Assessment and Diagnostics in Respiratory Care
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive overview of the assessment techniques and diagnostic procedures essential in respiratory care. Students will learn how to gather patient histories, perform physical examinations, and utilize various diagnostic tools such as pulmonary function tests, arterial blood gas analysis, imaging studies, and sleep assessments. Emphasis is placed on interpreting test results to accurately identify and evaluate respiratory conditions, monitor disease progression, and determine appropriate therapeutic interventions. The course also explores evidence-based best practices for assessment and fosters critical thinking skills necessary for effective clinical decision-making in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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580 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) The open-ended question format is generally used to:
1) gather information when a patient introduces a new topic.
2) introduce a new subject area.
3) begin the interview process.
4) gather specific information.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: C
Q2) During the interview, the patient states, "Every time I climb the stairs I have to stop to catch my breath." Hearing this, the respiratory therapist replies, "So, it sounds like you get short of breath climbing stairs." This interviewing technique is called:
A) clarification.
B)modeling.
C)empathy.
D)reflection.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient with bronchiectasis has a productive cough. As the respiratory therapist, what should you be evaluating about the patient's sputum?
1) Color
2) Odor
3) Amount
4) Consistency
A)3
B)3, 4
C)1, 2
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: D
Q2) Your patient has come into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located constant pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B)Myocardial ischemia
C)Pneumothorax
D)Fractured rib
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Q1) Overall characteristics of pulmonary function testing results on a patient with obstructive lung disease include that:
A) FEV<sub>1</sub> is reduced and FEV<sub>1</sub>% is normal.
B)FEV<sub>1</sub> and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both increased.
C)FEV<sub>1</sub> and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both reduced.
D)FEV<sub>1</sub> is increased and FEV<sub>1</sub>% is decreased.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following forced vital capacity test times should be interpreted as normal?
A) Less than 4 seconds
B)4 to 6 seconds
C)6 to 8 seconds
D)8 to 10 seconds
Answer: B
Q3) The FEF 25%-75% is used to evaluate:
A) flow in large airways.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)maximum breathing effort.
D)flow in medium-size to small airways.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be a normal person's venous oxygen pressure (PaO<sub>2</sub>)?
A) 35 to 45 mm Hg
B)45 to 80 mm Hg
C)80 to 100 mm Hg
D)100 to 120 mm Hg
Q2) Common causes of metabolic alkalosis include: 1) diuretic therapy.
2) vomiting.
3) excessive sodium bicarbonate administration.
4) gastric suctioning.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) An anion gap of 15 would indicate:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B)respiratory alkalosis.
C)respiratory acidosis.
D)metabolic alkalosis.
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen consumption:
1) increases with exercise.
2) is the amount of oxygen used by the body.
3) is inversely related to carbon dioxide production.
4) is about 250 mL/min in the resting adult.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 4
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) An increased cardiac output causes the:
1) C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> to decrease.
2) SvO<sub>2</sub> to increase.
3) Total O<sub>2</sub> delivery to decrease.
4) O<sub>2</sub>ER to increase.
A)1
B)2, 3
C)3, 4
D)1, 2
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) Which of the following hemodynamic changes are commonly seen in a patient with pulmonary edema?
1) Increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)
2) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
3) Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure (PA)
4) Decreased cardiac output (CO)
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Q1) For most chest x-ray studies, what is usually done?
A) There is a full exhalation.
B)There is a full inspiration.
C)Separate inspiratory and expiratory films are taken.
D)The patient is told to pant to provide a middle lung volume.
Q2) Which of the following can be identified by pulmonary angiography?
1) Pulmonary emboli
2) Coronary artery occlusions
3) Arteriovenous malformations
4) Cause of hemoptysis
A)4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Your patient has had a ventilation-perfusion scan. What would be identified from the ventilation scan?
A) Location of a lung abscess
B)Alveolar consolidation
C)Location of a pulmonary embolism
D)Location of an airway obstruction
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Q1) In a normal differential white blood cell (WBC) count, which of the following would have the highest number?
A) Neutrophils
B)Basophils
C)Eosinophils
D)Lymphocytes
Q2) Your patient has pneumonia and a right pleural effusion. If the pleural exudate fluid is infected, it will show:
1) a low protein level.
2) a high white blood cell count.
3) bacteria.
4) many red blood cells.
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Q1) An obese patient had upper abdominal surgery 2 days earlier. He has a weak nonproductive cough and a pulse oximeter (SpO<sub>2</sub>) reading of 84% on room air. What therapist-driven protocol(s) should be implemented?
