Bachelor of Science in Nursing Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
The Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) program equips students with the theoretical knowledge, practical skills, and clinical experience necessary to excel in the nursing profession. The curriculum covers fundamental and advanced topics such as anatomy and physiology, pharmacology, patient care, health assessment, evidence-based practice, and leadership in nursing. Through classroom instruction, laboratory training, and supervised clinical placements in diverse healthcare settings, students develop competencies in caring for individuals, families, and communities across the lifespan. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking, ethical decision-making, and effective communication, preparing graduates to sit for the licensure examination and pursue careers as registered nurses in various medical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn L. Banasik
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2384 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47319
Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that is native to a particular region is called A) epidemic.
B) endemic.
C) pandemic.
D) ethnographic.
Answer: B
Q2) After suffering a heart attack,a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: C
Q3) In general,with aging,organ size and function
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) remain the same.
D) are unknown.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47320
Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of excessive cortisol production include
A) immune suppression.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) anorexia.
D) inflammatory reactions.
Answer: A
Q2) Allostasis is best defined as
A) steady-state.
B) a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism.
C) the process by which the body heals following disease.
D) the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
Answer: D
Q3) Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Answer: D
Page 4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47321
Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac drug digitalis enhances myocardial contraction,because it
A) increases intracellular calcium level in cardiac cells.
B) inhibits sodium from entering cardiac cells.
C) enhances the sodium-potassium pump.
D) increases the sodium gradient across the cell membrane.
Answer: A
Q2) Glycolysis is the metabolic process of breaking down a glucose molecule to form
A) CO and H O.
B) 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate.
C) 30 ATP.
D) oxygen.
Answer: B
Q3) Ion channels open and close in response to all the following except A) mechanical pressure.
B) ligand binding.
C) voltage changes.
D) temperature changes.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47322
Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious injury often results from (Select all that apply.)
A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
Q2) An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia
D) inflammation.
Q3) The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
A) decreased functional reserve.
B) diseased function.
C) programmed senescence.
D) senility.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47323
Sample Questions
Q1) In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to (Select all that apply.)
A) pry DNA apart.
B) unwind and separate the DNA strands.
C) prevent tangling of DNA strands as they unwind.
D) match appropriate bases to the template base.
E) proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing.
Q2) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues are resulting from
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q3) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47324
Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Q2) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is because of the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q3) Huntington disease primarily affects the _____ system.
A) neurologic
B) muscular
C) gastrointestinal
D) endocrine
Q4) Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects
A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
Page 8
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47325
Sample Questions
Q1) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers,including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q2) Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure.She wants to know what that means.The correct response is which of the following?
A) It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
B) It is a histologic examination of tissues to determine the degree of tumor differentiation.
C) It is based on exploratory surgery.
D) It is biochemical testing of tumor cells to determine the genetic basis of the tumor.
Q3) Tumor markers (Select all that apply.)
A) are found only in the blood.
B) are produced by normal cells.
C) help determine cancer origin.
D) help identify progression of cancer.
E) include prostatic-specific antigen.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
9
Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47326
Sample Questions
Q1) Immune function is likely to be most effective in a A) newborn.
B) 7-month-old infant.
C) 30-year-old.
D) 70-year-old.
Q2) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q3) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection,because it maintains (Select all that apply.)
A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47327
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary function of eosinophils is to
A) kill parasitic helminths (worms).
B) kill bacteria.
C) stop viral replication.
D) phagocytize fungi.
Q2) Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.)
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating of B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q3) Active immunity involves (Select all that apply.)
A) injection of preformed human antibodies.
B) injection of human immune globulin.
C) injection with preformed animal antibodies.
D) vaccines with dead or altered organisms.
E) active infections.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47328
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common primary immune deficiency that affects only B cells is A) DiGeorge.
B) Bruton agammaglobulinemia.
C) Wiskott-Aldrich.
D) selective IgA.
Q2) The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is
A) IgA.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q3) Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they A) run high fevers.
B) have unusually high WBC counts.
C) develop brain infections.
