Assistive Technology in Occupational Therapy
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles, assessment strategies, and application of assistive technology within the field of occupational therapy. Students will examine various types of assistive devices ranging from low-tech tools to advanced computerized systems designed to enhance independence and participation for individuals with disabilities across the lifespan. Emphasis will be placed on evaluating client needs, selecting appropriate technologies, facilitating integration into daily routines, and addressing ethical, cultural, and accessibility considerations. Through case studies and hands-on experiences, students will develop practical skills for recommending, adapting, and training clients in the effective use of assistive technology within occupational therapy practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pedrettis Occupational Therapy Practice Skills for Physical Dysfunct
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Chapter 1: The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework
and the Practice of Occupational Therapy for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Q1) The Framework refers to activities that are oriented toward interacting with the environment and are generally optional (may be delegated to another)as which of the following?
A) Activities of daily living (ADLs)
B) Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs)
C) Performance skills
D) Areas of occupation
E) Context
Answer: B
Q2) To make her bed,the 10-year-old client will need to unfold the pillowcase and push the pillow all the way into the case so that the corners of the pillow and case match.This would be considered under which section of activity demands?
A) Social demands
B) Sequence and timing
C) Required actions
D) Required body function
E) Required body structures
Answer: C
3
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Chapter 2: The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework
and the Practice of Occupational Therapy for People With
Physical Disabilities
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Q1) The OT practitioner observed a client playing a game of cards.During the game the client looped one elbow around the upright of her wheelchair,leaned toward the table,and grasped a card before going across the room to answer a phone call.The actions observed are primarily an example of which of the following?
A) Process skills
B) Performance patterns
C) Communication/interaction skills
D) Motor skills
Answer: D
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a client with carpal tunnel syndrome.Which of the following is not a preparatory method that the OT can use with the client?
A) Cock-up splinting to hold the wrist in neutral to 10 degrees of extension
B) Tendon-gliding exercises for the long finger flexors
C) Ergonomic modification of the client's workspace
D) Ultrasound phonophoresis and iontophoresis to reduce inflammation
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: History and Practice Trends in Physical
Dysfunction Intervention
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Q1) Under the American Occupational Therapy Association's (AOTA's)Occupational Therapy Practice Framework,the promotion of client-centered treatment within the context of the social,cultural,and political environment reflects which treatment model or approach?
A) Arts and Crafts movement
B) Moral treatment
C) Social model
D) Medical model
E) Rehabilitation model
Answer: C
Q2) In 1972 Edward Roberts,at the University of California in Berkeley,initiated which of the following?
A) The disability rights movement
B) The interactional or sociopolitical model
C) The independent living movement
D) The interactional or sociopolitical movement
E) The social model
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Application of the Occupational Therapy
Practice Framework to Physical Dysfunction
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Q1) Models of practice and frames of reference guide occupational therapy intervention.Which statement best fits the model of human occupation?
A) It is a client-centered approach, but equal emphasis is placed on the influence of the environment on occupational performance.
B) It is focused on the interaction of the person, task, and context for occupational performance.
C) It is focused on returning the client to fullest functioning as possible, primarily using compensatory methods.
D) Occupation is understood to be the interaction between personal volition, habituation, and performance capacity.
Q2) Occupational therapy services provided within the client's home require careful consideration of the environment.What issues would typically be addressed within this setting?
A) Changing the furniture arrangement to eliminate potential falls
B) Safety in meal preparation
C) Simplification of household cleaning tasks
D) All of the above
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Chapter 5: Evidence-Based Practice for Occupational Therapy
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Q1) The Canadian Occupational Performance Measure (COPM)__________.
A) Is not client based
B) Is a standardized cognitive assessment
C) Is used for process objective assessment
D) Can be used only as a pretest
E) Is a criterion-referenced outcome measure
Q2) In systematic OT practice the ___________ and ___________ emerge from the need statement.
A) Goals, objectives
B) Problems, interventions
C) Thinking, action processes
D) Inductive, deductive reasoning
E) Causes, consequences
Q3) "Jane will arrive at work on time." This is an example of which type of objective?
A) Process
B) Intuitive
C) Outcome
D) Specific
E) Reflexive
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Chapter 6: Health Promotion and Wellness for People With Physical Disabilities
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Q1) The transtheoretical model of health promotion consists of multiple stages.Which of the following statements does not accurately describe phases from this model?
A) The precontemplation stage involves a definite plan to change behavior but no plan or time frame.
B) The contemplation stage involves some ambivalence regarding the cost and benefits of modifying behavior.
C) The preparation stage involves an indication that the person is ready to change behaviors in the near future.
D) The duration of the action stage is a minimum of 6 months.
Q2) "The promotion of social and economic change to increase individual,community,and political awareness,resources,and equitable occupational opportunities for diverse occupational opportunities which enable people to meet their potential and experience well-being." The preceding statement describes which approach to health?