1) mechanical ventilation
2) hyperinflation therapy
3) oxygen therapy
4) aerosolized medication
A)1
B)3, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) According to the oxygen therapy protocol, what should be done with a patient who has severe trauma when hypoxemia is suspected?
A) Begin hyperinflation therapy.
B)Initiate supplemental oxygen.
C)Begin mechanical ventilation.
D)Notify the physician.
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Chapter 10: Recording Skills:
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) rule?
A) A bank can check for a preexisting condition.
B)The patient controls access to his/her medical records.
C)Psychotherapy and medical records are treated equally.
D)An employer can check for a preexisting condition.
Q2) A problem-oriented medical record is used by health-care practitioners to:
1) systemically gather the patient's data.
2) communicate with the patient's family.
3) develop an assessment.
4) formulate a treatment plan.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B)refusal of care by the patient.
C)rejection by the physician.
D)resuscitate the patient.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) Which of the following terms is/are commonly applied to a patient with emphysema?
1) Pink puffer
2) Blue bloater
3) Type A COPD
4) Type B COPD
A)1
B)2
C)1, 3
D)2, 4
Q2) Which of the following are anatomic alterations found with emphysema?
1) Hyperinflation
2) Mucus plugs
3) Decreased surface area for gas exchange
4) Weakened distal airways
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Q1) If an asthmatic patient is given a sympathomimetic and parasympatholytic medication, what can be expected to happen?
A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction will occur.
B)Airway edema will be reduced.
C)Nothing, since the two medications have opposite effects.
D)Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation will occur.
Q2) A patient is having a severe asthma attack. What blood gas results would indicate to the respiratory therapist and physician that the patient is having great difficulty?
1) Increased carbon dioxide level
2) Decreased carbon dioxide level
3) Increased pH
4) Decreased oxygen level
A)4
B)2, 3
C)1, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irregularly dilated and constricted bronchi are the key anatomic alterations found in which type of bronchiectasis?
A) Cystic
B)Varicose
C)Tubular
D)Saccular
Q2) Which of the following pulmonary function testing values would be found in a patient with severe, obstructive bronchiectasis?
A) Decreased RV/TLC ratio
B)Increased PEFR
C)Increased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
D)Decreased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
Q3) The preferred radiographic method to evaluate a patient's bronchiectasis is:
A) posterior-anterior radiograph (x-ray).
B)anterior-posterior radiograph (x-ray).
C)computed tomography (CT).
D)bronchogram.
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15
Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) total airway obstruction leading to atelectasis.
A) 1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following is/are commonly used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
1) Pancreatic enzymes and vitamins
2) Antibiotics
3) Postural drainage
4) Expectorants
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Your patient has a lung infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What antibiotic should be used against it?
A) Tobramycin (TOBI)
B)Dornase alpha (Pulmozyme)
C)Levalbuterol (Xopenex)
D)Pentamidine (NebuPent)
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Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Q1) The most commonly prescribed aerosolized antibiotic used against Pneumocystis carinii is:
A) penicillin (Penicillin G).
B)tobramycin (TOBI).
C)tetracycline (Achromycin).
D)pentamidine isethionate (NebuPent).
Q2) The most commonly prescribed class of antibiotic used against Gram-positive bacterial organisms is:
A) penicillin (Amoxicillin).
B)isoniazid (INH).
C)cephalosporins (Cefotaxime).
D)ketoconazole (Nizoral).
Q3) A 28-year-old patient who has dogs, parakeets, and cats as pets has been admitted with pneumonia. It is suspected that she acquired the infection from one of her pets. What organism is likely to be found in her sputum?
A) Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Chlamydia psittaci
D)Haemophilus influenzae
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) What antibiotic agent would be appropriate for treating an anaerobic lung abscess infection?
A) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B)Pentamidine (NebuPent)
C)Fluoroquinolones (Levofloxacin)
D)Monobactam (Aztreonam)
Q2) Predisposing factors that frequently lead to the aspiration of gastrointestinal fluids (and anaerobes) are usually related to which of the following?
1) General anesthesia
2) Head trauma
3) Seizure disorder
4) Alcoholic abuse
A)1, 2
B)2, 3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Q1) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B)Fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C)Ziehl-Neelsen.
D)Gentian violet.
Q2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is particularly damaging to the lungs because of:
A) the healing of a tubercle.