D) develop recurrent infections.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47329
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).The patient may experience which of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fatigue
B) Weight loss
C) Abdominal discomfort
D) Joint pain
E) Sweats
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with stage IIA Hodgkin disease.This patient's clinical stage was most likely determined by (Select all that apply.)
A) patient history.
B) lymph node biopsy.
C) laparotomy results.
D) CT scan.
E) physical examination.
Q3) Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47330
Sample Questions
Q1) Which modes of transmission occur with HIV infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sexual transmission
B) Parenteral transmission
C) Fomite transmission to intact skin
D) Perinatal transmission to fetus
E) Inhalant transmission
Q2) HIV infection causes immunodeficiency because it
A) directly inhibits antibody production by B cells.
B) causes the destruction of T-helper cells.
C) causes excessive production of cytotoxic T cells.
D) blocks the ability of macrophages to present antigens.
Q3) Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?
A) One who has a CD4 count of 300/µL
B) One who has neuropathy
C) One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) One who has genital herpes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47331
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding iron-deficiency anemia,what laboratory features are typically decreased? (Select all that apply.)
A) MCV
B) MCH
C) MCHC
D) WBC
E) Thrombocytes
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with aplastic anemia.The nurse expects to find what patient symptoms upon assessment? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lethargy
B) Heart palpitations
C) Transient murmurs
D) Bradycardia
E) Orthopnea
Q3) Red blood cells obtain nearly all their energy from metabolism of A) glucose.
B) fats.
C) proteins.
D) acetyl coenzyme A.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47332
Sample Questions
Q1) The liver is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors,with the exception of part of VIII.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q3) Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to A) enhance fibrinolysis.
B) inhibit clotting factor consumption.
C) activate platelets.
D) enhance liver synthesis of clotting factors.
Q4) The megakaryocyte is a precursor to A) factor IX.
B) white blood cells.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47333
Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by A) cardiac output.
B) the autonomic nervous system.
C) velocity.
D) hemodynamics.
Q2) The primary functions of the circulatory system are (Select all that apply.)
A) transport oxygen.
B) transport nutrients.
C) remove metabolic waste.
D) reabsorb leaking fluid.
E) return leukocytes to the circulation.
Q3) Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include A) edema.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) decreased pressure proximal to the obstruction.
D) distal hyperemia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47334
Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerosis puts a patient at risk for (Select all that apply.)
A) ischemic stroke.
B) hemorrhagic stroke.
C) retinal injury.
D) renal impairment.
E) liver disease.
Q2) Hypertension is closely linked to
A) obstructive sleep apnea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) de Quervain syndrome.
D) spinal stenosis.
Q3) It can be explained to a patient that high blood pressure increases the risk of (Select all that apply.)
A) stroke.
B) renal disease.
C) diabetes.
D) ischemic heart disease.
E) liver disease.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 18
Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47335
Sample Questions
Q1) The major factors that influence stroke volume are (Select all that apply.)
A) pre-ejection.
B) preload.
C) resistance.
D) contractility.
E) afterload.
Q2) Blood is transported from the right ventricle to the lungs by the A) pulmonary veins.
B) aorta.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) bronchial arteries.
Q3) The major wave complexes of an ECG include the (Select all that apply.)
A) P wave.
B) B wave.
C) TUV complex.
D) QRS complex.
E) T wave.
Q4) A standard ECG has 13 leads.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47336
Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of A) cell rupture.
B) insufficient glucose.
C) thrombus.
D) apoptosis.
Q2) Hypotension,distended neck veins,and muffled heart sounds are classic manifestations of
A) myocardial infarction.
B) cardiac tamponade.
C) congestive heart failure (CHF).
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q3) Inflammatory disorders that may alter endothelial cell function include (Select all that apply.)
A) multiple sclerosis.
B) lupus erythematosus.
C) Kawasaki syndrome.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
E) polyarteritis nodosa.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47337
Sample Questions
Q1) An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second)QRS complex is characteristic of A) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
B) supraventricular tachycardia.
C) junctional escape rhythm.
D) premature ventricular complexes.
Q2) Cor pulmonale refers to A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
Q3) Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach)is characterized by A) absent P waves.
B) lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
C) constant PR interval and dropped QRS complexes.
D) no correlation between P waves and QRS complexes.
