Athletic Training
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Athletic Training is a comprehensive course designed to introduce students to the fundamental concepts and practices of sports medicine, injury prevention, and rehabilitation in physically active populations. The course covers the anatomy and physiology relevant to common athletic injuries, methods for evaluating injuries, emergency care techniques, and the role of nutrition and conditioning in athletic performance. Students will explore the ethical, legal, and professional responsibilities of an athletic trainer and develop essential skills in taping, bracing, and injury management. The course blends classroom instruction with hands-on learning experiences to prepare students for real-world scenarios in athletic training settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 5th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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22 Chapters
359 Verified Questions
359 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Basic Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fibula is on which side of the lower leg?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: B
Q2) Turning your head to look over your left shoulder involves cervical
A) left rotation.
B) right rotation.
C) left lateral bend.
D) right lateral bend.
Answer: A
Q3) When a condition involves both of the legs,which of the following terms best describes this situation?
A) Unilateral
B) Ipsilateral
C) Bilateral
D) Contralateral
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A skeletal pathology characterized by pain in the knee area due to issues with traction epiphysis is which of the following?
A) Osgood-Schlatter disease
B) Slipped femoral capital epiphysis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Osteomyelitis
Answer: A
Q2) A bone marking that consists of a hollow or depression is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: D
Q3) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Articular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shoulder abduction occurs in which plane and around which axis?
A) Frontal plane through a sagittal axis
B) Frontal plane through a frontal axis
C) Transverse plane through a vertical axis
D) Sagittal plane through a frontal axis
Answer: A
Q2) The wrist is an example of which type of joint?
A) Nonaxial
B) Uniaxial
C) Biaxial
D) Triaxial
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following types of joints is NOT a fibrous joint?
A) Gomphosis
B) Synarthrosis
C) Synovial joint
D) Syndesmosis
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Arthrokinematics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hip abduction is an example of which type of motion?
A) Arthrokinematic
B) Osteokinematic
C) Angular
D) Torque
Q2) The type of arthrokinematic motion characterized by rotation of one surface on a fixed adjacent surface is called
A) roll.
B) spin.
C) glide.
D) Any of the above
Q3) The type of end feel that is defined by a lack of normal mechanical limitation of joint ROM is
A) capsular.
B) soft.
C) empty.
D) bony.
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Chapter 5: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of muscle contraction that occurs with fixed speed,fixed resistance,and no joint motion is
A) ISOK.
B) ISOM.
C) ISOT.
D) tenodesis.
Q2) You can make a tighter fist with your wrist extended than with your wrist flexed because of
A) active insufficiency of the finger flexors.
B) active insufficiency of the finger extensors.
C) passive insufficiency of the finger flexors.
D) passive insufficiency of the finger extensors.
Q3) The majority of lower extremity functional activity occurs in a closed chain manner. Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person experiencing "foot drop" has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) The innermost layer of the protective membrane that contains the blood vessels to the brain is the
A) dura mater.
B) subarachnoid mater.
C) pia mater.
D) ventricular mater.
Q3) At which level of the spinal column is damage to the spinal cord no longer a concern?
A) C7
B) T8
C) T10
D) L1
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Chapter 7: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
Q2) A type of cerebral hemorrhage that occurs in a vein with symptoms that occur over time is which of the following?
A) Epidural bleed
B) Ischemic bleed
C) Varicose bleed
D) Subdural bleed
Q3) At which vertebral level does the descending aorta branch into the common iliac arteries?
A) T10
B) T12
C) L2
D) L4
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Chapter 8: Basic Biomechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to increase the challenge of a person working on balance,you could do which of the following?
A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support
B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support
D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
Q2) In order to decrease the challenge of a client working on balance,you would do which of the following?
A) Raise the center of gravity and increase the base of support
B) Raise the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
C) Lower the center of gravity and increase the base of support
D) Lower the center of gravity and decrease the base of support
Q3) Most concentric exercises done in the body are considered to be which type of lever?
A) First class
B) Second class
C) Third class
D) Fourth class
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Chapter 9: Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates from the spinous processes of T4-T12 and inserts at the base of the scapular spine?