B)micropulmonary emboli.
C)the increased mucus production.
D)the irreversible bronchospasm that it causes.
Q3) A patient who has an uncontrolled tuberculosis infection will show all of the following signs EXCEPT:
A) weight loss.
B)high fever.
C)bloody sputum.
D)night sweats.
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Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) Fungal infection of the lungs is closest in similarity to:
A) pleural disease.
B)interstitial lung disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)bronchiectasis.
Q2) Your patient with an advanced pulmonary fungal infection has cor pulmonale. How will this manifest itself?
A) Distended neck veins
B)Poor skin turgor
C)Wheezy breath sounds
D)Asymmetrical chest movement when breathing
Q3) A patient has an Aspergillus niger infection. What should be used to treat it?
A) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
B)Ribavirin (Virazole)
C)Metronidazole (Flagyl)
D)Ketoconazole (Nizoral)
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Q1) Which of the following is/are considered noncardiogenic cause(s) of increased capillary permeability?
1) Therapeutic lung radiation
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
4) Inhaled phosgene
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) All of the following are positive risk factors for coronary heart disease (CHD) EXCEPT: A) elevated homocysteine level.
B)elevated vitamin E level.
C)hypertension.
D)diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Q1) Your patient's D-dimer blood test results show a value of 250 ng/mL. How should these results be interpreted?
A) The patient does not have a pulmonary embolism.
B)The patient's anticoagulant level is acceptable.
C)The patient has a pulmonary embolism.
D)The patient has a deep vein thrombosis.
Q2) The duplex venous ultrasonography test is used to:
A) diagnose a blood clot below the knee.
B)identify a saddle embolism.
C)diagnose a blood clot behind the knee or thigh.
D)identify a pulmonary infarction.
Q3) Predisposing factors of pulmonary emboli include: 1) varicose veins.
2) smoking.
3) obesity.
4) congestive heart failure.
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Q1) Your flail chest patient requires supplemental oxygen. What is the usual cause of hypoxemia in a flail chest patient?
A) Myocardial contusion
B)Hemorrhage
C)Pulmonary edema
D)Alveolar atelectasis
Q2) Your patient with a flail chest has developed consolidation. What should be implemented to help manage it?
A) Hyperinflation therapy protocol
B)Antibiotics
C)Mechanical ventilation protocol
D)Oxygen therapy protocol
Q3) Your patient with a flail chest has paradoxical chest movement. What would be seen with this?
A) With an inspiration, the fractured ribs move outward.
B)The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C)During inspiration, the fractured ribs move inward.
D)During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
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23
Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Q1) Which of the following chest assessment findings would be expected in a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
A) Tracheal shift toward the pneumothorax
B)Dull percussion note
C)Tracheal shift away from the pneumothorax
D)Hyperresonant breath sounds
Q2) Which of the following hemodynamic indices will be found in a patient with a large hemothorax?
A) Decreased Qs/Qt
B)Decreased CO
C)Increased CI
D)Increased SV
Q3) Your 40-year-old patient is having a chest tube placed to remove the air from her pleural space. All of the following are necessary aspects of this process EXCEPT:
A) apply about -5 cm H<sub>2</sub>O pressure to the chest tube.
B)a No. 28 to 36 French gauge tube will be used.
C)place the tube at the apex of the lung.
D)place the tube at the base of the lung.
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24
Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Your patient has cancer related to his chronic asbestos exposure. What is his pleural effusion fluid likely to show on laboratory analysis?
1) Erythrocytes
2) Lymphocytes
3) Normal mesothelial cells
4) Malignant mesothelial cells
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Usual chest radiograph findings on a patient with a large pleural effusion include: 1) blunting of the costophrenic angle.
2) fluid level on the affected side.
3) mediastinal shift to the unaffected side.
4) mediastinal shift to the affected side.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3
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25
Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) In a case of severe kyphoscoliosis, which of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected?
1) Enlarged heart
2) Atelectasis
3) Increased lung opacity
4) Thoracic deformity
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Posterior curvature of the spine best describes:
A) kyphoscoliosis.
B)spina bifida.
C)scoliosis.
D)kyphosis.
Q3) Your patient has scoliosis. On her chest radiograph, this would be seen as: A) elevated diaphragms.
B)an S or C shape to the spine.
C)pectus carinatum.
D)pectus excavatum.
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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Progressive systemic sclerosis affects the following organs :
1) Skin
2) Reproductive organs
3) Lungs
4) Brain
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following classes of drugs has the largest group of agents that can cause interstitial lung disease?