Q4) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to A) aortic stenosis.
B) aortic regurgitation.
C) tricuspid stenosis.
D) pulmonary stenosis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Shock
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47338
Sample Questions
Q1) Sepsis has been recently redefined as
A) a systemic infection with viable organisms in the bloodstream.
B) a systemic inflammatory response to ischemia.
C) a systemic inflammatory response to infection.
D) severe hypotension in an infected patient.
Q2) Tumor necrosis factor a and interleukin-1 contribute to shock states because they induce production of
A) catecholamines.
B) clotting factors.
C) nitric oxide.
D) vasopressin.
Q3) A patient experiences anaphylactic shock.The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stupor
B) Hypotension
C) Urticaria
D) Angioedema
E) Wheezing
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47339
Sample Questions
Q1) Which person is at greatest risk for developing a pulmonary embolism?
A) A 25-year-old man with asthma
B) A 28-year-old woman in the first trimester of a normal pregnancy
C) A 42-year-old woman with a broken ankle
D) A 67-year-old man with a deep vein thrombosis in the femoral vein
Q2) Which is true about lung compliance? (Select all that apply.)
A) Represents lung expandability
B) Decreases in the elderly
C) Can be decreased by obesity, abdominal distention, pregnancy
D) Is decreased in emphysema
E) Is affected by body position
Q3) Chronic pulmonary hypertension can eventually cause which complication?
A) Pulmonary emboli
B) Respiratory acidosis
C) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D) Right heart failure
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47340
Sample Questions
Q1) When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks,"Why is my chest so big and round?",the nurse responds that
A) "Loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes your chest round."
B) "Swelling and mucus in your airways causes air to be trapped in your lungs, which makes your chest round."
C) "Coughing caused by your condition has changed the structure of your airways, which makes your chest round."
D) "Scar tissue in your lungs makes them stiff and more full of air than usual, which makes your chest round."
Q2) When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis,the nurse will
A) put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.
B) remove the telephone to reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
C) add a box of surgical masks to the nursing supplies near the door.
D) remove the water pitcher to comply with anticipated fluid restrictions.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47341
Sample Questions
Q1) Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called
A) tension pneumothorax.
B) open pneumothorax.
C) pleural effusion.
D) empyema.
Q2) Chronic occupational lung disease is characterized by (Select all that apply.)
A) causation from long-term inhalation of inorganic material.
B) a latent period before symptoms occur.
C) hyperactive respiratory macrophages.
D) a progressive cough and dyspnea with exercise.
E) possible negative chest x-ray when symptom-free.
Q3) Restrictive respiratory disorders include (Select all that apply.)
A) pneumothorax.
B) emphysema.
C) chronic asthma.
D) type B COPD.
E) ARDS.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
25
Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47342
Sample Questions
Q1) Which alterations can lead to edema?
A) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased capillary colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased lymphatic flow
D) Decreased capillary membrane permeability
Q2) What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?
A) Infants
B) Adolescents
C) Young adults
D) Older adults
Q3) What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?
A) Too much sodium in the feedings
B) Excess of feedings
C) Inadequate water intake
D) Kidney failure
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
26
Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47343
Sample Questions
Q1) Causes of metabolic acidosis include A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue anoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q2) The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is A) hemoglobin.
B) albumin.
C) bicarbonate.
D) phosphate.
Q3) Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) mixed acid-base disorders.
Q4) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by A) hypoventilation.
B) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide.
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion.
D) hyperventilation.
27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Renal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47344
Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones that increase sodium reabsorption from the tubular fluid include (Select all that apply.)
A) aldosterone.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) urodilatin.
E) angiotensin II.
Q2) Serious renal impairment generally does not occur until ____ of the total nephrons have been damaged.
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q3) An important sign of glomerular basement membrane dysfunction is A) proteinuria.
B) hematuria.
C) glycosuria.
D) urinary casts.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47345
Sample Questions
Q1) A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia.This happens because
A) hepatocyte failure decreases albumin synthesis.
B) albumin is excreted in the urine.
C) albumin leaks into the interstitial spaces.
D) malnutrition is part of nephrotic syndrome.
