Audiology I Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Audiology I is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts and practices in the field of audiology. Students will learn about the anatomy and physiology of the auditory system, the principles of sound and hearing, and the methods used to assess hearing function. The course covers key topics such as hearing disorders, hearing conservation, and the basics of audiometric testing including pure-tone audiometry and speech audiometry. Through a combination of lectures, hands-on demonstrations, and practical exercises, students will gain foundational knowledge and skills essential for further study and professional practice in audiology and hearing healthcare.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the age of 75 years,the proportion of adults with hearing loss is approximately
Answer: One half 50%)
Q2) During which historical event was audiology conceived as a profession?
Answer: World war II
Q3) One of the first hearing research centers in the United States was ______ at Harvard University.
Answer: Psychoacoustic Laboratories PAL)
Q4) According to the American Academy of Audiology 2011 Compensation and Benefits Report,which setting employs the highest percentage of audiologists?
A)Veterans Administration
B)Otolaryngology practice
C)Private practice
D)University hospital
Answer: B
Q5) Audiologists are responsible for caring for persons with ____________.
Answer: Hearing loss and related disorders
Q6) The medical specialty that treats diseases of the ear is called ______________.
Answer: Otology/Otolaryngology
3
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ and ________ are two properties that are essential for vibration.
Answer: Inertia and elasticity
Q2) A sound with more than one frequency in it is called ___________.
Answer: Complex sound
Q3) The faintest intensity level that can be detected is termed ___________________.
Answer: Threshold of audibility
Q4) The minimum amount of force that can be detected by a healthy human ear is _________ dynes/cm<sup>2 </sup> or __________ µPa.
Answer: 0.0002, 20
Q5) RETSPLS are the same regardless of the transducer used to measure them. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q6) The decibel called be described as a relative,logarithmic unit involving the ratio of a given pressure or power to a reference pressure or power.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Communication between inner hair cells and auditory nerve fibers is by means of a
Answer: Synapse
Q2) Thin strands projecting from the apex the top)of hair cells are called
Answer: Stereocilia
Q3) Two fluids in the cochlea are __________________ and __________________.
Answer: Endolymph, Perilymph
Q4) List differences in the structure of outer versus inner hair cells.
Answer: Outer hair cells are about 12000 in number.They are cylinder-shaped.Their cell nucleus is close to the base of the cell body and mitochondria are arranged along the walls.The stereocilia of each outer hair are arranged in several rows in a W shape and the tallest stereocilia of each outer hair cell is embedded in the tectorial membrane.Inner hair cells are around 3500 in number.They are flask-shaped.Their cell nucleus is toward the center of the cell body The stereocilia of the inner hair cells are arranged in a shallow U shape in a single row and do not make contact with the tectorial membrane.
Q5) Order the three middle ear ossicles from the lateral to the medial direction.
Answer: Malleus, Incus, Stapes
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before a hearing assessment is conducted in a hospital facility,a patient or his or her legal guardian must provide written consent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hearing testing is not possible for children under the age of 3 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q4) List three ways an adult patient might response to sound.
Q5) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.
Q6) List four different types of transducers used in hearing testing.
Q7) Describe briefly what is meant by the term "patient rights"
Q8) Which of the following is NOT a typical response mode for a cooperative adult patient?
A)Lifting a finger
B)Raising a hand
C)A head turn response
D)Pushing a response button
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Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loudspeakers are the preferred transducer of choice for hearing testing of infants and children who do not tolerate earphones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe how the traditional PTA is calculated.
Q3) What are the pros and cons of using loudspeakers for hearing testing?
Q4) An air-bone gap is a typical finding in
A)Normal hearing.
B)Sensorineural hearing loss.
C)Conductive hearing loss.
D)All of the above.
Q5) A warble tone is used in sound-field testing with loudspeakers to minimize the chance of
A)A hearing loss.
B)Constructive and destructive interference problems.
C)Bone conduction hearing.
D)A difference in hearing thresholds between the right ear and the left ear.
Q6) What are the advantages of forehead and mastoid approaches for bone conduction testing?
Q7) What an audiometer is and why it is important in hearing testing.
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Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
Q2) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:
A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds
B)Speech reception threshold
C)Speech awareness threshold
D)Articulation index
Q3) Word recognition is more accurate with a fifty-word list than with a twenty-five-word list.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?
Q5) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q6) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q7) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q8) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
Q9) What is a spondee word?
Q10) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________. Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What criteria are used to determine if AC masking is required?
Q2) An important difference between the SAL test and conventional bone-conduction testing is:
A)Masking noise is presented via bone conduction rather than air conduction
B)Masking noise is presented via air conduction rather than bone conduction
C)Both ears are uncovered during the SAL test
D)There is no difference between the two techniques
Q3) The reduction in intensity when sound is transmitted from other ear to the other through or around the head is called ___________.
Q4) Which of the following occurs when stimulus intensity in the test ear exceeds inter-aural attenuation:
A)Cross hearing
B)Cross masking
C)The occlusion effect
D)The Weber effect
Q5) How is the Weber test performed?
Q6) When the stimulus is heard in the non-test ear,_____ occurs.
Q7) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
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Q8) Covering an ear during bone-conduction testing produces the __________.
Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe where and how otoacoustic emissions are generated.
Q2) A very high ear canal volume estimated during acoustic immittance measurement usually indicates a ____________________.
Q3) Describe two important advantages of electroacoustic auditory measures over behavioral tests like pure tone audiometry.
Q4) The abbreviations TEOAE and DPOAE stand for ______ and ________,respectively.
Q5) Which of the following is the correct description of the measurement of a contralateral acoustic reflex in the right ear?
