4) The monomer of a nucleic acid is called a (nucleoside/nucleotide/base).
Answer: nucleotide
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peroxisomes contain enzymes used to digest nutrients that have been brought into the cell through phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning osmosis is FALSE?
A) Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane.
B) During osmosis, water crosses to the side of the membrane with a lower solute concentration.
C) Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will gain water.
D) Crenation results when blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution.
E) Osmosis stops when the system reaches equilibrium.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane?
A) Gram-negative bacteria only
B) Gram-positive bacteria only
C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
D) archaea
E) all prokaryotes
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Gram stain procedure,iodine serves as a A) counterstain.
B) decolorizing agent.
C) mordant.
D) primary stain.
E) fixative.
Q2) You are shown a micrograph from a light microscope in which the specimens appear bright compared to the background.The micrograph is probably from a(n)________ microscope.
A) dark-field
B) phase-contrast
C) Nomarski
D) bright-field
E) atomic force
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with an electron microscope?
A) an electron beam
B) magnetic fields
C) a prism
D) a fluorescent screen
E) a vacuum
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an active enzyme?
A) apoenzyme
B) cofactor
C) coenzyme
D) holoenzyme
E) subtrate
Q2) Anoxygenic photosynthesis typically results in the production of (oxygen/sulfur/ammonia)as a waste product.
Q3) The production of NADH takes place during the ________ stage(s)of glycolysis.
A) energy-conservation
B) energy-investment
C) lysis
D) lysis and energy-investment
E) energy-investment and energy-conservation
Q4) All the precursors of amino acids are intermediates of glycolytic and fermentation pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Some bacteria use (acetyl-CoA/DHAP/TMAO)as a final electron receptor,resulting in a detectable odor.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) A clinical sample from a mucus membrane is usually collected as a (biopsy/needle/swab)specimen.
Q2) A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer)can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture.
Q3) A microorganism found living under conditions of high ________ is a barophile.
A) pH values
B) oxygen concentrations
C) hydrostatic pressure
D) carbon dioxide levels
E) salt concentrations
Q4) The ________ of a population is the time it takes for the cells to double in number.
A) binary fission
B) exponential growth
C) generation time
D) arithmetic growth
E) log phase
Q5) The (maximum/optimum/selective)growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the codon AAA is changed to AAG,it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a
A) silent mutation.
B) nonsense mutation.
C) frameshift mutation.
D) dimer formation.
E) missense mutation.
Q2) A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication.Bacterial cells are placed in medium with all nutrients necessary for replication.The chemical is added to the culture,and after a half hour an extract of the DNA is prepared.A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about 1000 to 2000 bases in length.The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function of DNA ligase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is (topoisomerase/primase/helicase).
Q4) Errors made during replication are primarily corrected by (base-excision/mismatch/nucleotide-excision)repair.
Q5) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The technique known as real-time PCR is used to
A) prepare cDNA molecules for cloning.
B) detect the presence of specific genetic sequences in a sample.
C) isolate DNA fragments for cloning.
D) measure the number of copies of a DNA sequence in a sample.
E) both detect and isolate DNA fragments in a sample.
Q2) Southern blotting is a technique that can be used to identify microbes that cannot be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The microbes resident on human skin are part of the human microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pest resistant cotton plants that produce Bt were produced by selective breeding.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNAs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not,or cannot,be exposed to heat or water?
A) ethylene oxide
B) formaldehyde
C) hydrogen peroxide
D) calcium hypochlorite
E) triclosan
Q2) The contents of a bottle labeled "Tincture of iodine" is
A) an alcohol solution of iodine.
B) a variety of organic compounds containing iodine.
C) also known as betadine.
D) a mixture of iodine and chloramine.
E) a detergent solution of iodine.
Q3) Natural antiseptics such as pine or clove oil are examples of antimicrobial compounds called (alcohols/phenolics/detergents).
Q4) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less)effectively than gamma rays.
Q5) The (endospores/cysts/prions)are the infectious agents most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes.
Q6) The physical removal of microbes is called (antisepsis/degerming/disinfection).
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medications which block viral entry into cells include (adhesin/analog/attachment)antagonists.
Q2) Paul Erhlich coined the term antibiotics for the "magic bullet" antimicrobials he pursued.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antiviral medications frequently block unique (proteins/enzymes/molecules)to prevent production of a new virus.
Q4) Medications administered intravenously can provide much higher effective concentrations than other delivery methods.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Who discovered the first antimicrobial widely available to the general public?
A) Domagk
B) Ehrlich
C) Fleming
D) Waksman
E) Ehrlich and Waksman
Q6) Explain the concept of selective toxicity.
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) Will is a graduate student working in a microbiology lab.He is given the task of characterizing a newly discovered nitrogen fixing bacterium.What type of tests or observations will help him determine whether it is a member of the Cyanobacteria,alphaproteobacteria,or gammaproteobacteria?