Q2) A common component of renal calculi is
A) calcium.
B) cholesterol.
C) creatinine.
D) urobilirubin.
Q3) It is true that polycystic kidney disease is
A) always rapidly fatal.
B) caused by a streptococcal infection.
C) associated with supernumerary kidney.
D) genetically transmitted.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47346
Sample Questions
Q1) What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Polyuria and nocturia
C) Uremia
D) Hematuria
Q2) Renal insufficiency occurs when _____ of the nephrons are not functional.
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75% to 90%
D) more than 90%
Q3) The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is A) insufficient erythropoietin.
B) blood loss secondary to hematuria.
C) vitamin B deficiency secondary to deficient intrinsic factor.
D) iron deficiency.
Q4) Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by
A) chronic loss of blood in the urine.
B) poor appetite, with lack of iron intake.
C) decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
D) increased secretion of aldosterone.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 30
Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47347
Sample Questions
Q1) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q3) The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is A) KUB.
B) cystogram.
C) ultrasonography.
D) cystography.
Q4) The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is A) Klebsiella.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) herpes simplex virus.
D) Candida albicans.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47348
Sample Questions
Q1) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Q2) The thick covering of the ovum is called the zona pellucid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q4) The primary function of the epididymis is to A) house developing sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid.
C) produce sperm.
D) secrete male hormones.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32
Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47349
Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) Sexual impotence is rarely because of A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q4) Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by A) sustained, painful erection.
B) inability to retract the foreskin.
C) inability to achieve erection.
D) malpositioning of the urinary meatus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 33
Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47350
Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
Q2) During the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle,the endometrium proliferates under the influence of A) estrogen.
B) testosterone.
C) progesterone.
D) hCG.
Q3) The purpose of the placenta during pregnancy is to A) protect the developing fetus. B) provide nutrients to the mother.
C) provide nutrients to the fetus and remove wastes. D) remove excess estrogen during pregnancy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47351
Sample Questions
Q1) Cervical cancer can be detected in the early,curable stage by the ________ test.
A) Papanicolaou
B) human papillomavirus
C) gonorrhoeae
D) vaginal pH
Q2) Which pharmacologic treatments may be seen in a patient with breast cancer?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Estrogen receptor modulators
B) Estrogen antagonists
C) Anti-inflammatory agents
D) Estrogen/progesterone combination therapies
E) Antineoplastic agents
Q3) A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes
A) a history of fibrocystic breast disease.
B) more than three pregnancies prior to age 35.
C) malnourishment.
D) early menarche and late first pregnancy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47352
Sample Questions
Q1) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
Q2) A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by A) human papillomavirus.
B) N. gonorrhoeae.
C) C. trachomatis.
D) T. pallidum.
Q3) Central nervous system degeneration,blindness,and paresis are associated with untreated
A) HSV.
B) LGV.
C) syphilis.
D) gonorrhea.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47353
Sample Questions
Q1) Carbohydrates are absorbed in the form of
A) polysaccharides.
B) disaccharides.
C) monosaccharides.
D) monoglycerides.
Q2) The action of bile is to
A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
Q3) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
Q4) How much fluid is secreted from the intestinal glands daily?
A) 1/2 L
B) 1 L
C) 2 L
D) 4 L
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 37
Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47354
Sample Questions
Q1) An urgent surgical consult is indicated for the patient with acute abdominal pain and A) vomiting.
B) CVA tenderness.
C) absent bowel sounds.
D) borborygmi.
Q2) A patient who should be routinely evaluated for peptic ulcer disease is one who is A) taking six to eight tablets of acetaminophen per day.
B) being treated with high-dose oral glucocorticoids.
C) experiencing chronic diarrhea.
D) routinely drinking alcoholic beverages.
Q3) A disorder of the esophageal smooth muscle function where dysphagia is a symptom is (Select all that apply.)
A) esophageal stricture.
B) achalasia.
C) esophageal tumors.
D) Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
E) hiatal hernia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47355
Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that gallstones are
A) a minimal risk for Native Americans.
B) more common in women.
C) more common in men.
D) at highest risk among Asians.
Q2) Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for
A) respiratory depression.