A) Moral treatment movement
B) Occupational justice
C) Rehabilitation paradigm
D) Operant conditioning
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Chapter 7: Documentation of Occupational Therapy Services
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Q1) The establishment of goals should be ______________.
A) Determined by the therapist only
B) Determined by the doctor
C) Determined by the client and therapist collaboratively
D) Determined by the client's caregiver or guardian
Q2) Individually identifiable health information _____________.
A) Refers to only recent medical information about the client
B) Is also known as protected health information (PHI)
C) Can be disposed of with the regular trash
D) Can be shared casually among the client's family members
Q3) An occupational profile does not include information about the client's
A) Patterns of daily living
B) Occupational history and experiences
C) Values and interests
D) Needs
E) Past medical history
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Chapter 8: Documentation of Occupational Therapy Services
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a long-term goal (also called discharge goal)?
A) The client will be able to dress self with a simple pullover shirt with no fasteners.
B) The client will be able to button and unbutton an article of clothing.
C) The client will be able to tie a pair of shoes.
D) The client will be able to dress independently.
E) The client will be able to put on and remove slacks.
Q2) Pick the best answer to explain what is wrong with using the following statement as the objective part of a note: "The client has decreased grip strength of the right hand,which limits his ability to open a jar."
A) It should be in the subjective portion of the note.
B) It does not state what interventions are planned.
C) It is not an objective measurement.
D) It is an interpretation of an objective measurement, rather than an objective measurement.
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Chapter 9: Infection Control and Safety Issues in the Clinic
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Q1) To reduce the risk of cross-contamination,the occupational therapist should wash his or her hands before and after treating each client for at least:
A) 5 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 20 seconds
Q2) What is the correct infection control procedure to following when providing intervention with a client that includes toileting and bladder management?
A) Wash hands before and after intervention. No protective clothing is required.
B) Wear protective gloves, and dispose of gloves in the appropriate waste container. Hand washing is not indicated if gloves have been worn.
C) Wear protective gloves, dispose of gloves in the appropriate waste container, and wash hands before and after intervention.
D) Wash hands only after intervention. No protective clothing is required.
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Chapter 10: Infection Control and Safety Issues in the Clinic
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working with a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has been admitted to the hospital with pneumonia.The client begins to experience some shortness of breath while seated at a table completing a meal preparation activity.Which of the following is the correct dyspnea control position to use for the client?
A) Client bends deeply at the waist, resting the chest on the thighs.
B) Client sits upright with arms relaxed at the sides of the body.
C) Client bends forward slightly at the waist, leaning the forearms on the table.
D) Client leans back against the chair backrest with arms resting in the lap.
Q2) In addition to teaching the client to use dyspnea control postures,the occupational therapist also teaches the client to use pursed-lip breathing to reduce shortness of breath while performing activities of daily living.Which of the following best describes pursed-lip breathing?
A) Inhaling slowly through pursed lips, then exhaling through the nose
B) Inhaling through pursed lips, then exhaling slowly through the nose
C) Inhaling slowly through the nose, then exhaling through pursed lips
D) Inhaling through the nose, then exhaling slowly through pursed lips
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Chapter 11: Activities of Daily Living
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Q1) The occupational therapist is working with a client who has pain and weakness in her hands as a result of moderate to severe arthritis.To increase functional independence,the client may use which of the following?
A) Plate guards or scoop dishes
B) A commercially available sock aid
C) An extended handle reacher
D) Lever-type doorknob extensions
Q2) The most commonly used methods to teach clients who have perceptual problems,poor memory,and difficulty following directions include all but which of the following?
A) Brief demonstration and oral instruction
B) Concrete step-by-step approach and instruction
C) Backward chaining
D) Activity performance along with the therapist
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an instrumental ADL (IADL)?
A) Care of others
B) Functional mobility
C) Toilet hygiene
D) Bowel and bladder management
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Chapter 12: Activities of Daily Living
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an instrumental ADL (IADL)?
A) Care of others
B) Functional mobility
C) Toilet hygiene
D) Bowel and bladder management
Q2) The use of a wrist-driven flexor hinge splint may benefit a client with muscle function from which spinal cord level(s)?
A) C6
B) C5
C) C4
D) A and B
Q3) Stabilizing an extremity to reduce incoordination to enable a client to perform activities of daily living (ADLs)is a common practice for clients with which of the following conditions?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Central nervous system (CNS) disorders
C) Temporary orthopedic disorders such as fractures
D) Quadriplegia
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Chapter 13: Mobility
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Q1) Why might a rigid frame chair be preferable for individuals with paraplegia who are manually propelling the wheelchair?
A) They are more lightweight than folding chairs.
B) They are more energy efficient during propulsion.
C) They are more easily folded and stored.
D) They are more sturdy and do not need to be replaced as often.
Q2) After a clinical assessment of the client,a predriving assessment is completed.Essential predriving skills that are evaluated include which of the following?
