Assessment Techniques in Pulmonary Care Practice Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the assessment methods used in pulmonary care, equipping students with the knowledge and skills necessary for evaluating respiratory function and diagnosing pulmonary disorders. Key topics include patient history taking, physical examination of the respiratory system, interpretation of arterial blood gases, spirometry, and advanced pulmonary function testing. Students will also learn about imaging techniques such as chest X-rays and CT scans, as well as the use of pulse oximetry and capnography. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical findings with diagnostic results to formulate effective care plans for individuals with acute and chronic respiratory conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/248 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would NOT be found on a history form?
A) Age
B) Chief complaint
C) Present health
D) Family history
E) Health insurance provider
Answer: E
Q2) The respiratory therapist is conducting a patient interview. The main purpose of this interview is to:
A) review data with the patient.
B) gather subjective data from the patient.
C) gather objective data from the patient.
D) fill out the history form or checklist.
Answer: B
Q3) For there to be a successful interview, the respiratory therapist must:
A) provide leading questions to guide the patient.
B) be an active listener.
C) reassure the patient.
D) use medical terminology to show knowledge of the subject matter.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Benefits of pursed-lip breathing include that it:
1) stabilizes airways.
2) offsets air trapping on exhalation.
3) generates a better gas mixing breathing pattern.
4) slows the respiratory rate.
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: D
Q2) The respiratory therapist is examining a patient in the medical ward and notes that the trachea is deviated to the left. All of the following may be causing the tracheal deviation to the left EXCEPT:
A) a right-sided tension pneumothorax.
B) a right-sided pleural effusion.
C) a tumor mass on the right.
D) atelectasis of the right upper lobe.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has restrictive lung disease. In response to this, which of the following are typically found?
1) Decreased lung compliance
2) Increased ventilatory rate
3) Increased tidal volume
4) Decreased ventilatory rate
A) 3, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2
D) 1, 3, 4
Answer: C
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to the neurologic care unit to assess the muscle strength of a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following tests should the therapist recommend to assess respiratory muscle strength?
A) Maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP)
B) Maximum inspiratory flow rate (MIFR)
C) Maximum expiratory flow rate (MEFR)
D) Vital capacity (VC)
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anion gap of 15 would indicate:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q2) Which of the following would be a normal person's arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 25 to 35 mm Hg
B) 35 to 45 mm Hg
C) 45 to 60 mm Hg
D) 60 to 80 mm Hg
Q3) A respiratory therapist is questioning the accuracy of the ABG results obtained on a patient in the ICU. The results show a pH and PaO<sub>2</sub> that seem unreasonably high, while the PaCO<sub>2</sub> seems unreasonably low. Which of the following would most likely cause these erroneous results?
A) A venous sample was obtained.
B) There was excessive heparin in the blood gas syringe.
C) The sample was excessively delayed in analysis.
D) There was an air bubble in the sample.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B) decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C) polycythemia.
D) carbon monoxide poisoning.
Q2) A sample of blood has been taken from a patient's pulmonary artery. What mixed venous oxygen saturation value (SvO<sub>2</sub>) would indicate that the patient is normal?
A) 40 mm Hg
B) 95 mm Hg
C) 75%
D) 97%
Q3) The respiratory therapist is reviewing a patient's electronic medical record to try to verify if the patient has tissue hypoxia. Which of the following laboratory values is MOST likely to correlate with tissue hypoxia?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Bilirubinemia
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following is the atrial rate faster than the ventricular rate?
1) Atrial fibrillation
2) Sinus bradycardia
3) Atrial flutter
4) Sinus tachycardia
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Which of the following hemodynamic changes are commonly seen in a patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
1) Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
2) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
3) Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure (PA)
4) Decreased cardiac output (CO)
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a long smoking history and has recently coughed up blood. The physician suspects that there may be lung cancer, but no lesions can be seen on a standard chest radiograph. A CT scan offers all of the following advantages EXCEPT:
A) bronchial tumors can be seen.
