Atmospheric Science
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Course Introduction
Atmospheric Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the physical and chemical processes governing Earths atmosphere. Students will examine topics such as weather systems, climate dynamics, atmospheric structure, global circulation patterns, cloud formation, and the impact of human activities on air quality and climate change. The course also introduces observational techniques, atmospheric modeling, and the interpretation of meteorological data, providing a comprehensive understanding of how the atmosphere interacts with other components of the Earth system.
Recommended Textbook
Meteorology Today An Introduction to Weather Climate and the Environment 2nd Edition by C.
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Chapter 1: Earth and Its Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions causes hypoxia?
A)rapid change in atmospheric pressure
B)extreme cold
C)combined effects of heat and humidity
D)lack of oxygen to the brain
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best summarizes how atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide change throughout the course of a year?
A)They tend to remain stable.
B)They tend to go up and down.
C)They tend to keep decreasing.
D)They tend to keep increasing.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to the amount of force exerted over an area of surface?
A)pressure
B)density
C)temperature
D)weight
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Energy: Warming Earth and the Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before sunrise on a clear, calm, cold morning, frost can often be seen on the tops of parked cars, even when the air temperature is above freezing. Which of the following processes cools the tops of the cars and causes this condition?
A)conduction
B)convection
C)latent heat
D)radiation
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements describes the radiative behaviour of a red shirt?
A)It selectively absorbs infrared wavelengths and scatters the rest.
B)It selectively scatters red wavelengths of visible light and absorbs the rest.
C)It selectively absorbs red wavelengths and scatters infrared wavelengths.
D)It selectively absorbs red wavelengths of visible light and scatters the rest.
Answer: B
Q3) In what ways is the atmospheric greenhouse different from an agricultural greenhouse?
Answer: Answers may vary.
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4
Chapter 3: Seasonal and Daily Temperatures
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Q1) Would a strong radiation inversion be more likely to form on a winter night or a summer night? Explain your answer.
Answer: A strong radiation inversion would be more likely to form on a winter night. This is because in winter, the ground cools down rapidly after sunset due to the longer nights and lower angle of the sun. This rapid cooling of the ground leads to the formation of a strong inversion layer, where a layer of warm air traps cooler air near the surface. In contrast, summer nights tend to be warmer and the ground does not cool down as quickly, making it less likely for a strong radiation inversion to form.
Q2) The Earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5° with respect to the plane of its orbit around the sun. Which of the following describes what would happen in middle latitudes if the angle was increased to 40°?
A)hotter summers and colder winters than at present
B)cooler summers and milder winters than at present
C)hotter summers and milder winters than at present
D)cooler summers and colder winters than at present
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Atmospheric Humidity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms refers to the ratio of the mass of water vapour in a given volume (parcel) of air to the mass of the remaining dry air?
A)absolute humidity
B)mixing ratio
C)relative humidity
D)dew point
Q2) Which of the following describes how much of the world's supply of precipitation is equivalent to the total mass of water vapour stored in the atmosphere at any moment?
A)about 1 week's supply
B)about 1 month's supply
C)about 1 day's supply
D)about 1 year's supply
Q3) Explain why condensation is more likely to occur on a glass of water sitting on a table outdoors on a warm day as opposed to a cold day.
Q4) Explain why high humidity in the summer makes us feel warmer than the air temperature suggests.
Q5) How can you heat air without decreasing its relative humidity?
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Chapter 5: Condensation: Dew, Fog, and Clouds
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of fog are known as "arctic sea smoke" and "steam devils"?
A)advection fog
B)radiational fog
C)upslope fog
D)evaporation fog
Q2) The term "mackerel sky" describes which of the following types of cloud?
A)stratocumulus
B)cirrocumulus
C)cumulonimbus
D)nimbostratus
Q3) Under which of the following circumstances can the relative humidity exceed 100 percent without producing fog?
A)There are no condensation nuclei present.