B) narcotic dependency.
C) sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
D) allergic reaction.
Q3) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include (Select all that apply.)
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 39
Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47356
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of A) glucose.
B) octreotide acetate.
C) anticoagulants.
D) proton pump inhibitors.
Q2) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes. B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q3) Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin is called A) hepatic encephalopathy.
B) hepatic meningitis.
C) kernicterus.
D) encephalitis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 40
Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47357
Sample Questions
Q1) In primary thyroid hormone deficiency,the TSH levels are A) high.
B) low.
C) undetectable.
D) constantly fluctuating.
Q2) What suppresses the normal secretion of growth hormone?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Somatostatin
C) Somatomedin
D) Amino acids
Q3) _________ is the hormone which causes uterine and milk duct contractions.
A) Vasopressin
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Antidiuretic
Q4) Oversecretion of ACTH occurs in A) Cushing disease.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) hypoglycemia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 41
Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47358
Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is A) goiter.
B) pheochromocytoma.
C) Conn syndrome.
D) Cushing disease.
Q2) Clinical manifestations of Graves disease may include A) tremor.
B) cold intolerance.
C) lethargy.
D) weight gain.
Q3) A laboratory finding that would help confirm the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is A) hypernatremia.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypokalemia.
D) hyperglycemia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
42
Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47359
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q2) In type I diabetes,respiratory compensation may occur through a process of
A) respiratory alkalosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47360
Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is associated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
A) Aging
B) Fever
C) Obesity
D) Starvation
Q2) A body mass index of 25.5 is considered to be A) morbidly obese.
B) normal.
C) overweight.
D) obese.
Q3) The nutritional effects of cancer can be severe and result in A) malnutrition.
B) anorexia.
C) cachexia.
D) catabolism.
Q4) The main source of energy for the body comes from A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) carbohydrates.
D) water.
Page 44
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47361
Sample Questions
Q1) Acetylcholine is released into the synapse by
A) passive reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic neuron.
B) active reuptake of acetylcholine into the presynaptic neuron.
C) passive diffusion into the postsynaptic membrane.
D) degradation by acetylcholinesterase.
Q2) It is true that an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)receptor (Select all that apply.)
A) is activated by glutamate.
B) is a ligand-gated calcium ion channels.
C) opens only when the membrane has been previously depolarized.
D) blockade is associated with enhanced short-term memory.
E) is blocked by a sodium ion.
Q3) A common inhibitory central nervous system (CNS)neurotransmitter is
A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) g-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
D) glutamate.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 45
Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47362
Sample Questions
Q1) The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q2) Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which
A) injury is localized to the site of initial impact.
B) widespread neuronal damage is incurred.
C) bleeding from venules fills the subdural space.
D) focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.
Q3) Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion.This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to A) cerebral vasospasm.
B) hypotension.
C) excessive volume loss.
D) increased intracranial pressure.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47363
Sample Questions
Q1) _________ is a form of spina bifida in which a saclike cyst filled with CSF protrudes through the spinal defect but does not involve the spinal cord.
A) Spina bifida occulta
B) Meningocele
C) Myelomeningocele
D) Meningomyelocele
Q2) Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of
A) multiple sclerosis.
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) myasthenia gravis.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q3) Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?
A) Multiple sclerosis
B) Parkinson disease
C) Alzheimer disease
D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 47
Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47364
Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing loss associated with aminoglycosides is known as
A) sensorineural.
B) conductive.
C) presbycusis.
D) otosclerosis.
Q2) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is as a result of damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is because of dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Q3) Which structures make up the middle ear? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 47: Pain
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47365
Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to A) neuralgia.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) fibromyalgia syndrome.
D) neuropathy.
Q2) Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by A) group Ia afferents.
B) a motor neurons.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) Ad fibers.
Q3) One of the most common causes of acute pain is A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 49
Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47366
Sample Questions
Q1) The action of most antidepressants currently available is to
A) improve brain norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
B) inhibit norepinephrine and serotonin activity.
C) convert into catecholamines in the brain.
D) block D receptors in the brain.
Q2) Lithium is used to manage mania because it
A) inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity in the brain.
B) is a CNS sedative.