A) Cognitive and perceptual skills assessment
B) On-the-road evaluation of the client's skills using adapted equipment
C) The ability to handle keys, manage doors, mobility devices, and adjust seat belt
D) Muscle strength, range of motion, and grip measurements
Q3) Which of the following devices are considered primary controls on a vehicle?
A) Turn signal
B) Windshield wiper controls
C) Braking and steering controls
D) Mirrors and environmental controls
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Chapter 14: Mobility
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Q1) You are an occupational therapist,and your client is a 69-year-old man with left hemiplegia from a cerebrovascular accident.Your client has normal movement on his right side.He has a little movement in his left leg but none in his left arm.He has fair sitting balance but needs significant assistance to maintain a standing position.Which of the following is the most appropriate type of transfer to use to maintain safety and maximize your client's independence in functional mobility?
A) Bent pivot transfer
B) Sliding board transfer
C) Stand pivot transfer
D) Two-person dependent transfer
Q2) You are an occupational therapist with advanced training in driving evaluation.You are working with a client with paraplegia.After completion of a thorough predriving assessment,you determine that your client can safely drive with appropriate vehicle modifications.Which of the following are appropriate modifications for the individual with paraplegia?
A) Left foot accelerator, spinner knob
B) Hand controls for accelerator and brake, hand-operated parking brake
C) Pedal extensions
D) High-technology electronic controls and power equipment
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Work Evaluation and Work Programs
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Q1) Which organization would an occupational therapist contact for more information about community work and rehabilitation programs?
A) National Governors Association Center for Best Practices
B) Department of Labor
C) State vocational rehabilitation program
D) All of the above
Q2) Which one of these risk factors is not usually included on an ergonomics checklist used by the ergonomics team?
A) Repetitions of task
B) Lunch break and break times
C) Use of vibration
D) Employee pay scale and benefits
Q3) "Primary" prevention of workplace injuries ______________.
A) Emphasizes early identification and intervention of workers and risk factors
B) Helps protect healthy workers against targeted conditions
C) Occurs after a worker suffers nonreversible injury, illness or disease
D) Is not addressed by occupational therapists
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Chapter 16: Work Evaluation and Work Programs
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Q1) A factory worker on an assembly line has been referred to occupational therapy (OT)for treatment of his right biceps tendonitis,which is prohibiting him from performing at a productive level because of his high pain levels.What risk factor must be closely assessed in a job analysis?
A) Cold temperatures
B) Vibration
C) Repetitions of tasks within a time period
D) Contact stress
Q2) The state Department of Rehabilitation refers many clients to OT for help with the transition from school to work.What would be an appropriate goal for a student with paraplegia who wants to be a teacher?
A) Increase upper extremity strength to within normal limits
B) Independence with using a computer and a projector to put lessons on the board.
C) Independent with all dressing skills
D) Any goal made collaboratively with the student, rehabilitation counselor, and the OT practitioner
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Chapter 17: Americans With Disabilities Act and Related
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working in a public school with a child who uses a wheelchair for all mobility.He tells the OT practitioner that he cannot get into a toilet stall in the bathroom because the stall is too small.What should the OT practitioner do?
A) Perform an accessibility audit of the bathroom and make recommendations to the school principal to provide wheelchair access under the ADA.
B) Tell the student to file a complaint with the Department of Justice in Washington,
C) Ask the principal if the student can use the teachers' bathroom, which is larger.
D) There is nothing that the OT practitioner can do in this situation.
E)C.
Q2) A neighborhood restaurant needs to comply with ADA requirements to accommodate customers with disabilities.What is the first priority under Title III regulations?
A) Provide parking for the disabled and access into the restaurant.
B) Make the restrooms accessible for all people.
C) Make restaurant tables accessible to wheelchair users.
D) Make the menus more accessible for persons with visual limitations.
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Chapter 18: Leisure Occupations
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Q1) An occupational therapist is working with a 67-year-old Latina client with rheumatoid arthritis.The client has minimal English-speaking abilities.Which assessment(s)do you think would be appropriate?
A) Occupational Profile
B) Canadian Occupational Performance Measure
C) Modified Interest Checklist
D) Role Checklist
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following age and culture-based activities would an OT practitioner assign to a 55-year-old Asian American woman who is recovering from a stroke?
A) Needlepoint
B) Adapted bowling
C) Swimming
D) Tile games (such as Mah Jong)
E) None of the above
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Chapter 19: Americans With Disabilities Act and Related
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Q1) The Air Carrier Access Act of 1986 (ACAA)prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities by air carriers.However,airlines may exclude someone from flying if
A) The person's disability results in an appearance that would offend someone
B) There is a risk of affecting the safety of the flight
C) There are other people with disabilities on the flight already and the staff would be inconvenienced
D) They did not give prior notice of special needs to preboard
Q2) What year did Congress pass the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
A) 1973
B) 1990
C) 2002
D) 1969
Q3) For the purposes of determining application of the ADA,"essential job functions" are best determined _________________.