B) lung tumors as small as 0.4 cm can be seen.
C) a tumor's metabolism can be identified.
D) a mediastinal mass can be seen.
Q2) A patient has had a ventilation-perfusion scan. What would be identified from the ventilation scan?
A) Location of a lung abscess
B) Alveolar consolidation
C) Location of a pulmonary embolism
D) Location of an airway obstruction
Q3) The chest radiograph shows blunting of the patient's costophrenic angles. What does this suggest?
A) The patient did not take a deep enough breath.
B) Lung cancer
C) Pleural fluid
D) Underpenetrated exposure on the film
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is reviewing the electronic medical record of a patient recently admitted to the medical floor. The therapist notes that a sputum sample was sent to the lab for an acid-fast smear and culture. How should the therapist interpret this information?
A) Suspect that the patient has Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
B) Suspect that the patient has Rickettsiae pneumonia.
C) Suspect that the patient has Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) pneumonia.
D) Suspect that the patient has Mycobacterium tuberculosis pneumonia.
Q2) The respiratory therapist is called to evaluate a patient for arterial line placement needed for accessibility and repeated ABG sampling. In evaluating the risk of bleeding, the therapist should establish that the patient has a platelet count of at least ____/mm³ before recommending placement of the arterial line.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,000
E) 100,000
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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Sample Questions
Q1) An obese patient had upper abdominal surgery 2 days earlier. He has a weak nonproductive cough and a pulse oximeter (SpO<sub>2 </sub> ) reading of 84% on room air. Which therapist-driven protocol(s) should be implemented?
1) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy
2) Lung expansion
3) Oxygen therapy
4) Aerosolized medication therapy
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment determines:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B) the baseline dyspnea index.
C) the number of hospital days covered by the insurance carrier.
D) how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
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11
Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT:
A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
Q2) What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism in alveolar hypoventilation?
A) Decreased minute ventilation
B) Increased ventilation/perfusion ratio
C) Decreased venous admixture
D) Decreased inspired oxygen pressure
Q3) What effect would a pulmonary embolism have on the VD/VT and the /Ó ratio?
A) The VD/VT would increase and the /Ó would decrease.
B) The VD/VT would decrease and the /Ó would increase.
C) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both increase.
D) The VD/VT and the /Ó ratios would both decrease.
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations?
A) A bank can check for a preexisting condition.
B) The patient controls access to his or her medical records.
C) Psychotherapy and medical records are treated equally.
D) An employer can check for a preexisting condition.
Q2) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
Q3) Which of the following are basic methods to record assessment data?
1) Computer documentation
2) Block chart
3) Source-oriented record
4) Problem-oriented medical record
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD),
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are pathologic alterations found with emphysema?
1) Air trapping and hyperinflation
2) Mucus plugs
3) Decreased surface area for gas exchange
4) Weakened respiratory bronchioles
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is true of the diffusing capacity test (DLCO) findings in a patient with COPD?
A) Normal in all cases
B) Decreased in emphysema
C) Decreased in chronic bronchitis
D) Increased in all cases
Q3) According to GOLD, at what age can the initial diagnosis of COPD be made?
A) 35 years
B) 40 years
C) 45 years
D) 50 years
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be expected when a chest assessment is performed on a patient during an asthmatic episode?
1) Inverse I:E ratio
2) Decreased vocal fremitus
3) Increased vesicular breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following factors are associated with intrinsic asthma?
1. Emotional stress
2) Cockroach allergen
3) GERD
4) Dust mites
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:
A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).
B) anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).
C) computed tomography (CT).
D) bronchogram.
Q2) Which form of bronchiectasis causes the greatest amount of damage to the tracheobronchial tree?
A) Triphasic
B) Varicose
C) Cystic
D) Fusiform
Q3) Congenital causes of bronchiectasis include:
A) influenza.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) COPD.
D) rheumatic disease.
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Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be recommended to reduce bronchial inflammation in a 12-year-old child with cystic fibrosis?