C) is converted to catecholamines within the brain.
D) blocks D receptors in the brain.
Q3) The assessment of a client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia confirms good cognitive function and reveals affect that is animated.The client is open about describing the voices and the content of their comments,but demonstrates a disorganized thought process.These findings suggest that
A) "negative" psychotic symptoms predominate.
B) there is a high risk for suicidal behaviors.
C) drug therapy is likely to be ineffective.
D) "positive" psychotic symptoms predominate.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47367
Sample Questions
Q1) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
Q2) In individuals dealing with obsessive-compulsive disorder,____ are most bothered by both obsessions and compulsions.
A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Q3) It is true that panic disorders
A) are diagnosed more often in women.
B) are diagnosed more often in men.
C) generally occur after age 45.
D) are common in the elderly.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47368
Sample Questions
Q1) Diarthroses are joints that
A) hold the skull bones together.
B) allow little or no joint movement.
C) contain synovial fluid.
D) connect bony segments by a fibrocartilaginous plate.
Q2) It is true that synovial fluid
A) is found in spinal disks.
B) provides protection.
C) is reduced in volume with injury.
D) becomes thinner with aging.
Q3) Articular cartilage is avascular and
A) completely incapable of regeneration.
B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
Q4) The primary determinant of tendon strength is
A) collagen cross-linking.
B) actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) elastin composition.
D) calcium balance.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 52
Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47369
Sample Questions
Q1) A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of A) tender point pain.
B) head pain.
C) contractures.
D) muscle atrophy.
Q2) Characteristics of scoliosis include (Select all that apply.)
A) involvement of lateral curvature of the spine.
B) increase during periods of rapid growth.
C) more common in boys.
D) identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence.
E) possibility of leading to respiratory complications.
Q3) Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to A) bone infarction.
B) soft-tissue damage.
C) muscle necrosis.
D) breakdown of RBCs.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47370
Sample Questions
Q1) Manifestations of osteoarthritis include (Select all that apply.)
A) nodules on joints of the hands.
B) crepitus with joint movement.
C) pain that is worse upon arising in the morning.
D) stiffness that worsens with joint use.
E) narrowing of joint spaces.
Q2) Individuals diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)are at risk for developing numerous complications of various organs because of
A) excessive production of connective tissue.
B) formation of osteophytes in tissues.
C) immune injury to basement membranes.
D) impaired tissue oxygen transport.
Q3) The final stage of gout,characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage,synovial membranes,and soft tissue,is called
A) tophaceous gout.
B) gouty arthritis.
C) complicated gout.
D) asymptomatic hyperuricemia.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 54
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47371
Sample Questions
Q1) Scleroderma is characterized by
A) large, weeping, open sores.
B) thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin.
C) butterfly rash on the face.
D) hair loss and ulcer formation on the extremities.
Q2) The difference between chickenpox and measles is that chickenpox
A) is caused by a virus, whereas measles is caused by a bacterium.
B) causes a widespread rash, whereas measles causes a macular rash.
C) is a childhood infection, but measles can evolve into shingles in adults.
D) causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash.
Q3) A topical therapy that would tend to dry the skin because it is an astringent is A) lotion.
B) gel.
C) cream.
D) ointments.
Q4) Atopic dermatitis (eczema)is caused by A) parasitic infestation of the skin.
B) superficial staphylococcal infection.
C) superficial fungal infection.
D) contact with skin allergens.
Page 55
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/47372
Sample Questions
Q1) Burn shock is the direct result of A) hypovolemia.
B) cardiac depression.
C) infection.
D) increased capillary permeability.
Q2) The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to A) limit the glucose available to infectious organisms.
B) create a positive nitrogen balance.
C) protect the kidney from excessive protein intake.
D) avoid hyperlipidemia.
Q3) The primary aim of burn wound management is to prevent A) trauma to burned tissue.
B) microbial colonization of the wound.
C) the wound from drying out.
D) premature wound closure.
Q4) It is true that second-degree,superficial partial-thickness burns
A) are less painful than third-degree burns.
B) involve only the epidermis.
C) usually heal in 7 to 21 days.
D) are rarely associated with scar formation.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 56