Audiology and Speech Science
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive introduction to the fields of audiology and speech science, exploring the anatomy and physiology of the auditory and speech mechanisms. Students will examine the processes of normal hearing, speech perception, and production, as well as the assessment, prevention, and rehabilitation of hearing and speech disorders. Key topics include audiometric testing, auditory processing, speech acoustics, and the impact of hearing loss on communication. The course also emphasizes evidence-based practices and introduces foundational skills necessary for clinical work in audiology and speech-language pathology.
Recommended Textbook
Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
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24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the ridges that run horizontally on the palate called?
A)Faucial pillars
B)Medium Raphe
C)Rugae
D)Mucoperiosteum
E)Alveolar ridge
Answer: C
Q2) The philtrum runs between which two structures?
A)The nasal tip and the tubercle
B)The nasal tip and the columella
C)The columella and the tubercle
D)The columella and the upper lip
E)The cupid's bow and the tubercle
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is never associated with a cleft of the primary palate?
A)Wide and flattened nose
B)Altered orientation of orbicularis muscle
C)Nasal cavity deformities
D)Reduced size of nasal airway
E)Velopharyngeal insufficiency
Answer: E
Q2) A cleft of the velum or submucous cleft primarily affects the interdigitation of which muscle?
A)Superior constrictor muscle
B)Palatoglossus muscle
C)Tensor veli palatini muscle
D)Levator veli palatini muscle
E)Palatopharyngeus muscle
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
Q2) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not characteristic of 'X-linked inheritance'?
A)It is caused by genes on chromosome 23
B)Females are more severely affected
C)Affected males pass the gene to 100% of their daughters
D)There is no father-to-son transmission
E)Affected females can transmit the disorder to their sons
Q2) What is the possibility that their offspring will be carriers of the condition?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q3) Which of the following results in Down syndrome?
A)Monosomy 22
B)Trisomy 21
C)Trisomy 23
D)Trisomy 13
E)Trisomy 16
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6
Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following facilitates early suckling?
A)The tongue rests in a more anterior position
B)The tongue tip protrudes past the alveolar ridge and maintains contact with the lower lip
C)The temporomandibular joint does not allow for much movement, causing the mouth opening to be small
D)a and c
E)a, b, and c
Q2) Feeding problems are most likely to occur when the infant presents with which of the following?
A)Bilateral cleft lip
B)Incomplete cleft of the soft palate
C)Complete cleft of the palate
D)Glossoptosis
E)c and d
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following increases the risk for developmental and intellectual deficits?
A)Cleft lip only
B)Complete clefts of the lip and palate
C)Facial clefts
D)Cleft palate only
E)Bilateral clefts
Q2) Infants with an unrepaired cleft palate demonstrate an alteration in the manner of production, with a predominant use of which types of consonants?
A)Stops
B)Fricatives
C)Liquids
D)Nasals
E)Glides
Q3) What is the most important requirement for speech and language learning?
A)Environmental stimulation
B)Motivation
C)Intelligence
D)Adequate hearing
E)Normal oral structure
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Very large tonsils are most likely to cause which of the following?
A)Cul-de-sac resonance
B)Hypernasality
C)Hyponasality
D)Mixed resonance
E)Nasal emission
Q2) Maxillary advancement may improve which of the following?
A)Cul-de-sac resonance
B)Hypernasality
C)Hyponasality
D)Mixed resonance
E)Nasal emission
Q3) Hyponasality is most noticeable on which of the following:
A)Affricates
B)Vowels
C)Fricatives
D)Plosives
E)Nasals
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inner ear abnormalities typically cause which type of hearing loss?
A)Conductive
B)Profound
C)Sensorineural
D)Mild
E)Moderate
Q2) Tonsillar hypertrophy is typically rated on which scale?
A)On a 3-point scale
B)On a 4-point scale
C)On a 5-point scale
D)On a 6-point scale
E)On a 7-point scale
Q3) Which of the following conditions is not associated with malformations of the external and/or middle ear?
A)Treacher Collins
B)Pierre Robin
C)Hemifacial microsomia
D)Crouzon
E)Apert
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Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the horizontal relationship of the upper to the lower incisors?
A)Labioversion
B)UnderJet
C)OverJet
D)Overbite
E)Diastema
Q2) Which of the following is most commonly seen in individuals with a history of cleft lip and palate?
A)Class I occlusion: normal relationship of the molars and line of occlusion
B)Class I malocclusion: normal relationship of the molars, but line of occlusion incorrect
C)Class II malocclusion: mandibular retrusion and/or maxillary protrusion
D)Class III malocclusion: mandibular protrusion and/or maxillary retrusion
E)Class II malocclusion: mandibular protrusion and/or maxillary retrusion
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Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not true about adults with clefts, compared to their unaffected peers?