A) Anticancer
B)Cardiovascular
C)Antibiotics
D)Antiinflammatory
Q3) Generally, a patient with ILD will have a lung compliance that is:
A) higher than normal.
B)normal.
C)less than normal.
D)variable based on the etiology.
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Benign tumors:
1) are metastatic.
2) grow slowly.
3) are usually encapsulated.
4) grow in a disordered manner.
A)1
B)4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has gone to see her physician after recently developing hoarseness and difficulty swallowing. What does this indicate?
A) Mediastinal cancer
B)Gastroesophageal reflux
C)Stomach cancer
D)Salivary gland cancer
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) smoking tobacco.
B)smoking marijuana.
C)inhaling asbestos.
D)inhaling radon gas.
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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) A patient with massive blood transfusion or disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is at risk for developing ARDS because of:
A) shock (hypovolemia).
B)receiving the wrong blood type.
C)fat emboli.
D)blockages in pulmonary blood vessels.
Q2) Your patient with ARDS has alveolar consolidation and atelectasis. Which of the following can be used to offset these problems?
1) aerosolized bronchodilator medications
2) continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) chest percussion and postural drainage
4) positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
A)4
B)1, 2
C)1, 3
D)2, 4
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Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome will have pulmonary function test findings that show:
A) a restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B)an obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)diaphragm muscle weakness.
D)chest muscle weakness.
Q2) Your patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is developing atelectasis. His chest radiograph findings would show:
A) "ground-glass" appearance.
B)crackles.
C)increased opacity.
D)blunted costophrenic angles.
Q3) Which of following has been shown to shorten the course of a severe case of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) Renal dialysis
B)Plasmapheresis
C)Blood transfusion
D)Mechanical ventilation
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Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Treatment and care of the myasthenia gravis patient include:
1) pyridostigmine (Mestinon).
2) plasmapheresis.
3) thymectomy.
4) mechanical ventilation.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) If a patient with myasthenia gravis is given the drug edrophonium (Tensilon), what will happen?
A) Heart rate will increase.
B)Strength will improve for a short time.
C)There will be a long-term improvement in strength.
D)The patient will weaken for a short time.
Q3) In a myasthenia gravis patient, what happens after a rest period?
A) There is no clinical change.
B)Strength decreases.
C)Muscle strength improves.
D)Ascending paralysis descends.
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Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) Clinical disorders associated with central sleep apnea include:
1) awakening with dry mouth and sore throat.
2) depression.
3) encephalitis.
4) brain stem infarction.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) During sleep, there is loss of muscle tone in the upper airway. What could this cause?
A) Airway obstruction
B)Vocal cords stay dilated
C)Vocal cords stay closed
D)Aspiration or oral secretions
Q3) A CPAP titration polysomnogram is performed to:
A) find the maximum CPAP level for the functional residual capacity.
B)determine the lowest possible CPAP level.
C)find the CPAP level to maintain an open airway.
D)determine the pressure needed for negative-pressure ventilation.
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) Apneic episodes in a premature neonate can be caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) epiglottitis.
B)immature central nervous system.
C)immature airway receptors.
D)immature chemoreceptors.
Q2) Which of the following can trigger apnea in the premature infant?
1) Micrognathia
2) Intracranial hemorrhage
3) REM sleep
4) Hypothermia
A)2
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) PPHN usually appears:
A) in utero during the last trimester.
B)within 1 hour of birth.
C)within the first 12 hours of birth.
D)between the 1st and 6th days of life.
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Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B)30%
C)10% to 15%
D)4%
Q2) Your patient with MAS has had a chest radiograph taken. What findings can be expected?
A) Elevated diaphragms
B)Mediastinal shift
C)Irregular densities throughout the lungs
D)Air bronchograms
Q3) A neonate with MAS has hypoxemia. Which of the following can be a pulmonary effect of this?
A) Status asthmaticus
B)Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN)
C)Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) The causes of TTN include:
1) the mother having cystic fibrosis.
2) infant's hypoxemia.
3) mother's hypoxemia.
4) inadequate inspiratory effort.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) An infant with a mild case of TTN will show the following arterial blood gas value(s):
1) increased pH
2) decreased pH
3) low PaO<sub>2</sub>.
4) low PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
A)4
B)3, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) What vascular anatomic alteration could occur as a consequence of hypoxia in your RDS patient?