A) Serratus anterior
B) Upper trapezius
C) Lower trapezius
D) Infraspinatus
Q2) Weakness of the rhomboid muscles could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Cranial nerve XI
B) Dorsal scapular nerve
C) Long thoracic nerve
D) Medial pectoral nerve
Q3) What motion would the upper trapezius do in a reversal of muscle action?
A) Scapular elevation
B) Scapular depression
C) Head and neck extension
D) Head and neck flexion
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Chapter 10: Shoulder Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bony landmark of the humerus is located on the lateral side near the midpoint of the shaft?
A) Bicipital groove
B) Lesser tubercle
C) Deltoid tuberosity
D) Humeral head
Q2) The latissimus dorsi,subscapularis,and anterior deltoid have which of the following shoulder motions in common?
A) Medial rotation
B) Lateral rotation
C) Adduction
D) Flexion
Q3) The pectoralis major,latissimus dorsi,and teres major have which of the following shoulder motions in common?
A) Horizontal abduction
B) Adduction
C) Lateral rotation
D) Flexion
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Chapter 11: Elbow Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle originates on the humeral medial epicondyle and proximal ulna and spans the elbow anteriorly to attach on the lateral surface of the radius near its midpoint?
A) Supinator
B) Pronator teres
C) Anconeus
D) Brachialis
Q2) Which muscle originates on the humeral lateral condyle and inserts on the radial styloid process?
A) Brachioradialis
B) Flexor carpi radialis
C) Pronator teres
D) Pronator quadratus
Q3) Weakness of the triceps brachii muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Wrist Joint
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a person repeatedly falls on an outstretched hand (extended wrist)while snowboarding,they are at increased risk for a sprain to which of the following ligaments?
A) Radial collateral ligament
B) Ulnar collateral ligament
C) Palmar radiocarpal ligament
D) Dorsal radiocarpal ligament
Q2) The ligament that attaches to the styloid process of the radius and to the scaphoid and trapezium bones is the
A) radial collateral ligament.
B) ulnar collateral ligament.
C) dorsal radiocarpal ligament.
D) interosseous membrane.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus and inserts on the palmar fascia?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor carpi radialis longus
C) Flexor carpi ulnaris
D) Extensor carpi ulnaris
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Chapter 13: Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure that spans the posterior side of the wrist from the ulnar styloid process to the lateral radius is called the
A) flexor retinaculum.
B) extensor retinaculum.
C) extensor hood.
D) palmar carpal ligament.
Q2) Which muscle originates on the flexor digitorum profundus tendon and inserts on the tendon of the extensor digitorum muscle?
A) Palmar interossei
B) Dorsal interossei
C) Flexor pollicis brevis
D) Lumbricales
Q3) Which muscle originates on the lateral humeral epicondyle and inserts at the base of the distal phalanx of the fifth finger?
A) Palmaris longus
B) Extensor digiti minimi
C) Flexor digiti minimi
D) Extensor indicis
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15
Chapter 14: Temporomandibular Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which prime movers of the TMJ are innervated by the facial nerve?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Lateral pterygoid
D) None of the above
Q2) Which muscle originates on the temporal fossa and inserts on the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible?
A) Temporalis
B) Masseter
C) Medial pterygoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
Q3) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the A) lateral pterygoid.
B) medial pterygoid.
C) temporalis.
D) masseter.
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Chapter 15: Neck and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best position to achieve eccentric strengthening of the trunk extensors?
A) Supine,curl up with focus on the "up" part of the exercise
B) Supine,curl up with focus on the "down" part of the exercise
C) Prone,raise head and shoulders with focus on the "up" part of the exercise
D) Prone,raise head and shoulders with focus on the "down" part of the exercise
Q2) The muscle that originates on the spinous processes of T3 through T6 and inserts on the transverse processes of C1 through C3 is the
A) scalene.
B) sternocleidomastoid.
C) splenius cervicis.
D) clavicular portion of the pectoralis major.
Q3) Which muscle originates on the transverse processes of the cervical vertebra and inserts on the first and second ribs?
A) Sternocleidomastoid
B) Scalene
C) Splenius capitis
D) Splenius cervicis
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Chapter 16: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person attempting to catch her breath will often place the upper extremities in a closed chain position.Which principle of muscle action accounts for why this is effective?