B)The dew point is higher than the air temperature.
C)The air is perfectly dry.
D)There are too many electrically charged ions in the air.
Q4) List the major height categories of clouds. What differences might you expect to find in the clouds that form at these different levels?
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Chapter 6: Stability and Cloud Development
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Q1) Which of the following describes what tends to happen to a large environmental lapse rate during vertical mixing of air?
A)it decreases
B)it remains the same
C)it increases
D)it increases at first, followed by a decrease
Q2) Do clear skies accompany stable, unstable, or neutral stability conditions? Explain your answer.
Q3) A cloud must have formed at which of the following altitudes?
A)1 km
B)2 km
C)3 km
D)4 km
Q4) Most thunderstorms do not extend very far into the stratosphere. Which of the following conditions of the air in the stratosphere explain this fact?
A)air that is too thin
B)air that is unstable
C)air that is stable
D)air that is too cold
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Chapter 7: Precipitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given that precipitation can be accurately measured at surface weather stations, explain why it is desirable to measure rainfall from space.
Q2) The first raindrops to reach the ground at the beginning of a rain shower are often very large. Explain why this is so.
Q3) Which of the following describes a cloud composed entirely of ice crystals?
A)supersaturated
B)frozen
C)glaciated
D)supercooled
Q4) Which of the following cloud types produces precipitation by the collision-coalescence process only?
A)a thick, supercooled cumulonimbus cloud with abundant nuclei
B)a thick, warm cumulus cloud
C)a thick, cold cumulus cloud
D)a thick, cold nimbostratus cloud
Q5) Explain why the middle parts of clouds have so few ice crystals despite temperatures there that are well below freezing.
Q6) Explain why the curvature effect acts to inhibit the growth of small droplets.
Q7) What is the main difference between a raindrop and a cloud droplet?
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Air Pressure and Winds
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Sample Questions
Q1) On an upper-level chart, which of the following is indicated by a ridge?
A)average heights
B)higher than average heights
C)a region with calm winds
D)lower than average heights
Q2) Which of the following describes cyclonic flow regardless of the hemisphere?
A)It is a counterclockwise flow.
B)It is a clockwise wind flow.
C)It is circulation around a low-pressure centre.
D)It is circulation around a high-pressure centre.
Q3) It takes a greater amount of force to move a heavier object from a standing stop than it does a lighter object. This concept can be explained by which of the following?
A)Newton's first law of motion
B)Newton's second law of motion
C)gravity
D)friction
Q4) Sketch the wind flow patterns around surface high- and low-pressure centres in the northern and southern hemispheres.
Q5) Under what conditions (if any) might you record a station pressure of 750 hPa?
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Chapter 9: Wind: Small-Scale and Local Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following locations is the most practical for building a wind turbine?
A)a narrow valley
B)a region of moderate, steady winds
C)a region of strong, gusty winds
D)the downwind side of a mountain
Q2) The second greatest wind speed ever recorded at the Earth's surface occurred at which of the following locations?
A)Cheyenne, Wyoming
B)Miami, Florida
C)Mt.Washington, New Hampshire
D)Mt.Pleasant, Iowa
Q3) Pedalling a bicycle into a 20 knot wind requires about how much effort compared to pedalling into a 10 knot wind?
A)10 times more effort
B)4 times more effort
C)2 times more effort
D)the same amount of effort
Q4) Explain how in British Columbia sea breezes can decrease the potential for wildfires.
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Chapter 10: Wind: Global Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is true about polar high-pressure areas?
A)They are responsible for the increased rate of sea ice melt.
B)They produce the polar easterlies.
C)They are stronger than all other pressure areas on Earth.
D)They are cyclonic.
Q2) Which of the following major ocean currents flow parallel to the coast of North America?
A)California Current, Gulf Stream, and Labrador Current
B)Labrador Current, Canary Current, and Gulf Stream
C)Labrador Current, Canary Current, and California Current
D)Kuroshio Current, California Current, and Labrador Current
Q3) On a weather map of the northern hemisphere, in which of the following locations are trade winds observed?