A) On a case-by-case basis, looking at the facts of each situation
B) By the supervisor of the department
C) By the employees doing the job
D) By the written job description
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Chapter 20: Leisure Occupations
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Q1) As an Area of Occupation,leisure is defined in the Occupational Therapy Practice Framework (2002)as ________________.
A) A nonobligatory activity that is internally motivated and engaged in during an individual's free time
B) An obligatory daily activity that provides the individual with social contacts
C) An activity determined by the occupational therapist to be beneficial to the client
D) Fun activities recommended by the client's family or caregiver
Q2) Which of the following is not a benefit of leisure occupations for adults with physical disabilities?
A) Increased sense of self-worth
B) Increased ability to chew and swallow without aspirating
C) Improved or maintained perceptual abilities
D) Experience of intellectual stimulation
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22
Chapter 21: Occupation-Based Functional Motion Assessment
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Q1) Which of the following is not an expected outcome of an occupation-based functional motion assessment?
A) The OT practitioner conducting interviews with the client to determine the problems encountered during performance of functional activities
B) The OT practitioner having the client perform other tasks associated with his or her habits while interacting in varied environmental contexts
C) The OT practitioner making the decision to conduct formal assessments of performance skills or body function
D) Meaningful intervention goals relative to improving occupational performance will be selected
Q2) An advantage of the occupation-based functional motion assessment is that the OT practitioner as the opportunity to do which of the following?
A) Measure muscle strength.
B) Observe complex motor patterns required to fully engage in occupations.
C) Gain information about movement of a specific limb.
D) Measure flexibility of joint components.
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Chapter 22: Joint Range of Motion
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Q1) What is the average normal joint ROM (using the 180-degree method)for shoulder flexion?
A) 0-90 degrees
B) 0-150 degrees
C) 0-170 degrees
D) 0-135 degrees
E) 0-120 degrees
Q2) What is the average normal joint ROM (using the 180-degree method)for thumb metacarpophalangeal (MP)flexion?
A) 0-70 degrees
B) 0-90 degrees
C) 20-90 degrees
D) 20-50 degrees
E) 0-50 degrees
Q3) When the joint is moved solely by an outside force,it is called ______________.
A) Functional range of motion (ROM)
B) Active ROM
C) External ROM
D) Passive ROM
E) Active-assistive ROM
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Chapter 23: Joint Range of Motion
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Q1) An OT practitioner is measuring the starting position of passive proximal interphalangeal (PIP)joint flexion in a client who has increased flexor tone in his wrist and fingers after a traumatic brain injury.The therapist should place the client's wrist in which position?
A) Neutral or flexion
B) Slight extension
C) Full extension
D) Any position, because wrist position has no effect on finger motion
Q2) An OT practitioner is evaluating a 58-year-old client who sustained a stroke that resulted in hemiplegia of his right arm 3 months ago.While beginning to assess ROM,the therapist observes that the client's right wrist and hand are swollen and tender.The client reports having fallen in his bedroom the previous day.With regard to the wrist and hand,the therapist should do which of the following?
A) Measure active ROM and passive ROM.
B) Measure passive ROM only.
C) Measure active ROM only.
D) Defer measurements until a later time.
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Chapter 24: Evaluation of Muscle Strength
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Q1) Which of the following is not a criterion used to measure strength in MMT?
A) Amount of motion through which the joint moves when the muscle contracts
B) Evidence of muscle contraction
C) Endurance of muscle
D) Amount of resistance against which the muscle can contract
E) A and C
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a screening test for muscle strength?
A) Reviewing the medical record for previous strength assessments
B) Observing the client perform a functional activity
C) Observing the client move around the clinic
D) Performing a manual muscle test (MMT)
E) Performing a gross check of muscle group
Q3) MMT accuracy can be negatively influenced by which of the following?
A) Placing the client on a comfortable soft surface
B) Repeating the test several times on the body part
C) Positioning the body part correctly
D) Palpating muscles before applying resistance
E) A and B
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Chapter 25: Evaluation of Muscle Strength
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Q1) An OT is performing manual muscle testing on a client's shoulders.Initial screening found all muscles were below a grade of 3-.Which tests can be performed with the client seated?
A) Flexion, abduction, internal rotation, external rotation
B) Internal rotation, external rotation, horizontal adduction, horizontal abduction
C) Horizontal adduction, horizontal abduction, extension, abduction
D) External rotation, internal rotation, flexion, horizontal abduction
Q2) An OT practitioner is screening a client's wrist extension strength.The client is able to actively extend the wrist partially against gravity.Because of a joint limitation,the client's forearm cannot be placed in neutral rotation.What is the appropriate muscle grade?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
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Chapter 26: Evaluation of Sensation and Intervention for Sensory Dysfunction
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Q1) Which of these is not an example of protective sensory reeducation?