Q2) Members of the genus Chlamydia are A) thermophiles.
B) intracellular parasites.
C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria.
D) endospore-formers.
E) Gram-positive bacteria.
Q3) The process by which a bacterial cell produces an endospore is called (endosporing/sporulation/vegetation).
Q4) Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms.
Q6) Burkholderia is a common (true/opportunistic)pathogen of patients with cystic fibrosis.
Q7) Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes,how many chromatids will be present at the beginning of mitosis?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 4
E) 2
Q2) Fungi and insects both use the nitrogenous polysaccharide (cellulose/chitin/silica)as a protective molecule in their outer surfaces.
Q3) In fungi,aseptate hyphae are coenocytic by definition.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fusion of two gametes produces a A) zygote.
B) schizont.
C) chromatid.
D) centromere.
E) merozoite.
Q5) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites).
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is a bacterial virus which is integrated into the host cell DNA.
A) lytic phage
B) prophage
C) plasmid
D) transposon
E) insertion phage
Q2) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but not in the lysogenic cycle?
A) attachment
B) entry
C) digestion of host DNA
D) viral protein synthesis
E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis
Q3) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.
Q4) Viroids infect
A) bacteria.
B) plants.
C) fungi.
D) plants and animals.
E) all organisms.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is exposed to rotten wood with fungal growth and develops blastomycosis.No one taking care of him/her becomes ill.Blastomycosis is an example of a ________ disease.
A) contagious
B) subacute
C) chronic
D) noncommunicable
E) latent
Q2) Nausea is an example of a (sign/symptom/syndrome)of disease.
Q3) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology).
Q4) Places in the body where there is no normal microbiota are referred to as (sterile/aseptic/axenic).
Q5) Which of the following diseases may be reduced by improved public sanitation measures?
A) malaria
B) HIV
C) cholera
D) chickenpox
E) rabies
Page 16
Q6) Bacterial capsules are (antiphagocytic/cytotoxic/exotoxic)virulence factors.
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs)are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity.
B) adaptive immunity.
C) species resistance.
D) microbial antagonism.
E) both species resistance and adaptive immunity.
Q3) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons.
B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation.
C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect.
D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts.
E) increases the effectiveness of interferons and phagocytes.
Q4) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit),blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood.
Q5) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) The delay in the initial adaptive immune response to pathogen is largely due to the (inducibility/memory/specificity)of adaptive immunity.
Q2) The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is
A) IgD.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgG.
E) IgE.
Q3) T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus).
Q4) Immature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs)include B cells,macrophages,and (dendritic/plasma/T)cells.
Q6) When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell,antibodies are formed.
A)True
B)False
Q7) TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore,(BCR/MHC/Th1)molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) Genetic manipulation of a microbe to remove one or more virulence factors is a method for producing a(n)________ vaccine.
A) attenuated
B) inactived
C) toxoid
D) combination
E) DNA
Q2) Passive immunotherapy is used when
A) the attenuated live vaccine is too difficult to produce.
B) the pathogen does not produce a toxin.
C) the microorganism can be genetically manipulated.
D) protection against a recent infection or disease is needed immediately.
E) a representative antigen for the microbe cannot be isolated.
Q3) Hybridomas are produced by
A) combining two virus-infected cells.
B) fusing plasma cells with myeloma cells.
C) repeated culture of a pathogen until it loses its virulence.
D) combining a viral infected cell with a bacterial infected cell.
E) combining two bacterial infected cells.
Q4) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) How is hemolytic disease of the newborn prevented?
A) immunizing a woman against Rh factor prior to pregnancy
B) administering anti-IgG antibodies during pregnancy
C) treating with cytokines to prevent B cell activation late in pregnancy
D) administering anti-Rh IgG late in pregnancy and after pregnancy ends
E) treating with glucocorticoids throughout pregnancy
Q2) Many of the signs and symptoms of inflammation,including redness and itching,are due to the release of (histamines/leukotrienes/proteases)by degranulation of mast cells.
Q3) Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q4) Describe the tuberculin response and identify the type of response involved.
Q5) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time,mediators,and cells involved.
Q6) The most common type of transplant involves an (allograft/autograft/isograft).
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Pathogenic Gram Positive Bacteria
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Q1) (MRSA/MDR-TB/VRSA)is resistant to numerous antimicrobial agents; therefore,vancomycin is usually used for these infections.
Q2) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE?
A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus.
B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia.
C) It causes death in over 50% of cases.
D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma.
E) It involves toxemia.
Q3) Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE?
A) It is primarily a disease of humans.
B) It produces endospores.
C) It has a capsule.
D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer.
E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.