A) High-dose ibuprofen
B) High-dose acetaminophen
C) High-dose naproxen
D) High-dose corticosteroids
Q2) All of the following can be used in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis EXCEPT:
A) an elevated potassium level in the sweat.
B) an elevated chloride level in the sweat.
C) genetic testing of the patient and/or parents.
D) chronic lung infections from an early age.
Q3) Which of the following are commonly used in the management of cystic fibrosis?
1) Pancreatic enzymes and vitamins
2) Antibiotics
3) Postural drainage
4) Expectorants
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause pneumonia?
1) Bacteria
2) Viruses
3) Prions
4) Fungi
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has a pleural effusion related to her pneumonia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend to treat the pleural effusion?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Thoracentesis
D) Percussion and postural drainage
Q3) Ventilator-acquired pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that develops:
A) between 24 and 48 hours after endotracheal intubation.
B) more than 48 to 72 hours after endotracheal intubation.
C) less than 24 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
D) more than 48 to 72 hours after mechanical ventilation is started.
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Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a cerebrovascular accident, a patient lying in the supine position aspirated gastric contents. In what area(s) of the lungs would a lung abscess be most likely to develop?
1) Posterior segments of the upper lobes
2) Apical segments of the upper lobes
3) Superior segments of the lower lobes
4) Anterior segments of both lower lobes
A) 1
B) 1, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Which of the following can occur when tissue necrosis occurs in a lung abscess?
1) Fluid can rupture into a bronchus.
2) Broncholithiasis can occur.
3) Bronchospasm can close off the affected bronchi.
4) Fluid can rupture into the intrapleural space.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pulmonary function testing results on a patient with an advanced case of TB will display all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased RV.
B) decreased IRV.
C) decreased VC.
D) decreased TLC.
Q2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is particularly damaging to the lungs because of the:
A) healing of a tubercle.
B) formation of micropulmonary emboli.
C) increased mucus production.
D) irreversible bronchospasm that it causes.
Q3) The respiratory therapist is educating a patient just diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the following statements should the therapist tell the patient regarding tuberculosis?
A) Take the medication with a glass of water 1/2 hour before meals.
B) If you skip a dose of medication, double up at the next dose.
C) Don't take the medication if you have a fever or flulike symptoms.
D) Make sure to take the full prescribed course of therapy.
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anatomic alterations found in the lungs of patients with a fungal infection include:
1) fibrosis of lung parenchyma.
2) alveolar-capillary destruction.
3) hyperinflation.
4) mucosal edema.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) Which type of fungal lung infection frequently results in productive cough with purulent sputum?
A) Staphylococcal infection
B) Blastomycosis
C) Klebsiella infection
D) Histoplasmosis
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a decreased oncotic pressure. What can be done to increase it?
A) High-salt diet
B) Mannitol
C) Albumin withheld
D) Morphine sulfate
Q2) The respiratory therapist is asked to recommend a medication to reduce afterload for a patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema. The therapist could recommend all of the following EXCEPT:
A) captopril.
B) norepinephrine (Levophed).
C) enalapril (Vasotec).
D) nitroprusside (Nitropress).
Q3) All of the following may be causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT: A) dysrhythmias.
B) systemic hypertension.
C) congenital heart defects.
D) excessive fluid administration.
E) pulmonary embolism.
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22
Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is/are major mechanism(s) that contribute to the pulmonary hypertension commonly seen in a patient with a pulmonary embolism?
1) Decreased cross-section area of the pulmonary vascular system
2) Vasoconstriction induced by alveolar hypoxia
3) Reflexes from the aortic and carotid sinus baroreceptors
4) Vasoconstriction induced by humoral agents
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A pulmonary embolus produces which of the following /Ó abnormalities?
A) True shunting
B) Shunt effect
C) Dead space effect
D) True dead space
Q3) The best test for diagnosing a suspected pulmonary embolism is a(n):
A) spiral computerized tomography scan.