A)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the left ear
B)Stimulus in the left ear and reflex measured in the right ear
C)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the right ear
D)Stimulus in the right ear and reflex measured in the left ear
Q6) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
Q7) What does the peak pressure in a tympanogram represent?
A)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the most compliant
B)The pressure at which the tympanic membrane is the least compliant
C)The maximum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without rupturing
D)The minimum pressure that the tympanic membrane can sustain without collapsing
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Q8) Two acoustic immittance tests are ______________ and ______________
Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) ABR responses are elicited using _____ or ______.
Q2) Why the ABR is important in pediatric hearing assessment?
Q3) The time difference between stimulus presentation and measurement of each peak in the ABR waveform is called
A)Absolute latency
B)Interpeak latency
C)Amplitude
D)Wave morphology
Q4) The latency of ABR wave V is the time it occurs after the __________________.
Q5) The ABR can be used to estimate auditory thresholds at different frequencies. A)True
B)False
Q6) Wave V of the ABR is believed to originate mostly from the ______ part of the brainstem.
Q7) ________________ and his colleagues are credited with discovering Auditory Brain Stem Responses.
Page 12
Q8) Multi-talker babble is synonymous with cafeteria noise.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Why are very brief sounds such as clicks good stimuli for eliciting an ABR?
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Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence-based clinical procedures and techniques for diagnosis and management of hearing,vestibular,and related disorders are the basis for __________.
Q2) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q3) There is no role for otoacoustic emissions in screening for hearing loss in adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is an accurate diagnosis of hearing loss important in clinical audiology?
Q6) The radiological technique that is best suited for detection of tumors involving the auditory system is ________.
Q7) When an audiologist has any concerns about ear disease or a patient meets certain criteria for ear disease,the prudent decision is to make a _________________ to a physician.
Page 14
Q8) What is nystagmus? What vestibular technique is based on nystagmus recordings?
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Occupational exposure to high-intensity noise accounts for about 10% of all adults with moderate hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the characteristics of Meniere's disease?
Q3) What is otosclerosis and what are the treatment options for it?
Q4) The term used for the period around birth is ______________________ .
Q5) Which of the following is a risk factor for pseudohypacusis?
a.Seeking financial compensation
b.History of physical abuse in a child
c.Adolescent girl with unexplained hearing loss
d.All of the above
True or False
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cancer is never found on the pinna of the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Disarticulation of the ossicular chain is usually caused by ________.
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Q8) A disease characterized by fixation of the ossicular chain is ________________.
Chapter
Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alzheimer's disease is associated with hearing loss and central auditory dysfunction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term benign means a tumor will not pose any health concerns to a patient.All abnormalities affecting the central nervous system and causing auditory problems are tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are some major features of ANSD?
Q4) The term APD stands for _________________________.
Q5) Which of the following are tumors that can be found in the central nervous system?
A)Astrocytoma
B)Glioma
C)Meningioma
D)All of the above
True or False
Q6) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are
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Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the main differences between personal and classroom FM systems.
Q2) The development of the _____________________ was an important invention in the twentieth century,and led to smaller hearing aids.
Q3) The amount of amplification provided by a hearing aid is called ______.
Q4) What are the internal components of a cochlear implant?
A)A microphone,transmitter,and speech processor
B)A receiver,stimulator,and electrode array
C)A receiver and amplifier
D)An amplifier and electrode array
Q5) Measurements such as hearing aid gain and frequency response are collectively termed ______________.
Q6) FM technology can be used with hearing aids,but not with cochlear implants.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Hearing aid technology can be described as ______,_______,or ________.
Q8) What is hearing aid validation?
Q10) Briefly explain the phrase prescriptive hearing aid fitting. Page 17
Q9) Identify three advantages of binaural hearing aid fittings over monaural fittings.
Q11) What are some common problems with hearing aids?
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Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q2) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf.
Q3) Grandparents and siblings are not affected when a family member has a hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation?
Q5) Which of the following are psychosocial problems associated with hearing loss: A)Anxiety
B)Anger
C)Self-consciousness
D)All of the above
Q6) Professional counseling is appropriate when a patient is clinically depressed because of his or her hearing loss or related disorder,like tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What do the acronyms ASL and SEE stand for? Page 19
Q7) What is the oral approach to communication?
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperacusis is defined as:
A)Super good hearing
B)Abnormal intolerance to everyday sounds
C)A high-frequency hearing loss
D)A false or exaggerated hearing loss
Q2) Which of the following terms is sometimes used for false or exaggerated hearing loss?
A)Hyperacusis
B)Anacusis
C)Pseudohypacusis
D)Phonophobia
Q3) Management of children diagnosed with a false hearing loss often includes:
A)Hearing aids
B)Professional counseling
C)Cochlear implants
D)FM technology
Q4) A tinnitus evaluation usually involves measurement of the _______ and the ________ of a patient's tinnitus.
Q5) Briefly define the term tinnitus.
Q6) Tinnitus and hyperacusis are_________________,not diseases.
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it important to determine the location of auditory dysfunction in patients with ANSD?
Q2) Characteristics of effective patient reports are:
A)Simple and clear
B)Accurate
C)Supported by clinical findings
D)All of the above
Q3) Longer patient reports are always better.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Habilitation/rehabilitation of infant hearing loss is:
A)Completed at birth
B)Family centered
C)The responsibility of otolaryngologists
D)Deferred until kindergarten
Q5) Children with cochlear implants can never function in a regular classroom.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The acronym BPPV stands for ____________
Q7) List four essential components of a patient audiology report. Page 22
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