Q4) Streptococcus pyogenes produces (hemolysin/protein A/M protein)and thereby avoids phagocytosis.
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Chapter 20: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli
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Q1) What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections?
A) erythromycin
B) tetracycline
C) metronidazole
D) cephalosporin
E) bacitracin
Q2) Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by
A) the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.
B) the ability to ferment lactose.
C) motility.
D) both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.
E) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.
Q3) Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a UTI spreads to the kidneys it is called (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).
Q5) Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis)toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues.
Q6) Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios
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Q1) The bacterium ________ is a common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis contracted from contaminated food,especially poultry.
A) Campylobacter jejuni
B) Helicobacter pylori
C) Vibrio cholerae
D) Leptospira interrogans
E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus
Q2) Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents,a young man experiences episodes of fever,chills,muscle aches,and headache that recur at irregular intervals.The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling.Which of the following diseases is he likely to have?
A) anaplasmosis
B) scrub typhus
C) louse-borne relapsing fever
D) Lyme disease
E) yaws
Q3) Vibrio vulnificus causes septicemia that is self-limiting and rarely fatal.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Pathogenic Fungi
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Q1) More fungal diseases are recognized than were known just a decade ago.For example,in 2012,hundreds of patients developed a meningitis caused by a fungus never before known to cause disease.What contributes to these emerging diseases?
Q2) Histoplasma capsulatum
A) is an opportunistic fungus.
B) produces arthrospores.
C) produces capsules.
D) produces yeast cells with a "steering wheel" formation.
E) is an intracellular parasite.
Q3) Which of the following statements about Candida is FALSE?
A) It is present in the digestive tract of 40-80% of all healthy individuals.
B) It can be transmitted to adults during sexual contact.
C) It is easily treated with topical antifungals in immunocompromised patients.
D) It causes thrush.
E) It can be passed to babies during childbirth.
Q4) The seriousness of Coccidioides infection can be attributed to the formation and rupture of spherules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Parasitic Protozoa, Helminths, and Arthropod
Vectors
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Q1) The most common nematode infection worldwide is (ascariasis/filariasis/pinworms).
Q2) The most severe form of malaria,called "blackwater fever" is caused by Plasmodium (falciparum/malariae/ovale/vivax).
Q3) The primary risk to humans infected with Echinococcus granulosus is
A) development of cysticerci.
B) formation of hydatid cysts.
C) intestinal obstruction.
D) anemia.
E) infection of the fetus.
Q4) Which of the following species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malaria?
A) only P. falciparum
B) P. ovale and P. malariae
C) P. ovale and P. vivax
D) P. vivax and P. malariae
E) P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. vivax
Q5) Contact with infected cats and their feces is the only mode of transmission of Toxoplasma to humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Pathogenic DNA Viruses
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Q1) An inflamed fluid-filled lesion on the finger caused by either HHV-1 or HHV-2 is known as a (blister/wart/whitlow).
Q2) What is the likelihood the average college freshman has been infected with HHV-4,also known as Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)?
A) 70%
B) 40%
C) 16%
D) 4%
E) 1%
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox?
A) A genital form of the disease exists.
B) A vaccine is available.
C) The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid.
D) The rash forms fluid-filled vesicles that become pustules.
E) It has a morality rate of 20%.
Q4) Individuals who have been infected by varicella-zoster virus may develop (Kaposi's sarcoma/shingles/whitlows)later in life if they experience severe stress or immune suppression.
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Chapter 25: Pathogenic RNA Viruses
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Q1) Rhinovirus infection is only treatable with over-the-counter medications (antihistamine,pain reliever,decongestant).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The spread of hepatitis D is preventable by the hepatitis D vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the United States,about 75% of children 7 years old and older have antibodies to astroviruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast infectious hepatitis (hepatitis A)and hepatitis C in terms of agents,transmission,prevention,and disease outcomes.
Q5) The practice of screening blood,blood products,and organ transplants for HIV has virtually eliminated the risk of HIV infection from these sources.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Arboviruses are transmitted by the (contact/enteric/vector)route.
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Chapter 26: Applied and Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is a lactic acid bacterium used in the production of food?
A) Aspergillus oryzae
B) Gluconobacter
C) Leuconostoc
D) Penicillium
E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Q2) A patient is brought to the emergency room in a comatose state.The family reports he had complained of nausea and a bad headache in the past couple of days.They also report they had engaged in their normal summer activities: picnicking,fishing and swimming at the lake near their home.His fever is high,and while in the ER,he has a seizure.Which of the following is likely to be responsible for his symptoms?
A) Entamoeba histolytica
B) Giardia intestinalis
C) Gonyaulax
D) Naegleria fowleri
E) Toxoplasma gondii
Q3) The sour flavor in some fermented foods is usually the result of (acetic/benzoid/lactic)acid production.
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