A) Using a screwdriver for 30 minutes without any gloves
B) Softening the amount of force used when gripping objects
C) Moisturizing the skin regularly to keep it supple
D) Checking for blisters or cuts
Q2) Why is it important to test temperature sensation before applying heat or cold modalities in the clinic?
A) To avoid burning the client
B) To know whether to adjust the thermostat in the room
C) To know whether to put a blanket on the client
D) To find out whether the client prefers heat over cold or vice versa
Q3) Why is it important to support the client's hand fully when performing a sensory evaluation?
A) So the client remains relaxed
B) To prevent the hand from moving, which could provide sensory information that interferes with the testing
C) To be sure that the client pays attention
D) To be consistent in technique among all clients
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Chapter 27: Evaluation of Sensation and Intervention for Sensory Dysfunction
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Q1) Localization of moving touch tends to return before localization of ___________.
A) Light pressure
B) Constant touch
C) Pinprick
D) Deep pressure
Q2) Nociceptors _________________.
A) Are a subset of receptors that sense pain when stimulated
B) Interpret temperature changes
C) Are a subset of receptors that relieve pain when stimulated
D) Are involved in the sense of pleasure
Q3) Normal static two-point discrimination is ____________.
A) 11-15 mm
B) 60-10 mm
C) < 6 mm
D) < 8 mm
Q4) When tapping elicits paresthesia,______________.
A) It is called allodynia
B) It is referred to as a Tinel's sign
C) It feels like a cooling sensation
D) It should be ignored
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Chapter 28: Eating and Swallowing
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Q1) Videofluoroscopy is an example of what type of swallowing assessment?
A) Oral motor assessment
B) Bedside sensory assessment
C) Instrumental assessment
D) Clinical assessment
Q2) Mattias is a 65-year-old man who experienced a right cerebrovascular accident resulting in left hemiplegia and dysphagia.During the occupational therapy assessment,Mattias had difficulties with chewing and swallowing of textured foods.He had frequent episodes of coughing and pocketing of food in the left cheek.He complains that he chokes on certain foods,including water.During the assessment Mattias's vocal quality was consistently clear,and no raspiness or gurgly quality was noted before,during,or after eating.These clinical signs indicate problems with which stages of the swallow?
A) Oral preparatory and esophageal stages
B) Oral preparatory and oral stages
C) Pharyngeal and esophageal stages
D) Esophageal and oral stages
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Evaluation and Treatment of Visual Deficits
Following Brain Injury
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Q1) All but which of the following could directly or indirectly result from a head injury?
A) Cataract
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Corneal scarring
D) Vitreous hemorrhage
Q2) Why do persons with hemianopsia often experience difficulty reading?
A) Because they lose their place on the line
B) Because their acuity is diminished by the visual field deficit
C) Because the perceptual span they use in reading has been reduced on one side by the hemianopsia
D) Because they experience language deficits secondary to the brain injury
Q3) Why might changes in visual processing cause a corollary change in cognitive performance?
A) Because the visual system is the primary system we use to acquire information about our environment and guides our decision making process
B) Because the visual system provides us with good acuity
C) Because the visual system allows us to identify objects in our environment
D) Because the visual system gives us the "big picture"
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Chapter 30: Evaluation and Pain Management
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Q1) What assessments are appropriate for an occupational therapist to use with clients,such as Catalina,who report pain?
A) Visual analog scale
B) Occupational profile
C) Numeric pain intensity scale
D) Activity diaries
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following best defines pain?
A) An objective experience that is either acute or chronic
B) An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience, usually associated with actual or potential tissue damage
C) A physical disability with an emotional component
D) A negative sensation that always disrupts normal occupations
E) All of the above
Q3) What are the four distinct domains of the biopsychosocial model of pain?
A) Nonmalignancy, trauma, disease, and fear
B) Muscular weakness, noxious stimuli, nervous system syndrome, and chronic illness
C) Nociception, pain, suffering, and pain behavior
D) Arthritis, fibromyalgia, cancer, and headaches
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Evaluation and Pain Management
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Q1) For which of the following pain interventions does the occupational therapist need post-professional education to ensure competency?
A) Adaptive equipment
B) Splinting
C) Relaxation training
D) Physical agent modalities (PAMs)
E) All of the above
Q2) An occupational therapist is treating a 56-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with fibromyalgia.She has expressed depression and anxiety over her diminished ability to lead a fulfilled life.She reports that her pain typically rates approximately 7 on the numerical pain intensity scale.What interventions should the OT practitioner employ?
A) Provide her with relaxation training to decrease muscle tension
B) Help her to resume leisure activities that she once enjoyed that would cause low stress on her body, such as swimming
C) Refer her for psychological counseling
D) Refer her to a spiritual advisor
E) All of the above
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33
Chapter 32: Orthotics
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working with a client who must wear a thumb spica splint for 3 more weeks after cast removal for a scaphoid fracture.The physician has allowed the patient to use the hand with the splint in place for light activities.When making the splint,the therapist must be sure to position the thumb in what position to allow light activities?
