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This course explores the principles, assessment, selection, and implementation of assistive technology (AT) for children with disabilities. Students will gain an understanding of how various AT devices and strategies support the developmental, educational, and functional needs of pediatric clients in home, school, and community environments. Topics include mobility aids, augmentative and alternative communication (AAC), computer access, environmental controls, and adaptive equipment, as well as collaborative approaches for working with families, educators, and healthcare professionals to optimize participation and independence in daily activities. Ethical, legal, and policy considerations specific to pediatric AT will also be discussed.
Recommended Textbook
Pediatric Skills for Occupational Therapy Assistants 4th Edition by Jean W. Solomon
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29 Chapters
434 Verified Questions
434 Flashcards
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Q1) Edgar bills a client for individual therapy.However, Edgar worked with three clients simultaneously.Edgar is violating which principle of ethical behavior?
A) Justice
B) Nonmaleficence
C) Confidentiality
D) Autonomy
Answer: A
Q2) Akita prepares and presents a synopsis of the fieldwork educators' workshop during a staff meeting.What type of scholarship is this?
A) Teaching
B) Discovery
C) Integration
D) Application
Answer: A
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Q1) Which factor allows you to predict how a family will adapt to a crisis?
A) Cannot necessarily predict adaptation
B) Income level
C) Past experience with crises
D) Marital status
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement best describes a family-centered approach to intervention?
A) Families are told to put their children in the hands of specialists who will design and implement therapy.
B) Families receive special training and instruction about disabilities.
C) Practitioners develop intervention plans in collaboration with families.
D) Practitioners tell families how to treat and educate their children.
Answer: C
Q3) What is one of the first steps in establishing trust with a family?
A) Identify outcomes that family members desire
B) Prove that you are the expert and have the answers
C) Use complicated language to impress the family
D) Have a clear plan already established to show you are in charge
Answer: A
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Q1) "Client presents with developmental delays in areas of postural control, bilateral hand function, and attention to task which interfere with his ability to engage in self-care, social participation, and play." In which part of the note does this statement belong?
A) S
B) O
C) A
D) P
Answer: D
Q2) Which unit is a specialty unit for children who have cancer?
A) Medical unit
B) NICU
C) Oncology unit
D) Pediatric Intensive Care Unit (PICU)
Answer: C
Q3) OTAs play a vital role in the NICU.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which strategy is recommended for working with teachers?
A) Use the lunch hour to discuss children.
B) Provide the teacher with literature and a long list of things to do.
C) Provide solutions and resources to teachers concerning children with special needs.
D) Schedule regular hourly meetings to discuss a child's intervention plan.
Q2) How is a child determined to be eligible for Birth-to-Three services?
A) Diagnosed condition or delay
B) Day care referral
C) Doctor referral
D) Income level of the parent
Q3) Which act encourages OT practitioners to work with children in their classroom environment and provide support to the regular education teacher?
A) PL 94-142.
B) Americans with Disabilities Act.
C) Individuals with Disabilities Education Act-revised.
D) No Child Left Behind.
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Q1) Jeannie, the Certified Occupational Therapy Assistant (COTA), is responsible for planning and implementing an after-school exercise program for children in the second and third grades.In which of the following systems is Jeannie working?
A) Family
B) Community
C) Educational
D) Medical
Q2) Peter, the COTA, is collaborating with the local senior citizens program to determine what services can be implemented to promote health and wellness among the seniors who come to the center.Which of the following terms accurately describes the type of practice being provided by Peter?
A) Community-based practice
B) Medical-based practice
C) Community-built practice
D) Both A and C
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Q1) Which term is not a period of development?
A) Adolescence
B) Early childhood
C) Infancy
D) Puberty
Q2) What is the length of the typical prenatal period?
A) 4 weeks
B) 12 weeks
C) 30 weeks
D) 40 weeks
Q3) Children learn to finger-feed, use a pincer grasp, and creep simultaneously.This an example of:
A) cephalocaudal development.
