Audiological Assessment
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Audiological Assessment is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the theoretical foundations and practical skills necessary to evaluate auditory function across the lifespan. The course covers key topics including the anatomy and physiology of the auditory system, principles behind pure tone audiometry, speech audiometry, immittance measures, otoacoustic emissions, and auditory brainstem response testing. Emphasizing both diagnostic procedures and interpretation of test results, students gain hands-on experience with standard assessment tools and learn how to differentiate between various types and degrees of hearing loss. Ethical considerations, patient communication, and the integration of findings into clinical recommendations are also addressed to prepare learners for professional practice in audiology settings.
Recommended Textbook
Introduction to Audiology Today 1st Edition by James W. Hall
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16 Chapters
457 Verified Questions
457 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Audiology Yesterday, Today, and Tomorrow
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true specialty area in audiology
A)Pediatric audiology
B)Hearing testing
C)Working in a medical clinic
D)PhD audiology
Answer: A
Q2) The first academic program in audiology was established by Raymond Carhart at ___________ University.
Answer: Northwestern
Q3) When was the AuD first introduced?
Answer: In the 1990s
Q4) Which organization,in 1988,was formed "of,by,and for audiologists"?
A)American Speech-Language-Hearing Association
B)American Otology Association
C)American Academy of Audiology
D)Ear Institute
Answer: C
Q5) Harvey Fletcher worked at the _______ Laboratories.
Answer: Bell
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Chapter 2: Sound, Acoustics, and Psychoacoustics
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The typical medium for sound that audiologists deal with is ______. Answer: Air
Q2) What is the relation between time period and frequency?
Answer: Frequency = 1/Time period.Frequency is the number of cycles in one second,while time period is the time taken to complete one cycle. They are inversely proportional to each other.
Q3) A sound with a single frequency of vibration is called a __________.
Answer: Sine wave
Q4) ________ and ________ are two properties that are essential for vibration. Answer: Inertia and elasticity
Q5) RMS stands for _______________________. Answer: Root mean square
Q6) The gradual decrease in the amplitude of vibration over time is called
A)Inertia
B)Resistance
C)Damping
D)Resistance.
Answer: C
Q7) The complete formula to calculate dB SPL is _______________. Answer: 20 log P<sub>2</sub>/P<sub>R</sub>)
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Chapter 3: Anatomy and Physiology of the Auditory and Vestibular Systems
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40 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the outer ear?
Answer: The external ear is involved in funneling sound, amplifying selective frequencies through the property of resonance, enhancing the detection of sounds coming from the direction the listener is facing, sound localization, and protection of the ear through the secretion of cerumen.
Q2) The most flexible and stiff regions of the tympanic membrane are called _______ and _________,respectively.
Answer: Pars flaccida, Pars tensa
Q3) How is intensity coded in function of the auditory nerve?
Answer: As sound intensity increases, 1) the neurons respond with increased firing rates. 2) there is spread of excitation along the basilar membrane, with the result that more neurons start firing. 3) the degree of phase locking among neurons increases.
Q4) State four specific locations of tonotopical organization within the auditory system:
Answer: Cochlea, Auditory Nerve, Lateral Lemniscus, Inferior Colliculus
Q5) The lateral border of the middle ear space is formed by the ____________.
Answer: Tympanic membrane
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Preparing for Hearing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is calibration of hearing test equipment important?
Q2) The abbreviation HIPAA refers to _______________________.
Q3) The abbreviation PHI refers to ____________________________.
Q4) List two risks to patient safety in an audiology clinic.
Q5) Describe the difference between chronological age and developmental age in a child.
Q6) List three ways an adult patient might response to sound.
Q7) What are some examples of universal precautions for patient safety?
Q8) What type of transducer offers the most and the least attenuation of ambient noise during hearing testing?
Q9) An earphone for the right ear is colored-coded ______________,and the left earphone is color-coded _______________.
Q10) Calibration of hearing test equipment is optional. A)True B)False
Q11) Always writing the patient's name on each clinic document before hearing testing begins is an example of good clinical ___________.
Q12) Otoscopy is defined as _________________________________________. Page 6
Q13) Cite four factors that can influence behavioral hearing test results.
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Pure Tone Audiometry
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name the three mechanisms for bone conducting hearing.
Q2) An air-bone gap is a typical finding in
A)Normal hearing.
B)Sensorineural hearing loss.
C)Conductive hearing loss.
D)All of the above.
Q3) What three factors do audiologists look for when interpreting audiograms?
Q4) Which of the following changes in stimulus intensity best describes the typical descending-ascending method in pure tone audiometry?