A) Thumb extension
B) Thumb flexion
C) Palmar prehension
D) Hook grasp
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a 21-year-old client who has suffered a traumatic brain injury resulting from a car accident and is comatose in the intensive care unit.The OT practitioner has been asked to make hand splints in a resting position.To prevent shortening of the metacarpophalangeal (MP)joint collateral ligaments,the splint should place the MP joints in which of the following?
A) 0 degree of MP extension
B) 60-70 degrees of MP flexion
C) 10-35 degrees of MP flexion
D) 10-35 degrees of MP extension
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Orthotics
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Q1) In a forearm-based splint the trim lines should extend two thirds the length of the forearm,and the width of the forearm trough should reach _______________.
A) Two thirds around the width of the forearm
B) To the midline of the forearm
C) One third around the width of the forearm
D) Higher on the lateral, versus medial, side of the splint
E) None of the above
Q2) Which is not true about a MAS?
A) Assists motion through linkage of ball-bearing joints
B) Compensates for proximal weakness in upper extremities
C) Allows for occupational performance
D) Can be used for therapeutic exercise
E) Adjustments require very little training to make
Q3) Semiflexible splints can be made from which of the following materials?
A) Neoprene
B) Thin thermoplastics
C) Cotton duck and elastics
D) Both A and C
E) All of the above
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Traditional Sensorimotor Approaches to Intervention
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Q1) You are working with a client who has had a recent RCVA with left hemiparesis.The client has difficulty maintaining trunk control while standing and has difficulty holding objects.Using Rood's approach to motor control,you decide to work with the client in a standing table while the client completes a jigsaw puzzle.This activity would involve which of Rood's components of motor control?
A) Reciprocal inhibition
B) Co-contraction
C) Heavy work
D) Skill
Q2) Your client,who sustained a RCVA with resultant left hemiplegia,wants to regain the motor control to use the left hand to hold a glass while the uninvolved right hand pours from a pitcher.Which PNF pattern would be the closest approximation to this desired movement for the left upper extremity?
A) D1 flexion
B) D1 extension
C) D2 flexion
D) D2 extension
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Chapter 35: Degenerative Diseases of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) What are the three classic clinical symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
A) Resting tremor, spasticity, rigidity
B) Resting tremor, impaired voluntary movement, rigidity
C) Spasticity, impaired postural reflexes, decorticate posture
D) Spasticity, choreiform movements, impaired postural reflexes
Q2) Your next client,a 71-year-old woman,has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and has moderate memory loss for recent personal experiences and is having problems managing her finances.Using the four-stage classification method,identify the stage in which your client is at this time.
A) 1: Very mild to mild cognitive decline
B) 2: Mild to moderate decline
C) 3: Moderate to moderately severe decline
D) 4: Severe cognitive decline
Q3) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has three clinical subtypes.Which type is associated with a quicker progression and problems with dysphagia and dysarthria?
A) Progressive bulbar palsy
B) Progressive spinal muscular atrophy
C) Primary lateral sclerosis
D) Primary medial sclerosis
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Cerebrovascular Accident Stroke
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Q1) To make her bed,the 10-year-old client will need to unfold the pillowcase and push the pillow all the way into the case so that the corners of the pillow and case match.This would be considered under which section of activity demands?
A) Social demands
B) Sequence and timing
C) Required actions
D) Required body function
E) Required body structures
Q2) All the members of the 10-year-old client's family are expected to make their own beds after age 5.This would be considered under which section of activity demands?
A) Objects and their properties
B) Space demands
C) Sequence and timing
D) Social demands
E) Required actions
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38
Chapter 37: Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) The occupational therapist can help achieve the desired flexor tightness necessary for tenodesis grasp by doing which of the following?
A) Ranging finger flexion with the wrist extended and finger extension with the wrist flexed
B) Ranging finger flexion with wrist flexed and finger extension with wrist extended
C) Ranging finger flexion with wrist at neutral and extension with wrist extended
Q2) The patient has a C5 quadriplegia.We can anticipate that he or she has innervation of which of the following?
A) Upper trapezius, deltoids, biceps, levator scapulae, wrist flexors
B) Latissimus, deltoids, biceps, supinators, pronators
C) Upper trapezius, diaphragm, levator scapulae, biceps, and supinators.
D) A and B
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Chapter 38: Spinal Cord Injury
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Q1) You are testing Rick's sensation/perception. Which of the following tests should be least relevant to his disability?
