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Atmospheric Sciences is an interdisciplinary course focused on the study of the Earth's atmosphere, its processes, and its interactions with both the planet's surface and outer space. The course covers fundamental principles of meteorology, climatology, atmospheric chemistry, and physics, exploring topics such as weather patterns, climate change, air pollution, and the global energy balance. Students will learn to analyze atmospheric data, understand the dynamics behind weather phenomena, and assess the impacts of human activity on atmospheric systems. This course provides a foundational understanding essential for careers in environmental science, meteorology, and climate research.
Recommended Textbook
Meteorology Today An Introduction to Weather Climate and the Environment 2nd Edition by C.
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Q1) Which of the following is the most abundant gas emitted from volcanoes?
A)carbon dioxide
B)water vapour
C)nitrogen
D)sulfur dioxide
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the number or mass of air molecules in a given space or volume?
A)pressure
B)temperature
C)weight
D)density
Answer: D
Q3) If the air temperature at the Earth's surface (0 metres) is 16°C, what is the approximate air temperature at an altitude of 10,000 metres, assuming an average atmospheric lapse rate of 6.5°C per 1000 metres?
Answer: -49°C
Q4) What causes air pressure? Why does air pressure decrease with increasing altitude?
Answer: Answers may vary.
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Q1) When you touch a wooden chair and a glass table top in the same room, the glass feels cooler. Why?
A)The chair is warmer.
B)Glass has a higher specific heat than wood.
C)Latent heat is being transferred from the glass to your skin.
D)Glass is a better conductor of heat than wood.
Answer: D
Q2) According to Wien's displacement law, which of the following expressions describes the wavelength at which maximum radiation occurs?
A)The wavelength is inversely proportional to the temperature.
B)The wavelength is proportional to the pressure.
C)The wavelength is proportional to the temperature.
D)The wavelength is inversely proportional to the pressure.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following processes occurs when sinking air warms?
A)expansion
B)compression
C)friction
D)condensation
Answer: B
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Q1) Under which of the following conditions do the strongest radiation inversions occur?
A)clear skies
B)precipitation
C)partly cloudy skies
D)overcast skies
Answer: A
Q2) During summer near the North Pole, how much time does the sun spend lying above the horizon, when compared to the mid-latitudes?
A)The sun starts lying and disappearing above the horizon later.
B)The sun lies above the horizon for a shorter period of time.
C)The sun lies above the horizon for a longer period of time.
D)The sun lies above the horizon for the same amount of time.
Answer: C
Q3) During which of the following months does Indian summer most likely occur?
A)August
B)June
C)October
D)December
Answer: C
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Q1) When comparing the water budgets from each of the following locations, on average which would have the lowest amount of runoff?
A)Regina, SK
B)Toronto, ON
C)Vancouver, BC
D)St.John's NL
Q2) At which of the following times of day is the relative humidity normally at a minimum?
A)when the air temperature is lowest
B)just before sunrise
C)about midnight
D)when the air temperature is highest
Q3) What is meant by the terms "water vapour saturation" and "saturation vapour pressure"? Why does the saturation vapour pressure increase with increasing air temperature?
Q4) Explain why, at temperatures below freezing, the saturation vapour pressure over water is greater than the saturation vapour pressure over ice.
Q5) How can you heat air without decreasing its relative humidity?
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Q1) In which of the following conditions is the use of helicopters at airports effective to mix the air and disperse radiation fog?
A)The fog layer is deep.
B)The liquid water content of the fog is high.
C)The liquid water content of the fog is low.
D)The fog layer is not deep.
Q2) In which of the following conditions does radiation fog typically form?
A)clear, windy days
B)clear, calm nights
C)clear, windy nights
D)clear, calm days
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to detached clouds of delicate and fibrous appearance, usually white and without shading, and sometimes with a silky appearance?
A)cirrus
B)stratus
C)cirrocumulus
D)altostratus
Q4) How can you visually distinguish between cumulus, altocumulus, and cirrocumulus clouds?
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Q1) Which of the following describes a conditionally unstable atmosphere?
A)stable with respect to unsaturated air and unstable with respect to saturated air
B)unstable with respect to unsaturated air and stable with respect to saturated air
C)unstable with respect to unsaturated air and unstable with respect to saturated air
D)stable with respect to unsaturated air and stable with respect to saturated air
Q2) A parcel of unsaturated air with a temperature of 30°C rises from the surface to an altitude of 1000 metres. Which of the following describes the temperature of the unsaturated air parcel at this altitude?
A)6°C colder than at the surface
B)6°C warmer than at the surface
C)10°C colder than at the surface
D)10°C warmer than at the surface
Q3) Explain why a rising parcel of air expands and cools.
Q4) Explain why clouds form in rising air. Would it be possible for rising air to remain cloud-free?
Q5) Under what conditions can a cloud form when air is sinking?
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Q1) The first raindrops to reach the ground at the beginning of a rain shower are often very large. Explain why this is so.