A)They tend to marry later.
B)They have higher levels of depression.
C)They tend to end their education earlier.
D)They make less money in their jobs.
E)All of the above
Q2) Why is the birth of a child with a craniofacial anomaly more stressful than the birth of an unaffected baby?
A)There are many extra demands on parents because of medical appointments and feeding difficulties.
B)There are unspoken parental fears that the baby may die.
C)There is a higher incidence of psychiatric disorders among parents of affected children.
D)There is a resulting change in the parents' plans for future reproduction.
E)All of the above
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12
Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has a significant effect on utterance length?
A)Range of motion of the oral structures
B)Pharyngeal fricatives
C)Nasal emission
D)Weak consonants
E)Hypernasal resonance
Q2) When voiced plosives sound closer to their nasal cognates m/b, n/d, and /g), what does this suggest?
A)Phoneme-specific nasality
B)A small velopharyngeal opening
C)Compensatory productions
D)Obligatory distortions
E)Hyponasality
Q3) What is the appropriate recommendation for treatment of compensatory productions?
A)Surgery and then speech therapy
B)Surgery only
C)Speech therapy for obligatory distortions first
D)Speech therapy and then surgery
E)Speech therapy only
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Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you see evidence of food e.g., chocolate milk or red sauce) around the nostril area, this is an indication of which of the following?
A)Nasolabial fistula
B)Bilateral lip pit
C)Palpebral fissure
D)Oropharyngeal fistula
E)Hypertelorism
Q2) The absence of a velar dimple is related to structural variation of which of the following muscles?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Superior constrictor muscles
C)Palatoglossus
D)Palatopharyngeus
E)Musculus uvulae
Q3) Bilateral lip pits is indicative of what syndrome?
A)Apert syndrome
B)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
C)Van der Woude syndrome
D)Treacher Collins syndrome
E)Crouzon syndrome
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Chapter 14: Nasometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests allows the assessment of nasalance by type of speech sound?
A)Zoo Passage
B)Nasal Sentences
C)SNAP test
D)Rainbow Passage
E)Turtle Passage
Q2) Which of the following was the first instrument developed to measure nasal and oral acoustic energy?
A)Nasometer
B)OroNasal System
C)TONAR
D)NasalView
E)Aerodynamic instrumentation
Q3) What cannot be assessed through nasometry?
A)Resonance
B)Upper airway obstruction during speech
C)Changes in resonance following surgery
D)Phoneme-specific nasal emission
E)Intraoral air pressure
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Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gross velopharyngeal insufficiency during production of "hamper" may be indicated by which of the following?
A)Nasal airflow less than 80 ml/s during /m/
B)Oral air pressure greater than 3 cm H<sub>2</sub>O during /p/
C)A lack of temporal overlap of the nasal airflow and oral pressure pulses for /m/ and /p/
D)An estimated VP orifice area during /p/ that exceeds 20 mm<sup>2</sup>
E)Oral air pressure greater than 4 cm H<sub>2</sub>O during /p/
Q2) Aerodynamic techniques do not provide information about which of the following?
A)Intraoral air pressure level
B)Rates of nasal air emission
C)Estimates of VP orifice size during consonant production
D)Estimates of VP orifice size during vowel production
E)Measurements of nasal airway resistance
Q3) Which procedure measures airway resistance in the nasal cavity?
A)Nasometry
B)Manometry
C)Rhinomanometry
D)Polysomnography
E)Nasendoscopy
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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is needed to adequately image a three-dimensional volume structure adequately?
A)Include three mutually perpendicular planes
B)Increase the level of radiation for better resolution
C)Include the base plane to see the entire port
D)Do a 360ยบ rotation
E)b and c
Q2) Which view is done to view the lateral pharyngeal walls?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
Q3) Simultaneous audio recording of speech is done with which of the following?
A)Cephalometric X-ray
B)MRI
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Ultrasound
E)c and d
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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following suggests the presence of a small velopharyngeal opening?
A)Bubbling of secretions
B)Irregularity of the posterior part of the velum
C)Irregular adenoid tissue
D)A small black circle
E)Visible airflow through the valve
Q2) Why should the morphology of the posterior pharyngeal wall be carefully examined in patients with velocardiofacial syndrome?
A)They often have very irregular adenoids, which can affect velopharyngeal closure
B)The carotid arteries can be medially displaced in the pharyngeal wall
C)They usually have a Passavant's ridge
D)They often have hypoplasia of the pharyngeal wall
E)They often have hyperplasia and irregularity of the posterior pharyngeal wall
Q3) Which of the following cannot be viewed through a nasopharyngoscopy procedure?