A) Touch and superficial pain
B) Position sense and stereognosis
C) Body scheme and visual spatial perception
D) Thermal and pressure sensitivity
Q2) While working with Rick,you notice that he begins to perspire profusely,complains of a severe headache,and looks flushed.He is showing signs of _____,and you should
A) Postural hypotension; tip the wheelchair back for a few minutes
B) Autonomic dysreflexia; elevate his legs
C) Malingering; continue intervention and ignore complaints
D) Autonomic dysreflexia; seek medical assistance
Q3) A primary intervention aim for Rick would be to increase the strength of which of the following?
A) Triceps, finger extensors, and finger flexors
B) Biceps, pectoralis major, and wrist extensors
C) All of the above plus hand intrinsics
D) All of the above plus wrist flexors
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Disorders of the Motor Unit
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Q1) The motor unit is the elementary functional unit of the peripheral nervous system.What are its four elements?
A) The cell body of the motor neuron in the anterior horn of the spinal cord; the axon of the motor neuron, which travels via spinal nerves and peripheral nerves to muscle; the neuromuscular junction; and the muscle fibers innervated by the neuron
B) The spinal nerve, the peripheral nerve, the neuromuscular junction, and the muscle fibers
C) The cell body of the motor neuron in the posterior spinal cord, the dorsal root, the peripheral nerve, and the muscle fibers
D) The synaptic junction, the anterior spinal cord, the neuromuscular junction, and the muscle fibers
Q2) Which of the following is a disorder of the neuromuscular junction?
A) Postpolio syndrome
B) Muscular dystrophy
C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 40: Disorders of the Motor Unit
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Q1) During a Backpack Awareness Day event,occupational therapy (OT)students educated middle school-aged children about carrying the correct amount of weight and wearing their backpacks correctly to prevent injury of which peripheral nerve?
A) Brachial plexus
B) Axillary nerve
C) Median
D) Long thoracic
Q2) An occupational therapist is treating an 18-year-old man who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy.He has expressed fear and anxiety over his declining bodily functions.How might the therapist respond?
A) Help him and his family find meaningful activities in which to participate as individuals or as a family.
B) Encourage the use of humor and to play and laugh together.
C) Refer him for psychological counseling.
D) Refer him to a spiritual advisor.
E) All of the above.
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Chapter 41: Arthritis
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Q1) All but which of the following extraarticular features can occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Fatigue
B) Vasculitis
C) Cardiac
D) Renal
E) Olfactory
Q2) Rheumatoid arthritis can result in significant psychological stressors because of pain,changed body image,and uncertainty about the course of the disease.Major depression can result in approximately what percentage of the cases?
A) 40%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) None of the above
Q3) A common hand deformity in rheumatoid arthritis includes which of the following?
A) Metacarpophalangeal (MP) ulnar deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
B) MP radial deviation and wrist ulnar deviation
C) MP ulnar deviation and wrist radial deviation
D) MP radial deviation and wrist radial deviation
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Arthritis
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Q1) An occupational therapy (OT)practitioner is evaluating a 60-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis.The OT practitioner observes that the patient is unable to extend her fourth and fifth digits.The patient has full passive range of motion (ROM)and no pain.She has good active flexion.The patient reports that she has difficulty opening her hand around an object such as a can or jar.The therapist should suspect that the patient has which of the following conditions?
A) Two trigger fingers
B) Weakness of the digit extensors
C) Rupture of the digit extensors
D) Finger joint subluxations
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Chapter 43: Hand and Upper Extremity Injuries
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Q1) A client arrives for evaluation with loss of sensation of the volar surface of the thumb,index,and middle fingers.What nerve is involved?
A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Posterior interosseous nerve
D) Median nerve
Q2) A client arrives for evaluation with the inability to extend her wrist,thumb,or MP joints of her right dominant hand.What nerve is involved?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
Q3) What does digital clawing indicate?
A) Weakness or absence of the extensor muscles
B) Weakness or absence of the intrinsic muscles of the hand
C) Weakness or absence of the flexor muscles of the hand
D) Flexor tenosynovitis
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45
Chapter 44: Low Back Pain
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Q1) Which of the following best defines spinal stenosis?
A) The narrowing of the intervertebral foramen that decreases the space where the spinal nerve exits or enters the spine
B) A type of muscular weakness
C) A condition that never causes low back pain
D) A condition that is caused by the sciatic nerve
Q2) In working with Pilar,the occupational therapist will teach her the concepts of body mechanics,which include ___________________.
A) Avoiding twisting movements, holding objects close to the body, lifting with the legs
B) Teaching her tasks and positions that move her body out of balance to challenge and strengthen the low back muscles
C) Forceful dynamic stretching of the upper and lower back
D) Balancing on one leg while reaching overhead
E) All of the above
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Chapter 45: Hand and Upper Extremity Injuries
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Q1) Skier's thumb is _____________.
A) When the thumb locks in flexion
B) When the thumb interphalangeal joint is hyperextended
C) When the thumb web space is contracted
D) Instability of the thumb MP ulnar collateral ligament
Q2) Asking the client to oppose the thumb to the fingers and flex the fingers is a quick test for which nerve?