Q2) In Ontario, most precipitation that falls to the surface as rain originally formed as which precipitation type?
A)rain
B)freezing rain
C)ice pellets
D)snow
Q3) Which of the following is the most common ice crystal shape?
A)rime
B)virga
C)dendrite
D)graupel
Q4) Which of the following might be mistaken for hail?
A)graupel
B)virga
C)dendrite
D)supercooled droplet
Q5) Briefly describe the differences between snow, freezing rain, ice pellets, and hail.
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Q1) Explain the formation of a geostrophic wind.
Q2) Which of the following describes why the net force acting on air that is blowing parallel to straight contours at constant speed is zero?
A)Coriolis and pressure gradient forces are equal and pulling in opposite directions.
B)Coriolis and pressure gradient forces are equal and pulling in identical directions.
C)Coriolis and frictional forces are equal, and pulling in identical directions.
D)Coriolis and frictional forces are equal, and pulling in opposite directions.
Q3) Which of the following statements describes what a barograph does?
A)It draws isobars on a surface weather map.
B)It predicts pressures one or two days before they occur.
C)It measures and records atmospheric pressure.
D)It maintains the pressure in a room at a preset value.
Q4) Sketch the wind flow patterns around surface high- and low-pressure centres in the northern and southern hemispheres.
Q5) In which side is pressure decreasing most rapidly with increasing altitude?
A)on the right
B)on the left
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Q1) Which of the following instruments would you use for a rawinsonde observation?
A)aerovane
B)radiosonde
C)cup anemometer
D)wind profiler
Q2) How can the formation of clouds on the upwind side of a mountain affect the strength of a chinook wind?
Q3) Areas along the shores of the Great Lakes often experience a lake breeze circulation. Are these winds different than those associated with a sea breeze circulation? Explain.
Q4) The top of the friction layer is usually found near which of the following altitudes?
A)100 m
B)5000 m
C)1000 m
D)500 m
Q5) Draw a sketch to show where eddies can form when air blows rapidly over a mountain range. Indicate where clouds might form. How would these clouds appear when viewed from the ground?
Q6) Will a valley breeze or a mountain breeze produce clouds? Explain.
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Q1) How many semipermanent highs and lows typically exist in the northern hemisphere in January?
A)10
B)7
C)5
D)4
Q2) What is the polar jet stream and where is it found? Does the position of the polar jet stream change during the year?
Q3) In which of the following directions does the jet stream flow?
A)directly from west to east
B)directly from east to west
C)from the equator towards the poles
D)in a wavy pattern from west to east
Q4) On a weather map of the northern hemisphere, in which of the following locations are trade winds observed?
A)between the polar front and the subtropical highs
B)between the subpolar lows and the subtropical highs
C)north of the polar front
D)south of the subtropical highs
Q5) Explain why upwelling occurs along the California coast.
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Q1) During which of the following conditions do lake-effect snows occur?
A)when an mT air mass moves over a warm body of water
B)when an mT air mass moves over a cold body of water
C)when a cP air mass moves over a cold body of water
D)when a cP air mass moves over a warm body of water
Q2) In which of the following air masses do cumuliform clouds most likely develop?
A)cP air mass moving over warm water
B)mT air mass moving over cold land surface
C)cT air mass moving over a mountain range
D)cT air mass moving over cold water
Q3) The greatest lake-effect snowfall will generally occur on which of the following shores of the Great Lakes?
A)eastern
B)northern
C)southern
D)western
Q4) Explain why the observation of a halo around the moon or sun could forewarn of the arrival of a warm front.
Q5) What types of weather changes accompany the passage of a dryline?
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Q1) Which of the following is an accurate statement about polar lows?
A)They are smaller than middle-latitude cyclones and typically form in winter.
B)They are smaller than middle-latitude cyclones and typically form in summer.
C)They are larger than middle-latitude cyclones and typically form in winter.
D)They are larger than middle-latitude cyclones and typically form in summer.
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to the atmosphere as shown on an upper-level chart where isotherms cross the contours and temperature advection occurs?
A)baroclinic
B)barotropic
C)geostrophic
D)hydrostatic
Q3) Which of the following scientists was one of the meteorologists who helped develop the polar-front theory of a developing wave cyclone?
A)Rossby
B)Bjerknes
C)Thornthwaite
D)McSorley
Q4) Describe with a sketch, a wind flow pattern that results in upper-level divergence.
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Q1) Which of the following is likely observed in a region where severe thunderstorms are producing tornadoes?
A)a dry tongue of cold air between the 700 and 500 hPa levels
B)cool air moving north at about the 850 hPa level
C)a strong ridge of high pressure over the region
D)absolutely stable air in the lower troposphere
Q2) Where is Canada's tornado alley located?
A)southern Ontario
B)southern Quebec
C)southern Alberta
D)southern Manitoba
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a second surge of electrons that proceeds from the base of a cloud toward the ground during cloud-to-ground lightning?