A) Active insufficiency of the diaphragm
B) Passive insufficiency of the diaphragm
C) Reversal of muscle action of the muscles of the shoulder complex
D) Force couple is formed with the internal and external internal intercostals.
Q2) You read in a trauma patient's chart that he has rib fractures and a collapsed lung.Another term for collapsed lung is which of the following?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pneumonia
C) Pleurisy
D) Hyperventilation
Q3) Which muscles originate on the rib above and insert on the rib below and serve to elevate the ribs?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
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Chapter 17: Pelvic Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in posterior tilt of the pelvis is associated with which of the following motions of the vertebral column?
A) Flexion
B) Hyperextension
C) Lateral bend to the opposite side
D) Rotation to the opposite side
Q2) The bony landmark on the ischium that is posterior and located between the greater and lesser sciatic notches is the
A) tuberosity.
B) auricular surface.
C) spine.
D) posterior inferior iliac spine.
Q3) A person with tight hamstrings will likely adopt which of the following compensatory postures?
A) Posterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
B) Anterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
C) Posterior tilt of pelvis and lumbar curve hyperextension
D) Anterior tilt of pelvis and flattened lumbar curve
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Chapter 18: Hip Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pectineus is a prime mover in which hip motion?
A) Extension
B) Abduction
C) Medial rotation
D) Adduction
Q2) The sartorius functions in a combination of which hip motions?
A) Flexion,adduction,and medial rotation
B) Extension,abduction,and lateral rotation
C) Flexion,abduction,and lateral rotation
D) Extension,adduction,and medial rotation
Q3) Your patient has been in bed for months and has developed lateral hip rotator contractures.The muscles you need to strengthen to improve hip alignment are the A) gluteus minimus.
B) gluteus medius.
C) deep rotators.
D) gluteus maximus.
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Chapter 19: Knee Joint
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lying supine,instruct your client to move the right leg toward the ceiling,keeping the right knee straight.What type of contraction is occurring with the right quadriceps muscles?
A) Isokinetic
B) Isometric
C) Concentric
D) Eccentric
Q2) Which of the following ligaments prevents excessive forward movement of the tibia on the femur?
A) Lateral meniscus
B) Medial collateral
C) Anterior cruciate ligament
D) Genu labrum
Q3) Which muscle has its origin at the medial and lateral condyles of the femur and its insertion at the posterior calcaneus?
A) Popliteus
B) Gastrocnemius
C) Plantaris
D) Soleus
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Chapter 20: Ankle Joint and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supporting ligament on the medial side of the ankle joint is called the A) spring ligament.
B) deltoid ligament.
C) lateral ligament.
D) plantar aponeurosis.
Q2) As you descend stairs leading with your right foot,describe what is happening at the left ankle.
A) Concentric contraction of the left ankle dorsiflexors
B) Eccentric contraction of the left ankle plantar flexors
C) An open chain activity of the left ankle muscles
D) The left ankle dorsiflexors are becoming actively insufficient.
Q3) The soleus has which of the following actions?
A) Knee flexion
B) Ankle inversion
C) Ankle plantarflexion
D) B and C
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Chapter 21: Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with excessive lumbar lordosis could need stretching instruction for which group of muscles?
A) Hip flexors
B) Hip extensors
C) Trunk extensors
D) A and C
Q2) For optimal lateral view standing posture,a plumb line should be aligned with all of the following landmarks except
A) through the earlobe.
B) through the acromion process of the shoulder.
C) the anterior to the greater trochanter.
D) the posterior to the patella.
Q3) If your patient's treatment plan asks her to work on dynamic posture,which of the following activities would be appropriate to have your patient do?
A) Seated stationary posture at a computer station
B) Loading office supplies into a file cabinet
C) Moving files from one shelf to another in a storeroom
D) B and C
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23
Chapter 22: Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) A difficulty or slowness in initiating gait is characteristic of which of the following conditions?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Nonfunctioning gastrocnemius muscle
C) Parkinsonism
D) Muscular dystrophy
Q2) The term used to describe the distance between heel strike of one limb and heel strike of the other is
A) double support.
B) step length.
C) cadence.
D) single support.
Q3) A verbal cue that you could give a patient with poor balance to improve their gait safety is
A) increase the cadence.
B) decrease the step length.
C) increase the width of walking base.
D) B and C
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