A)Increase intensity from 0 dB HL
B)Decrease intensity in 10 dB steps and increase intensity in 5 dB steps
C)Decrease intensity in 5 dB steps and increase intensity in 10 dB steps
D)Increase intensity in 10 dB steps and decrease intensity in 5 dB steps
Q5) What is a clinically important air-bone gap?
Q6) What are some important steps that should precede pure tone audiometry?
Q7) What are the pros and cons of using loudspeakers for hearing testing?
Q8) Describe how the traditional PTA is calculated.
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Q9) Audiometers that allow the presentation of two sounds independently and separately to two earphones are called __________ audiometers.
Chapter 6: Speech Audiometry
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between speech discrimination and word recognition?
Q2) State two different patient response modes in word recognition testing.
Q3) What is meant by the term "rollover"?
Q4) What is the purpose of the VU meter on an audiometer?
Q5) What is a spondee word?
Q6) In the clinic,word recognition is never tested in background noise.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The count-the-dots audiogram provides a handy way to estimate a patient's:
A)Bone conduction hearing thresholds
B)Speech reception threshold
C)Speech awareness threshold
D)Articulation index
Q8) Name different types of stimuli used in speech audiometry.
Q9) The SRT is described in _______________,whereas word recognition scores are described in ___________________.
Q10) What is the relation between the SRT and the PTA?
Q11) Two response modes used in measuring SRT in young children are _______________ and _______________. Page 9
Q12) What is difference between the SDT and the SRT and how are they related?
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Chapter 7: Masking and Audiogram Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase or shift in hearing threshold in the test ear when a modest amount of masking is presented to the non-test ear is known as:
A)The Bing effect
B)Under-masking
C)Central masking
D)The occlusion effect
Q2) An important difference between the SAL test and conventional bone-conduction testing is:
A)Masking noise is presented via bone conduction rather than air conduction
B)Masking noise is presented via air conduction rather than bone conduction
C)Both ears are uncovered during the SAL test
D)There is no difference between the two techniques
Q3) If the amount of masking noise is insufficient to prevent cross-over,what type of masking would this be?
A)Sufficient masking
B)Undermasking
C)Overmasking
D)None of the above
Q4) The interaural attenuation for bone-conduction testing is ______.
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Chapter 8: Electro-Acoustic Measures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sound used in acoustic immittance measurement is known as the _________ tone.
Q2) Name the different types of tympanograms commonly measured,with examples for when each may be found.
Q3) A perforated tympanic membrane would result in a _____ type tympanogram.
Q4) Acoustic immittance recorded at a single air pressure is called _____.
Q5) The most common test stimulus in DPOAEs measurement is ____________.
Q6) What is the peak pressure for a type C tympanogram?
A)Beyond -150 daPa
B)Beyond -50 daPa
C)Beyond +200 daPa
D)Between ± 100 daPa
Q7) The most common stimulus used to elicit TEOAEs is a ______________________.
Q8) Acoustic immittance tests can be performed with the ear canal open.
A)True
B)False
Q9) The abbreviation ART stands for __________.
Q10) Describe two important advantages of electroacoustic auditory measures over behavioral tests like pure tone audiometry. Page 12
Q11) List some applications of OAEs in clinical audiology.
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Chapter 9: Special Speech Audiometry Tests and Auditory
Evoked Responses
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The time difference between stimulus presentation and measurement of each peak in the ABR waveform is called
A)Absolute latency
B)Interpeak latency
C)Amplitude
D)Wave morphology
Q2) What are the two major features of ABR waves that are analyzed?
Q3) List three different kinds of noise used in speech-in-noise tests.
Q4) The three major waves or components of the ABR are: _____,____,and ____.
Q5) Dichotic tests utilize which of the following kinds of speech materials?
A)CV syllables
B)Spondee words
C)Sentences
D)All of the above
Q6) Why are very brief sounds such as clicks good stimuli for eliciting an ABR?
Q7) Define what is meant by the phrase "distorted speech tests."
Page 14
Q8) Provide a possible physiological explanation for abnormal rollover.
Q9) The acronym ABR refers to _______________________________________.
Q10) The latency of ABR wave V is the time it occurs after the __________________.
Q11) How is a click different from a tone burst?
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Chapter 10: Differential Diagnosis of Auditory and Vestibular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of narrowing down possible causes of a hearing loss or any medical problem is known as ___________________.
Q2) Ear pain,dizziness,and fullness are criteria for referral of a patient to an otolaryngologist.
A)True B)False
Q3) The process of screening all babies for hearing loss within the first three months of birth is called _________.
Q4) OSHA guidelines require that employers monitor an employee's hearing at least ______ a year.
Q5) Evidence-based clinical procedures and techniques for diagnosis and management of hearing,vestibular,and related disorders are the basis for __________.
Q6) There is no role for otoacoustic emissions in screening for hearing loss in adults. A)True B)False
Q7) ______________ tests are performed with irrigation or flushing of the external ear canal with warm and cool water or air.