B) pulmonary function test.
C) electrocardiogram.
D) chest radiograph.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for abnormal gas movement from one lung to the other?
A) Paradoxical movement
B) Pendelluft
C) Palindromic breathing
D) Pneumatic shift
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes a flail chest?
A) Double fractures of 2 adjacent ribs
B) Double fractures of 3 adjacent ribs
C) Single fracture of 3 adjacent ribs
D) Triple fractures of 2 adjacent ribs
Q3) Which of the following are pathologic changes associated with a flail chest?
1) Pneumothorax
2) Secondary pneumonia
3) Pleural effusion
4) Elevated diaphragms
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of pneumothorax would result from the rupture of bulla on the surface of a lung?
A) Spontaneous pneumothorax
B) Iatrogenic pneumothorax
C) Open pneumothorax
D) Visceral pneumothorax
Q2) A sucking chest wound would be classified as a(n) _____ pneumothorax.
A) open
B) closed
C) iatrogenic
D) valvular
Q3) After a patient experienced four pneumothoraces of her right lung over a 24-month period, the physician recommended a procedure to reduce the occurrence of future pneumothoraces. Which procedure would the physician have recommended?
A) Pleurodesis
B) Right pneumonectomy
C) Permanent right-sided thoracostomy tube
D) Right upper lobectomy
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Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of patients with bacterial pneumonia are likely to develop pleural effusion?
A) Up to 10%
B) Up to 20%
C) Up to 30%
D) Up to 40%
Q2) Treatment of an empyema usually includes:
A) pleurodesis.
B) thoracostomy tube insertion.
C) lobectomy.
D) pneumonectomy.
Q3) The anatomic alteration caused by a pleural effusion is:
A) pulmonary fibrosis.
B) separation of the visceral and parietal pleura.
C) adhesion of the visceral and parietal pleura.
D) pulmonary edema.
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26
Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive risk factor(s) for the development of kyphoscoliosis include:
1) male gender.
2) female gender.
3) taller person.
4) shorter person.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 4
Q2) Which of the following pulmonary function results are likely to be found in a patient with kyphoscoliosis?
1) Increased VT
2) Normal or increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Decreased FVC
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following Americans would be the most likely to get sarcoidosis?
A) A 27-year-old African-American female
B) A 60-year-old African-American male
C) A 45-year-old Caucasian female
D) A 60-year-old Hispanic male
Q2) What category of medications is commonly prescribed to manage interstitial lung disease?
A) Antibiotics
B) Mucolytics
C) Corticosteroids
D) Diuretics
Q3) All of the following are associated with lymphangioleiomyomatosis (LAM) EXCEPT:
A) recurrent chylothoraces and recurrent pneumothoraces.
B) increased airway obstruction.
C) postmenopausal women are primarily affected.
D) airway smooth muscle is affected.
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is (are) small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Undifferentiated carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Malignant tumors:
1) invade surrounding tissues.
2) grow slowly.
3) cause necrosis.
4) may be metastatic.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
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29
Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) What initial tidal volume setting on the ventilator would be recommended for a 70-kg adult male with ARDS?
A) 350 mL
B) 420 mL
C) 560 mL
D) 700 mL
Q2) All of the following materials will be found in the alveoli of a patient with ARDS EXCEPT:
A) leukocytes.
B) cellular debris.
C) fibrin.
D) hyaline membrane.
Q3) What is the reason for the elevated risk of developing ARDS associated with massive blood transfusions?
A) Shock (hypovolemia)
B) Receiving the wrong blood type
C) Fat emboli
D) Blockages in pulmonary blood vessels
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30
Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States and Europe, what is the most common subtype of GBS?
A) Miller Fisher syndrome (MFS)
B) Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN)
C) Acute pandysautonomic neuropathy (APN)
D) Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP)
Q2) In which of the following persons would Guillain-Barré syndrome most likely occur?