B) horizontal development.
C) spiral adaptation.
D) vertical development.
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Q1) Children in middle childhood experience a growth in vocabulary and language, in part due to the focus on reading.This is evident in children's ability to use all of the following except
A) puns and figures of speech.
B) jokes based on words with double meanings.
C) secret languages with their friends.
D) abstract language such as debating.
Q2) Which statement describes the vision of newborns?
A) Newborns are able to distinguish between a picture of a face and a real face.
B) Newborns are not able to see at birth.
C) Newborns can see objects from about 8 inches away.
D) Newborns show a preference for patterns and can distinguish between colors.
Q3) At what age are infants able to transfer objects from one hand to the other?
A) 3 months
B) 5-6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months
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Q1) Which readiness skill(s) do children entering preschool programs need?
A) Toileting
B) Self-feeding
C) Cooperative play
D) Both A and C
E) All of the above
Q2) Which task represents an informal educational activity?
A) Playing school in the backyard.
B) Making one's bed.
C) Selling lemonade to friends.
D) Going to preschool.
Q3) What does the age at which children develop independent self-care skills depend on?
A) Family's cultural expectations
B) Opportunities for practice
C) The child's motivation to be independent
D) Both A and C
E) All of the above
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Q1) What is generally true of the photographs of adolescents in teen magazines, television, and media?
A) Adolescents are generally shown as overweight.
B) Media do not show a diversity of types.
C) Media present a realistic body type.
D) Media present an ethnic variety.
Q2) Gerry is a 14-year-old boy who regularly breaks rules and has pierced his nose, but he holds a steady job after school.Which statement reflects this behavior?
A) Antisocial behavior
B) Atypical behavior
C) Destructive behavior
D) Typical, contradictory behavior
Q3) For adolescents, which phase of psychosocial development is the most intense period of development, during which peers replace parents as the primary influence and conformity with peer groups is desirable?
A) Early adolescence
B) Middle adolescence
C) Late adolescence
D) Early adulthood
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Q1) For what may the Certified Occupational Therapy Assistant (COTA) be responsible?
A) Administering specific assessments to clients selected by the registered occupational therapist.
B) Developing the intervention plan.
C) Interpreting assessment findings.
D) Selecting assessment tools that are used during the evaluation.
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true about short-term objectives?
A) They are all the things the client needs to be able to do to meet long-term goals.
B) They are the statements that describe the terminal functional skills the clients should achieve after intervention.
C) They are interim steps that are used to reach long-term goals.
D) They describe skills that should be mastered in a relatively short time period.
Q3) To what does the term intervention refer?
A) Therapy sessions to facilitate goals.
B) Progress reports, billing records, and client profile.
C) The evaluation, treatment plan, intervention, and discharge plan.
D) The plan of care.
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Q1) What is the term used to describe the primary muscle that shortens, producing movement around a joint?
A) Antagonist
B) Skeletal
C) Co-contraction
D) Agonist
Q2) Which statement describes the autonomic nervous system?
A) It consists of the brain and spinal cord.
B) It consists of a network of peripheral nerves.
C) It consists of the "fight-or-flight" and "rest-and-digest" nerves.
D) It controls movement only.
Q3) What is the primary function of most epithelial tissue?
A) Sensation
B) Covering surfaces
C) Absorption
D) Connecting surfaces
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Q1) What region has the primary function of increasing the surface area for the neuron?
A) Axon
B) Cell body
C) Dendrite
D) Golgi
Q2) What is the pattern of cortical representation in the motor homunculus for fine motor skills as compared to the area for gross motor skills?
A) Equal amount of cortical representation
B) Greater amount of cortical representation
C) Smaller amount of cortical representation
D) This has not been calculated.
Q3) A child showed prolonged eye movement after being spun around 10 times.Which statement best describes this response?