A)Opening to the Eustachian tube
B)Vocal folds during phonation
C)Passavant's ridge during speech
D)Oronasal fistula
E)Length of the posterior pharyngeal wall during speech
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Page 18
Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence VPI
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is a cheiloplasty usually performed?
A)Right after birth
B)3 to 4 weeks
C)5 to 6 weeks
D)10 to 12 weeks
E)16 to 18 weeks
Q2) Why is the alveolar arch cleft left unrepaired until the age of 6 or 7?
A)It is technically difficult to close at an earlier age.
B)It allows anterior facial growth without restriction.
C)It does not affect speech or feeding.
D)Early closure can cause a risk of dental abnormalities.
E)The alveolar cleft will eventually close on its own.
Q3) Why is palate surgery more difficult than lip surgery?
A)It is technically more demanding.
B)There is a greater risk of dehiscence.
C)There is a greater risk of fistula formation.
D)b and c
E)All of the above
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common problem as a result of a small maxilla?
A)Articulation errors
B)Sleep apnea
C)Hypernasality
D)Hyponasality
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
Q2) Children with clefts may initially have a fairly normal occlusal relationship, but they usually develop which type of occlusion with growth?
A)Class I
B)Class II
C)Class III
D)Open bite
E)Occlusal cant
Q3) What is a potential postoperative benefit of a Le Fort I maxillary advancement?
A)Correction of compensatory errors
B)Correction of obligatory distortions
C)Correction of hypernasality
D)Improvement of the airway
E)b and d
Page 20
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) With a palatal lift, which part of the appliance holds the velum in place?
A)Body
B)Tail
C)Mid-piece
D)Prongs
E)Bar
Q2) A feeding obturator is not capable of which of the following?
A)Helping an infant to achieve suction
B)Keeping the tongue from resting inside of the cleft
C)Covering an infant's unrepaired cleft during feeding
D)Separating the oral cavity from the nasal cavity
E)Reducing regurgitation into the nasal cavity
Q3) Which of the following is not true of reduction therapy?
A)It aims to improve velopharyngeal function.
B)The length of the lift is gradually increased.
C)It aims to stimulate movement of the velopharyngeal structures.
D)It aims to avoid surgery, or reduce the severity of the surgery.
E)The length of time wearing it is gradually decreased.
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Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these rules is generally not true for correction of speech sound errors?
A)Begin with anterior sounds.
B)Start with the voiceless cognate and then add voicing.
C)Establish correct placement and manner of productions in isolation.
D)Begin with the sound in the final word position.
E)Change one feature at a time when moving from one sound in a group to the next sound.
Q2) Which of the following can be treated by starting with a /t/ sound?
A)Pharyngeal fricatives for /s/ and /z/
B)Pharyngeal plosive for velars
C)Glottal stop for plosives
D)Nasal snort for /s/ blends
E)Stopping of sibilants
Q3) The yawn technique is used to correct which of the following?
A)Glottal stops
B)Lateral sibilants
C)Substitution of /l
D)Posterior nasal fricatives
E)Pharyngeal plosives
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Page 22
Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on ACPA recommendations, which professionals must be on a Cleft Palate Team as a very minimum?
A)Plastic surgeon, ENT, pedodontist
B)Surgeon, dental professional, speech-language pathologist
C)Plastic surgeon, ENT, speech-language pathologist
D)Plastic surgeon, oral surgeon, speech-language pathologist
E)Dental professional, orthodontist, plastic surgeon
Q2) One standard requirement for meeting the ACPA standards is that each Cleft Palate Team must have which of the following:
A)Coordinator
B)Geneticist
C)Psychologist
D)Pulmonologist
E)Medical records specialist
Q3) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
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Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary role of the speech-language pathologist on a cleft palate surgical mission?
A)To evaluate patients for VPI
B)To determine which patients are appropriate for palate repair
C)To work with the dental professional to develop speech appliances
D)To provide speech therapy
E)To counsel the family and teach others
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts varies with ethnic background.
B)The prevalence of clefts varies with socioeconomic status.
C)The prevalence of clefts is not affected by malnutrition.
D)a and b
E)b and c
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Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient evaluation finds that she has a combination of hyponasality and inconsistent nasal emission.Irregular adenoids are suspected as a cause.What is the best way to evaluate that?
A)Nasometry
B)Nasopharyngoscopy
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Aerodynamic measures
E)An Intraoral examination
Q2) Which syndrome is most likely to include hearing loss?
A)Apert syndrome
B)Treacher Collins syndrome
C)Velocardiofacial syndrome
D)Down syndrome
E)Beckwidth-Weidemann syndrome
Q3) Nasal emission is most audible on which of the following sounds?
A)Nasal sounds
B)Voiceless consonants
C)Vowels
D)Voiced continuents
E)Voiced plosives
25
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