A) Closure of the ductus arteriosus
B)Transient pulmonary hypertension
C)Increased flow through the ductus venosus
D)Airway mucosal edema
Q2) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is A) present.
B)absent.
C)above normal.
D)below normal.
Q3) The hyaline membrane seen in the alveoli of a neonate with RDS is similar to the anatomic alteration found in what other pulmonary disease?
A) Bacterial pneumonia
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
D)Meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS)
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36
Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) Your intubated and mechanically ventilated neonatal patient has a pneumothorax of the right lung. What can be done to help the injured lung to heal?
A) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the left mainstem bronchus.
B)Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the right mainstem bronchus.
C)Replace the endotracheal tube with a tracheostomy tube.
D)Change to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
Q2) Your patient has PIE and a pneumomediastinum. What clinical manifestations are associated with the more negative intrapleural pressures needed during an inspiration by your patient?
1) Lower thoracic areas are cyanotic
2) Substernal retractions
3) Flaring nostrils
4) Inspiratory stridor
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics would make an adult at increased risk for a severe case of RSV?
1) Compromised immune system
2) History of asthma
3) Under 30 years of age
4) More than 65 years of age
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 4
Q2) Several small children who attend the same day care facility have become sick with RSV. The owner of the day care can expect them to recover within:
A) 4 to 6 days.
B)3 to 8 days.
C)1 to 2 weeks.
D)greater than 3 weeks.
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38
Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) Which of the following can increase an infant's likelihood of developing BPD?
A) Vitamin supplements
B)Over-feeding
C)Use of inhaled albuterol
D)Bacterial sepsis
Q2) Your patient is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (Lasix)
B)Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C)Inhaled albuterol
D)> 50% oxygen
Q3) A very preterm infant has just been born. What would contribute to its development of the "new" bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)?
A) Interruption of the canalicular stage of lung development
B)Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN)
C)Low Apgar scores
D)Laryngotracheobronchitis
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Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with CDH include:
1) fewer bronchial generations.
2) complete lung collapse.
3) atelectasis.
4) mediastinal shift.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) You are assisting in the delivery room when a neonate with a CHD is born. What should be done to help the patient?
1) Give oxygen.
2) Begin bag and mask manual ventilation.
3) Intubate and ventilate the neonate.
4) Put the neonate in Trendelenburg position.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) The medication racemic epinephrine (Micro-Nefrin, Vaponefrin) is given to a patient with LTB because it:
A) is an effective bronchodilator.
B)causes mucosal vasoconstriction.
C)causes bradycardia.
D)has an appealing taste and smell.
Q2) Management of LTB usually includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) close observation for breathing difficulties.
B)having the child drink fluids.
C)placement into a cool aerosol tent.
D)endotracheal intubation.
Q3) The diagnosis of epiglottitis is made by:
1) laying the patient down and observing the throat with a tongue blade.
2) visualization of the throat during tracheal intubation.
3) observing if the patient can swallow.
4) observing how the patient holds his/her tongue.
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) In comparing the pathologic changes to the lungs caused by fresh water vs. salt water, the following can be stated:
A) Salt water causes more damage.
B)Fresh water causes more damage.
C)They cause the same types of damage.
D)Warm water of either type causes more damage than cold water of either type.
Q2) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B)98.6° F
C)Between 98° F and 70° F
D)Less than 70° F
Q3) Warming techniques for a cold-water near drowning victim include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) cooling the extremities and warming the body.
B)warming the inspired oxygen.
C)heated intravenous solutions.
D)heated lavage of the pericardial space.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) All of the following will be typically found in the air of an enclosed house fire, EXCEPT:
A) steam.
B)carbon monoxide.
C)hydrogen cyanide.
D)hydrogen chloride.
Q2) Your patient has ARDS and is in acute ventilatory failure. As the respiratory therapist, what would you recommend be done?
A) Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
B)Provide 100% oxygen
C)Begin mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D)Begin extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
Q3) After the correction of any hypoxemia, the next pulmonary complication seen in the fire victim with extensive body and facial burns is:
A) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
B)upper airway obstruction.
C)pneumonia.
D)pulmonary embolism.
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43
Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) Which of the following is the least commonly found type of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Primary lobule
B)Lung segment
C)Lung lobe
D)Entire lung
Q2) Which of the following are precipitating factors for retained secretions that commonly lead to atelectasis?
1) Asthma
2) General anesthesia
3) Gastric aspiration
4) Smoking history
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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