A) Absent nystagmus illustrating impaired cranial nerve II
B) Dysfunctional vestibular system illustrating hypertonia
C) Oculomotor deficit illustrating hypoactive vestibular system
D) Prolonged nystagmus illustrating hyperactive vestibular system
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Q1) Why is it important for a COTA to understand the problems commonly associated with a specific diagnosis?
A) To know what to expect when seeing the child for the first time.
B) To prepare for the initial evaluation.
C) To be a more valuable member of the treatment team.
D) All of the above.
Q2) Which statement most closely reflects the OT intervention for a child who has a traumatic brain injury (TBI)?
A) Intervention is aimed at maintaining skills.
B) Intervention is short and focuses on motor impairments.
C) Intervention targets motor, cognitive, and emotional changes.
D) Intervention targets sensory processing skills.
Q3) Sean injured himself on the stove, resulting in a second-degree burn.Which statement describes the involvement?
A) Bone involved
B) Epidermis and portions of the dermis involved
C) Muscle involved
D) Tissue minimally damaged
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Q1) Susan, a 12-year-old girl, refuses to go to her new school.She is irritable and angry, and she complains of headaches every morning.Susan perspires and feels restless each morning.She is unable to sleep because she worries about the next day at school.What do these symptoms represent?
A) Normal reactions to new situations
B) Phobic anxiety disorder
C) Separation anxiety
D) Generalized anxiety disorder
Q2) What is the name of a life-threatening disorder characterized by a body weight 15% below average, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a perception of being or feeling fat even though looking emaciated?
A) Anorexia bulimia
B) Anorexia nervosa (AN)
C) Bulimia nervosa
D) Failure to thrive
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Q1) What is the problem with sedentary activities (e.g., playing computer games) in regard to obesity?
A) They require a low expenditure of energy.
B) They displace high-energy activities.
C) They place visual strain on the eyes.
D) Children eat while they play.
Q2) What can an occupational therapy (OT) practitioner do to engage the family in establishing health habits?
A) Make complex suggestions that require major life changes.
B) Engage the whole family in simple habit changes.
C) Keep things private and encourage the family not to seek support from others.
D) Make the family members feel guilty about their poor health habits.
Q3) According to Kielhofner, what is one way to target childhood obesity?
A) Through volition-engage children in activities they will sustain over time.
B) Change the environment so that children are not allowed sweets or fats.
C) Through habits-engage children in 2 hours of physical training each day.
D) Through performance-encourage children to work out more intensely each day.
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Q1) In which category of intellectual disability does a child's IQ test result of 60 place him or her?
A) Mild
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Profound
Q2) Paul is 10 years old and has noticeable developmental delays.He has been in special education classes and has completed the second grade.Although he can complete most of his activities of daily living (ADLs), he does need supervision.In which intellectual disability category does Paul fit?
A) Mild
B) Moderate
C) Severe
D) Profound
Q3) What term describes causes of intellectual disability present before a child is born?
A) Acquired
B) Perinatal
C) Postnatal
D) Prenatal
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Q1) What component is not essential for the acquisition of motor skills?
A) Inborn reflexive movement patterns.
B) Opportunities to practice and repeat movements.
C) Following an exact sequence of motor skills.
D) Feedback regarding the effectiveness of our actions.
Q2) What type of intervention is based on the theory of learned nonuse and requires children try to use the affected hand?
A) Complementary and alternative medicine
B) Constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT)
C) Kinesio taping
D) Orthoses and casting
Q3) Stan has a type of cerebral palsy in which balance and fine motor functions such as coordination are impaired.What type of cerebral palsy is this?
A) Ataxia
B) Choreoathetosis
C) Hypotonia
D) Spasticity
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Q1) The Certified Occupational Therapy Assistant (COTA) observes a 6-year-old child with cerebral palsy and high muscle tone using a W-sitting position on the floor at all times.What does this observation suggest about the child?
A) He is developing normally.
B) He is using a compensatory position to establish stability.
C) He is using a position considered normal for an older child.
D) He is using a compensatory position to establish mobility.
Q2) Which description is not a purpose of positioning?