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Posterior interosseous
D) Median
Q3) Which of the options below is an accessory motion?
A) Joint distraction
B) Extension
C) Flexion
D) Abduction
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Chapter 46: Burns and Burn Rehabilitation
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Q1) A burn scar typically matures in _____________.
A) 3-6 weeks
B) 6-12 weeks
C) 3-4 months
D) 8-12 months
E) 12-18 months
Q2) Revascularization,reepithelialization,and contraction of a burn wound occur in which phase of wound healing?
A) Emergent
B) Inflammatory
C) Proliferation
D) Maturation
E) Remodeling
Q3) Hair follicles,sebaceous glands,and sweat glands are located in which layer of skin?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Stratum germinativum
D) Stratum spinosum
E) Stratum corneum
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Burns and Burn Rehabilitation
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Q1) An OT practitioner is treating a client who has been hospitalized with acute burns to the face,neck,chest,and bilateral upper extremities.The therapist wants to initiate immediate antideformity positioning.Which position would not be appropriate?
A) Using a pillow behind the client's head
B) Using armboards to place shoulders in 90 degrees of abduction
C) Using a towel roll beneath the thoracic spine
D) Using splints to place elbows in extension
Q2) An OT practitioner is evaluating a client whose primary complaint is the inability to raise her arm to reach high cabinets and shelves.The therapist notes a very tight mature scar band crossing the client's posterior axilla that is limiting full shoulder motion.What should the therapist do?
A) Initiate stretching exercises for shoulder flexion.
B) Explore assistive devices or compensatory strategies to reach items.
C) Fit the client with a clavicular strap.
D) A and
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Chapter 48: Amputations and Prosthetics
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Q1) An upper extremity amputation through the distal third of the forearm would be considered what level of amputation?
A) Wrist disarticulation
B) Short transradial
C) Long transradial
D) Elbow disarticulation
E) Short transhumeral
Q2) Which is not a function of a prosthetic sock?
A) Absorb perspiration
B) Protect against skin irritation
C) Compensate for residual limb volume changes
D) Provide comfort
E) Allow direct contact between socket and skin
Q3) Which is true about upper and lower extremity amputations?
A) The lower the level of amputation, the greater the functional loss.
B) The higher the level of amputation, the less complicated the prosthesis.
C) The higher the level of amputation, the less prosthetic training needed.
D) The lower the level of amputation, the more joints lost.
E) The higher the level of amputation, the less residual limb length.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Amputations and Prosthetics
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Q1) An OT practitioner is working with a client who had a unilateral below-knee amputation 4 days ago.With regard to wheelchair and positioning,what should be the therapist's priority?
A) To provide a residual limb support
B) To place the large wheelchair wheels farther back to distribute weight
C) To remove both leg rests
D) To issue an extra-heavy wheelchair for stability
Q2) An OT practitioner is working with a client who had a unilateral below-knee amputation 2 weeks ago and wants to be able to resume living alone as soon as possible.To meet this goal,the therapist should:
A) Alter the client's preexisting performance patterns.
B) Encourage the client to focus on his former sense of self.
C) Discourage the client's independent process skills.
D) Adapt the client's activity demands.
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Chapter 50: Oncology
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Q1) Hormone therapy is an example of this type of cancer therapy.
A) En bloc resection
B) Chemotherapy
C) Radiation therapy
D) Palliative therapy
Q2) In cancer staging,the letter N refers to which of the following?
A) Lymph node involvement
B) Development of primary tumor
C) Invasion of adjacent tissues
D) Presence of known metastasis
Q3) A malignant tumor of the lung is classified as a ______________.
A) Lymphoma
B) Sarcoma
C) Carcinoma
D) Leukemia
Q4) Palliative therapy is used in the treatment of cancer to _____________.
A) Cure the disease
B) Reduce tumor size
C) Prevent metastases
D) Relieve pain and improve quality of life
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Chapter 51: HIV Infection and Aids
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Q1) A 37-year-old man was diagnosed with AIDS five years ago and was prescribed a variety of medications.His physician has recently changed the medication regimen.This man has been referred for an occupational therapy (OT)assessment to establish baseline occupational performance and instruct in energy conservation techniques.You know that clients diagnosed with AIDS may have neurological compromises and other complications secondary to the medications.What potential problems may be seen with this client?
A) Peripheral neuropathy, osteoarthritis, and depression
B) Memory difficulties, anemia, and hepatotoxicity
C) Gastrointestinal problems, pancreatitis, and osteopenia
D) All of the above
Q2) OT services provided to persons infected with HIV for the purpose of promoting healthy lifestyles,preventing future opportunistic infections,and promoting balance or well-being are examples of which of the following?
A) Primary prevention
B) Secondary prevention
C) Tertiary prevention
D) Postoperative intervention
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