A)between the polar front and the subtropical highs
B)between the subpolar lows and the subtropical highs
C)north of the polar front
D)south of the subtropical highs
Q4) What changes might occur in the Earth's general circulation if the Earth's rotation were in the opposite direction?
Q5) Compare and contrast the causes and effects of El Niño and La Niña.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Air Masses and Fronts
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements accurately compares an average cold front to an average warm front?
A)Generally, precipitation covers a much broader area with a cold front.
B)Especially in summer, cumuliform clouds are often associated with cold fronts.
C)Generally, cold fronts move slower than warm fronts.
D)Generally, warm fronts have steeper slopes than cold fronts.
Q2) Between which of the following points is a warm front positioned?
A)between 3 and 4
B)between 1 and 2
C)between 2 and 5
D)between 2 and 3
Q3) When warm and cold air masses collide, the warm air is forced upward. Why does this occur?
Q4) Explain why the observation of a halo around the moon or sun could forewarn of the arrival of a warm front.
Q5) Which of the following applies to an occluded front?
A)It marks a zone of shifting wind.
B)At the surface, it is always followed by warmer air.
C)It is coloured blue on a surface weather map.
D)It is often associated with a narrow band of precipitation.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Middle-Latitude Cyclones
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Q1) For cyclogenesis to occur along a frontal wave, which of the following conditions must be exhibited by the winds directly aloft of the wave?
A)convergence
B)direct movement from west to east
C)divergence
D)uniform increase in speed over a broad area
Q2) Why does occlusion occur in a middle-latitude cyclone?
A)Warm fronts travel more quickly than cold fronts.
B)Warm fronts and cold fronts travel at the same speed.
C)Cold fronts travel more quickly than warm fronts.
D)Cold air rises up and over warm air.
Q3) In which of the following countries did the polar front theory of a developing wave cyclone originate?
A)Great Britain
B)Germany
C)United States
D)Norway
Q4) Describe or illustrate the various phases in the life cycle of a middle-latitude storm according to the polar front theory.
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Chapter 13: Weather Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is involved in the electrification of a cumulonimbus cloud?
A)snow
B)sleet
C)warm cloud droplets
D)ice crystals
Q2) Which of the following areas are NOT suitable for thunderstorm development?
A)areas of strong high pressure
B)along a front
C)areas of orographic uplift
D)areas of surface convergence
Q3) Where is Canada's tornado alley located?
A)southern Ontario
B)southern Quebec
C)southern Alberta
D)southern Manitoba
Q4) Discuss the similarities and differences between a tornado and a waterspout.
Q5) Do invisible tornadoes exist? Explain.
Q6) The region of greatest tornado activity shifts northward from early spring to summer. Why does this occur?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Thunderstorms
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what ways are weather conditions in the tropics and at middle latitudes different?
Q2) Which of the following statements describes pressure at the centre of a hurricane?
A)It is lower than the surroundings at the surface and higher than the surroundings aloft.
B)It is lower than the surroundings at the surface and lower than the surroundings aloft.
C)It is higher than the surroundings at the surface and lower than the surroundings aloft.
D)It is higher than the surroundings at the surface and higher than the surroundings aloft.
Q3) Which of the following hurricane strengths is indicated by Category 5 on the Saffir-Simpson scale?
A)a very weak hurricane
B)a very strong hurricane
C)a weak hurricane
D)a moderately strong hurricane
Q4) Explain why calm weather typically exists in the eye of a hurricane.
Q5) Why can't hurricanes form in the middle latitudes?
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16
Chapter 15: Tornadoes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how observed teleconnection patterns can help in the preparation of a seasonal weather forecast.
Q2) Which of the following describes a situation for which the Canadian Meteorological Service would release a warning for a severe thunderstorm?