A) Improves functioning
B) Eliminates skin breakdown
C) Limits the child's movement
D) Enhances socialization
Q3) What are the reactions called that bring the body back to midline position and the head into vertical position (e.g., when an infant is tilted to the side and brings his head back to the middle)?
A) Equilibrium
B) Protective extension
C) Righting
D) Balance

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Q1) What is required for a successful bowel and bladder management program?
A) Volition, intention, and intake neurologic system
B) Scheduling, planning, and follow through
C) Consistency, timing, and luck
D) Cognitive ability, visual-perceptual skills, and sensory awareness
Q2) What term is used to describe a parent calming his or her child or two siblings working to clean their room?
A) Family-centered care
B) Co-occupation
C) Multidisciplinary
D) Behavior modification
Q3) An adolescent with limited judgment and cognitive skills makes a sexual comment to the Certified Occupational Therapy Assistant (COTA).The proper responses do not include which of the following?
A) Asking the adolescent about sexual activity.
B) Asking the adolescent to use words that are more polite.
C) Reporting the incident to the registered OT.
D) Reporting the incident to the adolescent's counselor.
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Q1) When working on IADLs with children who have cognitive limitations, the OT practitioner will not do which of the following?
A) Divide tasks into smaller components.
B) Provide visuals to communicate each step.
C) Provide positive reinforcements.
D) Provide thorough written directions outlining all steps.
Q2) When working on IADLs with a child who has physical limitations, which approach is not recommended?
A) Adapt the environment to remove physical obstacles.
B) Recommend home modifications when possible.
C) Provide direct intervention in the state of the art kitchen at the clinic.
D) Organize the home environment so that tools for particular jobs are located close to the job.
Q3) Who provides the guidelines for safe transport of infants, toddlers, and young children who have special needs?
A) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
B) AOTA
C) Car seat manufacturers
D) Health and Human Services
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Q1) Which activity is most suitable to use in OT intervention to help 3-year-olds share?
A) Lecture on sharing.
B) Have only one toy available.
C) Take toys away from the children.
D) Play catch in a small group.
Q2) Which standardized assessment provides practitioners with an age-equivalent core of play skills?
A) Knox Preschool Play Scale
B) Test of Playfulness (ToP)
C) Takata's Play History
D) Transdisciplinary Play-Based Assessment
Q3) Which characteristic does not promote play and playfulness in children?
A) Positive reinforcement
B) Patience
C) Rigidity with rules
D) Sense of humor
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Q1) The occupational therapy (OT) practitioner provided Trey with a variety of drawing activities that were fun and promoted hand skill.These activities were slightly challenging for Trey, based on his current level of functioning.What frame of reference was the practitioner using?
A) Biomechanical
B) Developmental
C) Educational
D) Sensory
Q2) Raysor has difficulty writing.He hesitates when trying to continuously form letters.He does not understand where to begin writing on his paper.He sometimes begins at the bottom of the letter and sometimes at the top, despite frequent repetitions of the letter.What type of problem does Raysor show?
A) Poor midline crossing
B) Poor motor planning
C) Poor visual acuity
D) Tactile defensiveness
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Q1) You are trying to increase the social skills of a group of adolescents.Which adaptations to a sponge-painting activity would best meet this goal?
A) Allow them to work in groups of three.
B) Limit talking and encourage independent work.
C) Provide them with simple directions and a time limit.
D) Seat them in desks positioned in a row.
Q2) Which activity would be most suitable for a group of 3-year-old boys and girls?
A) Blowing bubbles
B) Playing with Barbie dolls
C) Scrapbooking
D) A 20-piece puzzle
Q3) According to the OTPF, what are you addressing by taking into consideration that Suzy is a 3-year-old child?
A) Activity demands
B) Habits
C) Client factors
D) Context
E) Both A and D
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Q1) What type of practice includes having a child placing coins in a slot, resting briefly, and repeating the same activity again?