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Chapter 11: Outer, Middle, and Inner Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perforation in the tympanic membrane in an otherwise normal ear produces a severe-to-profound hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ____________ is the term used to describe an infection in the middle ear space.
Q3) Which of the following diseases is associated with dual sensory impairment?
a.Usher's syndrome
b.Otitis media
c.Eustachian tube dysfunction
d.Meniere's disease
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fluid in the middle ear space is called otitis media with ________________.
Q5) Occupational exposure to high-intensity noise accounts for about 10% of all adults with moderate hearing loss.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify three specific causes for a perforation of the tympanic membrane.
Q7) Gentamyin is an example of an _________________________ antibiotic.
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Q8) A hearing that occurs suddenly without a known etiology is called ________.
Central Nervous System Dysfunction and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three auditory symptoms of an acoustic neuroma are _____,______,and
Q2) Why is neuroplasticity an important concept in audiology?
Q3) How is APD different from typical hearing loss?
Q4) Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder is usually identified by normal ___________and the absence of an __________.
Q5) Alzheimer's disease is associated with hearing loss and central auditory dysfunction.
A)True B)False
Q6) Why is early identification and accurate diagnosis important for management of auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder?
Q7) Define an auditory processing disorder APD).
Q8) Children with APD usually have abnormal pure tone hearing thresholds.. A)True B)False
Q9) Change
Q10) List three disorders that often coexist with auditory processing disorders in adults.
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Chapter 13: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe what you would immediately suspect if a patient complained that their hearing aid just died.
Q2) The hearing aid ______________ displays the amount of amplified sound produced by the hearing aid at different frequencies in the patient's ear canal.
Q3) Battery sizes are _____________________ coded.
Q4) What types of patients are generally considered candidates for a Baha device?
Q5) The process of confirming that the hearing aid is amplifying sound appropriately for the patient's hearing loss is called ________________.
Q6) The type of hearing aid technology that permits maximum flexibility in hearing aid fitting is ____________.
Q7) Cite several advantages of the open-fit receiver-in-the-canal RIC)type of hearing aid.
Q8) The development of the _____________________ was an important invention in the twentieth century,and led to smaller hearing aids.
Q9) Let's say you are fitting a hearing aid on a young child.How would you instruct the parent about battery safety?
Page 20
Q10) What are some common problems with hearing aids?
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Page 21
Chapter 14: Audiologic Habilitationrehabilitation: Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Habilitation of hearing loss in children needs to be family centered. A)True
B)False
Q2) Decreased memory,attention,and processing speed are all examples of ______________ factors that can affect communication in elderly persons with hearing loss.
Q3) ___________________ counseling is explaining the results of hearing assessment and what should be done next.
Q4) The _____________ approach to communication places an emphasis on the child's residual hearing through the use of amplification with the goal of developing listening skills through natural communication.
Q5) An example of a computer-based program for auditory training in adults is ___________.
Q6) The _______________ approach is a family-centered variation of the auditory-oral strategy that maximizes normal daily parent-child interaction to promote development of effective communication,rather than reliance on professionals to teach speech and language skills.
Q7) What is the difference between habilitation and rehabilitation?
Q8) Define "bilingual-bicultural education" for children who are deaf. Page 22
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Chapter 15: Pseudohypacusis, Tinnitus, and Hyperacusis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperacusis can rarely be effectively managed or treated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Risk factors for false or exaggerated hearing loss include:
A)The potential for financial compensation or gain
B)Sudden apparent hearing loss with no clear diagnosis
C)A history of physical,sexual,or emotional abuse
D)All of the above are risk factors
Q3) Hyperacusis is defined as:
A)Super good hearing
B)Abnormal intolerance to everyday sounds
C)A high-frequency hearing loss
D)A false or exaggerated hearing loss
Q4) A fear of specific sounds is called ________,while an extreme dislike of specific sounds is called ______.
Q5) Hearing aids play no role in the management of tinnitus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A tinnitus evaluation usually involves measurement of the _______ and the ________ of a patient's tinnitus.
Page 24
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Chapter 16: Management Strategies in Specific Patient Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) An audiology or speech pathology report is a legal document.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is it important to determine the location of auditory dysfunction in patients with ANSD?
Q3) Team members for management of auditory processing disorders may include:
A)Audiologists and Speech pathologists
B)Educators
C)Psychologists
D)All of the above
Q4) Neurofibromas generally grow on only one side.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following groups has developed guidelines for management of children with permanent hearing loss:
A)NIH
B)State licensure boards
C)Joint Committee on Infant Hearing
D)American Association of Interventionists AAI)
Q6) The overall objective in management of patients with cochlear implants is _____. Page 25
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