A)stepped leader
B)dart leader
C)return stroke
D)downstroke
Q4) How does a supercell thunderstorm differ from a multicell thunderstorm?
Q5) Do invisible tornadoes exist? Explain.
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Q1) Even though more hurricanes form, on average, over the eastern Pacific Ocean than over the tropical North Atlantic, we generally hear less about them. Why do you think this is so?
Q2) What approach do recent computer models of hurricanes use in their predictions of a hurricane's intensity?
A)They compare water temperature.
B)They compare latent heat content.
C)They compare present storms to similar tropical storms in the past.
D)They compare wind direction.
Q3) Which of the following gives the name for a weak trough of low pressure along which hurricanes occasionally form in the tropics?
A)permanent wave
B)baroclinic wave
C)easterly wave
D)open wave
Q4) Where is the Bermuda High located during the summer and fall? How might the path of a hurricane, moving toward the west from Africa, be affected by the Bermuda High as the hurricane approaches the United States?
Q5) What is a storm surge? How does a storm surge form?
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Q1) When examining a surface map, which of the following factors can be used to predict the movement of a surface low-pressure area?
A)orientation of the isobars behind a cold front
B)orientation of the isobars in front of warm front
C)movement during the previous two hours
D)region of greatest pressure decrease
Q2) In which of the following conditions can a persistence forecast be quite accurate?
A)when upper-level winds blow straight from west to east
B)when a frontal system approaches your location at constant speed
C)when the weather has been unusually cold for several days
D)when you are positioned in the middle of a large, stationary air mass
The following questions refer to the above illustration of a middle-latitude cyclone.The dashed lines show the positions of the fronts six hours ago.
Q3) To accurately depict a middle-latitude cyclone and to forecast the cyclone's movement, about how far apart should weather observing stations be?
Q4) List some of the factors that affect the accuracy of atmospheric models.
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Q1) Which of the following climate classifications refers to a region that has average monthly temperatures that remain above 18°C throughout the year and abundant rainfall, except for a short one- or two-month dry period?
A)tropical monsoon (Am)
B)humid continental (Dfa)
C)tropical wet (Af)
D)moist subtropical (Cs)
Q2) Which of the following factors represents a climatic control?
A)ocean temperature
B)intensity of sunshine at different longitudes
C)prevailing winds
D)types of aerosols
Q3) Compare the climate of your town with that of another location at the same latitude, but in a different continent. Explain any similarities or differences.
Q4) Which of the following cities most likely has a dry summer?
A)Los Angeles, California
B)Chicago, Illinois
C)Halifax, Nova Scotia
D)Montreal, Quebec
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Q1) Suppose the average snowfall over an area of Nunavut is 100 cm per year. How many years will it take for the snow to reach a depth of 1000 metres? (Assume there is no melting in summer and no compaction)
A)1000 years
B)10,000 years
C)100,000 years
D)10 years
Q2) Which of the following statements represents the global climate throughout much of the Earth's history?
A)It was likely warmer than it is today.
B)It was likely about the same temperature as it is today.
C)It was likely colder than it is today.
D)It was likely more variable than it is today.
Q3) Describe some of the techniques used to infer past climates. About how far into the past are these different methods able to reconstruct past climatic conditions?
Q4) In what ways might climate change benefit the planet?
Q5) Discuss some of the challenges that climatologists face when attempting to reconstruct the climate of the past.
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Q1) List several atmospheric pollutants. What are the most important sources, and what are the environmental and health effects of these pollutants?
Q2) Which of the following regions of Canada likely has the most severe acid rain problem?
A)the Prairies
B)the Maritimes
C)coastal British Columbia
D)southern Ontario
Q3) Which of the following describes an urban heat island?
A)It results in cities being cooler at night compared to rural areas.
B)It causes a wind to flow from the city to the countryside.
C)It releases more longwave radiation in the day than a nearby rural area.
D)It has less evaporative cooling than nearby rural areas.
Q4) Which of the following conditions on a particular day are indicated by an Air Quality Health Index value of 3?
A)moderately hazardous
B)extremely hazardous
C)unhealthful
D)good
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Q1) Which of the following is a name for diffuse light?
A)scattered light
B)refracted light
C)dispersion of light
D)transmitted light
Q2) In which of the following directions does a rainbow appear at sunset in the middle latitudes?
A)toward the south
B)toward the east
C)toward the west
D)toward the north
Q3) Distinguish between the processes of reflection, refraction, and scattering of light. Give an example of an atmospheric phenomena produced by each one. Which of these processes produces dispersion?
Q4) In which of the following directions could you see a sundog?
A)about 22 degrees to the right or left of the moon
B)about 22 degrees to the right or left of the sun
C)about 22 degrees below the sun
D)about 22 degrees above the sun
Q5) Why does adding particles to the atmosphere affect visibility?
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