A) Blocked
B) Distributed
C) Transfer of learning
D) Variable
Q2) The COTA working with 6-year-old Dylan plays a game of crumpling sheets of paper into balls and throwing them.What is the goal of this activity?
A) Basketball mastery
B) Finger individuation
C) Hand strengthening
D) Range of motion
Q3) What would be the first step when working with a 6-year-old child with poor coordination and timing for handwriting?
A) Games involving running and moving.
B) Using fingers to grasp object.
C) Scooping, using thumb and index finger.
D) Picking up object, using tip of index finger and thumb.
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Q1) Henry, a 9-year-old boy, complains of how his new school clothes feel, hates noises in the car, and is easily irritated at school by all the movement of his classmates.Henry becomes car sick easily.He is a very picky eater, stating that he does not like the smell and taste of many foods.Which type of deficit do these findings represent?
A) Bilateral integration dysfunction
B) Developmental dyspraxia
C) Postural-ocular dysfunction
D) Sensory modulation disorder
Q2) During a sensory integration session, Ryan, a 10-year-old boy, suddenly becomes quiet, forgets the object to the swinging game he is playing, and stops playing.What do these behaviors suggest?
A) Ryan is processing vestibular input accurately.
B) Ryan has attention deficit disorder.
C) Ryan is showing signs of sensory shutdown behaviors.
D) Ryan needs more sensory stimulation.
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Q1) A child's pattern and organization around different occupations is called A) Volition
B) Performance capacity
C) Habituation
D) Environmental factors
Q2) A classroom that is arranged to allow a child using a walker to move about freely is an example of what under the MOHO concept area of environment?
A) Objects
B) Spaces
C) Occupational tasks
D) Social group
Q3) According to MOHO, which subsystem should be objectively measured and is typically measured using other frames of reference?
A) Performance capacity
B) Volition
C) Habituation
D) Environment
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Q1) Which statement is true of direct selection?
A) Direct selection is faster than indirect selection.
B) Direct selection is cognitively more complex than indirect selection.
C) Direct selection may be accomplished without physical contact.
D) Direct selection may involve scanning or encoding.
Q2) From where would someone seek AT funding for an 8-year-old to perform successfully in school?
A) Medicare
B) Vocational rehabilitation program
C) Individuals with Disabilities Act (IDEA)
D) Birth to three program
Q3) Which of the following is the most important aspect that affects the functional use of a personal high-technology augmentative communication device?
A) Implementing
B) Planning
C) Pricing
D) Selecting
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Q1) What is not considered an outcome of Kinesio taping?
A) Control edema
B) Facilitate or inhibit movement
C) Immobilize joints
D) Provide support
Q2) Which type of orthosis is used to apply adjustable static force?
A) Static orthosis
B) Dynamic orthosis
C) Static progressive orthosis
D) Resting hand orthosis
Q3) Which statement is not a function of Kinesio tape?
A) Supports muscle
B) Improves ROM
C) Stabilizes fractures
D) Reduces pain and inflammation
Q4) What is the reason to fabricate an orthosis for a deformity?
A) To immobilize the injury to prevent further damage.
B) To allow the client to move the extremity without pain.
C) To cover any external signs of the injury.
D) To attempt to realign the deformity.
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Q1) What is the role of the OT practitioner during a hippotherapy session?
A) Help the child successfully ride the horse.
B) Improve the child's communication skills.
C) Improve the child's posture and balance.
D) Teach the child to ride properly.
Q2) Why would an OT practitioner choose to incorporate a dog in a session with a child who has behavioral and emotional difficulties?
A) The practitioner has not thought this through clearly; the child may hurt the animal.
B) The practitioner hopes the animal will scare the child into behaving positively.
C) The practitioner has nowhere to bring her dog on that day.
D) Animals can be calming and help children develop concern and self-confidence.
Q3) Which statement most reflects pet-assisted therapy?
A) Play with animals on a farm.
B) Feed the fish in the classroom.
C) Brush the trained facilitator's dog with the affected side.
D) Feed your own dog treats.
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