A) African-American female-22 years of age
B) Hispanic male-31 years of age
C) Asian female-17 years of age
D) Caucasian male-53 years of age
Q3) Under microscopic inspection, the skeletal muscle nerves of a Guillain-Barré patient show all of the following EXCEPT:
A) hypertrophy.
B) edema.
C) inflammation.
D) demyelination.
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of patients with only ocular myasthenia gravis are seropositive?
A) <10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Q2) Complications commonly associated with long-term use of steroids in the management of myasthenia gravis include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) infections.
B) cataracts.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) osteoporosis.
Q3) Which of the following are associated with myasthenia gravis?
1) It interferes with acetylcholine transmission.
2) It causes weakness of voluntary muscles.
3) It is usually an ascending paralysis starting in the legs.
4) It is usually preceded by a viral infection.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-line treatment for the management of hyperventilation-related central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B) adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C) mechanical ventilation.
D) palatopharyngoplasty.
Q2) Which of the following may be used in the management of a patient with central sleep apnea?
1) Acetazolamide
2) Oxygen therapy
3) Inhaled bronchodilator medications
4) Adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP)
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Q1) Early clinical manifestations of an infant with respiratory distress include: 1) cyanosis.
2) substernal retractions.
3) expiratory grunting.
4) apnea.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Apnea of prematurity can be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3, 4
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Hyperinflation is noted on the chest radiograph of a patient with MAS. What sudden development(s) must be watched for?
1) PPHN
2) Pneumothorax
3) Cardiomegaly
4) Pneumomediastinum
A) 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient with MAS has had a chest radiograph taken. What findings can be expected?
A) Elevated diaphragms
B) Mediastinal shift
C) Irregular densities throughout the lungs
D) Air bronchograms
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What respiratory rate would be expected during the physical exam of a patient with TTN?
A) 80 to 120 breaths/min
B) 30 to 40 breaths/min
C) 20 to 30 breaths/min
D) Less than 20 breaths/min
Q2) Which of the following oxygenation indices would be elevated in TTN?
A) Arterial-venous oxygen content difference
B) Oxygen consumption
C) Mixed venous oxygen saturation
D) Pulmonary shunt fraction
Q3) Which of the following breathing patterns are associated with TTN?
1) Normal rate
2) Rapid rate
3) Higher than normal tidal volume
4) Shallow tidal volume
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 4
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hyaline membrane seen in the alveoli of a neonate with RDS is similar to the anatomic alteration found in what other pulmonary disease?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B) Pulmonary fibrosis
C) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D) Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
Q2) What vascular anatomic alteration could occur as a consequence of hypoxia in a patient with RDS?
A) Closure of the ductus arteriosus
B) Transient pulmonary hypertension
C) Increased flow through the ductus venosus
D) Airway mucosal edema
Q3) Which of the following is usually seen in the lungs of a neonate with RDS?
A) Alveolar collapse (atelectasis)
B) Segmental atelectasis
C) Lobar atelectasis
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is described as dissection of gas into the fascial planes of the skin and neck?
A) ASIHD
B) Intravascular air embolism
C) PIE
D) Subcutaneous emphysema
Q2) A physician is performing transillumination to determine whether a neonate has a pneumothorax. What finding would confirm the presence of a pneumothorax?
A) The trachea will be illuminated.
B) Light will shine through the hole in the lung.
C) There will be increased illumination on the unaffected side.
D) There will be increased illumination on the affected side.
Q3) A neonate on mechanical ventilation developed pulmonary air leak syndrome. What change should the respiratory therapist now recommend?
A) Initiate the bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol.
B) Decrease the oxygen percentage.
C) Initiate high-frequency ventilation.
D) Insert bilateral pleural chest tubes.
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Q1) The physical examination of a neonate with RSV will often reveal all of the following EXCEPT:
A) change in point of maximum impulse (PMI).
B) excessive secretions.
C) expiratory grunting.
D) cyanosis.
Q2) A patient with an RSV is hypoxemic. What could cause this?