A)Conditions are favourable for wind gusts of 90 km/h or more
B)Conditions are favourable for less than 50 mm of rainfall.
C)Hail less than 2 cm in diameter is occurring.
D)Winds gusts of 90 km/h or more are occurring.
Q3) Which of the following forecast methods compares past weather maps and weather patterns to those of the present?
A)nowcasting
B)persistence forecast
C)analogue method
D)trend method
Q4) Assuming you know last night's minimum temperature, what weather information can be used to predict tonight's minimum temperature?
Q5) Describe the data and tools that a meteorologist assembles prior to making a weather forecast.
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Chapter 16: Hurricanes
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Q1) Compare the following places: Dallol, Ethiopia; Death Valley, California; and El Azizia, Libya. Which of the following statements describes a climatic condition they have in common?
A)They are three of the sunniest places on Earth.
B)They are three of the wettest places on Earth.
C)They are three of the coldest places on the Earth.
D)They are three of the hottest places on the Earth.
Q2) Which of the following climate types is characteristic of middle-latitude locations that have monthly average winter temperatures below 18°C and above -3°C?
A)steppe climate
B)semi-arid climate
C)moist continental climate
D)humid subtropical climate
Q3) Which of the following regions of the United States has a humid subtropical climate?
A)central plains
B)southwest
C)southeast
D)southern California
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18
Chapter 17: Earths Changing Climate
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Q1) Discuss the significance of a predicted increase in global temperatures of 3°C, as opposed to a predicted increase of 1°C.
Q2) What is meant by the term positive feedback? What role could positive feedback play in the atmospheric greenhouse effect? Would this enhance or reduce global warming? What is an example of a "negative feedback" mechanism?
Q3) Which of the following factors relates to explanations of climatic changes as provided by the theory of plate tectonics?
A)the position of the oceans
B)the amount of CO2 and H2O removed from the atmosphere
C)the paths taken by ocean winds
D)mountain building
Q4) Asia and the North American continent have been connected by a land bridge at various times during the past. When was the Bering land bridge most recently exposed? Did this coincide with a warm or cool climatic period?
Q5) Does deforestation act to increase or decrease atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations?
Q6) What are some of the possible consequences of climate change?
Q7) In what ways might climate change benefit the planet?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Global Climate
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Q1) How did the conditions in the atmosphere over Antarctica lead to the formation of the ozone hole?
Q2) Where is the greatest concentration of pollutants likely found?
A)in layer A
B)above layer A
C)in layer B
D)in layer C
Q3) Which of the following toxic gases was an important component of London's smoke fogs?
A)radon
B)sulphur dioxide
C)carbon monoxide
D)ozone
Q4) List several atmospheric pollutants. What are the most important sources, and what are the environmental and health effects of these pollutants?
Q5) Explain how ozone can have both a beneficial and a detrimental role in the Earth's atmosphere.
Q6) Explain why locating industrial facilities on the perimeter of a city might not always prevent air pollution in the city.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Air Pollution
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Q1) Suppose a piece of paper is illuminated with white light and appears red. Which of the following statements explains why the paper appears red?
A)The paper reflects red and absorbs other visible wavelengths.
B)The paper emits red light.
C)The paper disperses white light.
D)The paper absorbs red and reflects other visible wavelengths.
Q2) Which of the following statements describes where to look for a rainbow?
A)To see a rainbow at sunrise, look toward the east.
B)To see a rainbow at sunrise, look toward the west.
C)To see a rainbow at sunset, look toward the north
D)To see a rainbow at sunset, look toward the south.
Q3) Which of the following phenomena is most likely associated with a tangent arc?
A)glory
B)sundog
C)halo
D)rainbow
Q4) Using a diagram, show why an inferior mirage produces an inverted image.
Q5) Why does adding particles to the atmosphere affect visibility?
Q6) What produces a sundog? Where and at what time of day might you try to see a sundog?
Page 21
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