1) Atelectasis
2) Excessive airway fluid
3) Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
4) Consolidation
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Infants with RSV do NOT benefit from which of the following?
A) Chest percussion and drainage (CPT & D)
B) High-flow nasal cannula therapy (HFNC)
C) Bulb suctioning of the nares
D) Nebulized hypertonic saline
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) If a patient has an advanced stage of BPD, what cardiac problem may be identified on the chest radiograph?
A) Pneumomediastinum
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Change in point of maximum impulse
D) Cor pulmonale
Q2) What agent can be administered to a preterm infant to help reduce lung inflammation and the incidence of BPD?
A) Vitamin D
B) Bronchodilators
C) Ribavirin (VirazoleÒ)
D) Corticosteroids
Q3) A patient with classic Stage 1 BPD will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B) Emphysematous bullae
C) Honeycomb appearance
D) Mediastinal shift
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) When does respiratory distress normally develop in a newborn with a CDH?
A) Shortly after delivery
B) 6 to 12 hours after delivery
C) 12 to 24 hours after delivery
D) 24 to 48 hours after delivery
Q2) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B) atelectasis.
C) hyperinflation.
D) complete lung collapse.
Q3) Which of the following auscultation findings would be associated with a CDH?
1) Bilateral bruits
2) Apical heartbeat heard over the unaffected side
3) Absent breath sounds over the affected area
4) Bowel sounds over the affected area
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Q1) What is the most common form of TGA?
A) a-TGA
B) b-TGA
C) c-TGA
D) d-TGA
Q2) What is the most common congenital heart disorder?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q3) What is the most common type of VSD?
A) Inlet ventricular septal defect
B) Perimembranous ventricular septal defect
C) Muscular ventricular septal defect
D) Conoventricular ventricular septal defect
Q4) According to the NHLBI, what is the most common type of birth defect?
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Congenital heart defects
C) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D) Cleft palate
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has epiglottitis. This condition will affect which of the following?
1) Pharynx
2) Aryepiglottic folds
3) False vocal cords
4) Trachea
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) Childhood vaccination is done to prevent which of the following possible causes of epiglottitis?
A) Haemophilus influenza type B
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Diphtheria
D) Parainfluenza viruses
Q3) What is the main clinical risk facing a patient with epiglottitis?
A) Secretions will block the trachea.
B) The epiglottis will bleed.
C) The laryngeal inlet may become covered by the epiglottis.
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D) The vocal cords will spasm and close the laryngeal inlet.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Q1) After an extended time underwater, a near-drowning victim will most likely have:
A) tachypnea.
B) a normal respiratory rate.
C) bradypnea.
D) apnea.
Q2) Favorable prognostic factors in clean water near-drowning include:
1) greater effort to reach the surface.
2) alcohol in the victim.
3) colder water.
4) younger age.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) In comparing the pathologic changes to the lungs caused by fresh water versus salt water, which of the following can be stated?
A) Salt water causes more damage.
B) Fresh water causes more damage.
C) Both cause identical pathologic changes.
D) Cold water of either type causes more damage than warm water of either type.
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been brought to the emergency department after inhaling superheated steam. Pulmonary injuries unique to this situation include:
1) atelectasis.
2) pulmonary edema.
3) thick secretions.
4) pharyngeal edema.
A) 3
B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) Clinical signs associated with acute upper airway obstruction due to thermal injury include:
1) pleural friction rub.
2) inspiratory stridor.
3) pulmonary edema.
4) painful swallowing.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the least commonly found type of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Primary lobule
B) Lung segment
C) Lung lobe
D) Entire lung
Q2) Which of the following patients should be placed on short-term mechanical ventilation because of the high risk of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Appendectomy
B) Tracheostomy
C) Bronchoscopy for tumor biopsy
D) Cardiac surgery
Q3) After gastric bypass surgery, a patient is showing tachypnea. What is the best explanation for this?
A) Diaphragmatic apraxia
B) Postoperative pain
C) Low-grade fever
D) Anesthetic sedation
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