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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental principles and practices of psychological assessment and diagnosis. Students will learn about the various methods used to evaluate psychological functioning, including clinical interviews, behavioral assessments, psychometric tests, and diagnostic tools. Emphasis is placed on understanding the DSM and ICD classification systems, ethical considerations in assessment, culturally responsive evaluation, and the integration of assessment findings into diagnostic decision-making. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will develop the skills necessary for accurate diagnosis and effective communication of assessment results within diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology An Integrative Approach 8th Edition by David H. Barlow
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16 Chapters
2192 Verified Questions
2192 Flashcards
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228 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prototype of a disorder reflects as described in DSM-5.
A) its history and prognosis
B) its biological underpinnings
C) the causes of pathology
D) the "typical" profile and diagnostic criteria
Answer: D
Q2) Discuss why the following criteria are not completely satisfactory in defining abnormality: psychological dysfunction, digress, and "culturally expected" behavior. Answer: Psychological dysfunction is not totally satisfactory because behavior is on a continuum, and a milder version of impairment would not meet the criteria for a disorder. As for personal distress, by itself, this criterion does not define abnormal behavior because distress can be a normal reaction to a traumatic situation. Also, for some of the psychological disorders, by definition, suffering and distress are absent. Atypical or not culturally accepted are insufficient when they refer to someone such as a person with an exceptionally high IQ who is atypical but not disordered. Culturally unacceptable is not sufficient because what may be atypical in one culture is perfectly acceptable in another.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some people may be genetically predisposed to seek out difficult relationships. These difficult relationships may contribute to their experience of depression. This is an example of the .
A) diathesis-stress model
B) reciprocal gene-environment model
C) genetic model
D) quantitative genetics model
Answer: B
Q2) According to the diathesis-stress model, monozygotic twins raised in the same household will
A) not necessarily have the same disorders because of potential differences in their diathesis.
B) have the same disorders because their diathesis and stress are exactly the same. C) not necessarily have the same disorders because of potential differences in their stress.
D) have no more likelihood of sharing a disorder than any other two randomly selected individuals from the population.
Answer: C
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127 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In terms of psychological assessment, which of the following describes the concept of validity?
A) Two or more "raters" get the same answers.
B) An assessment technique is consistent across different measures.
C) Scores are used as a norm for comparison purposes.
D) An assessment technique measures what it is designed to measure.
Answer: D
Q2) _____ or diagnosis with more than one disorder at a time is particularly problematic in DSM-5.
A) schizophrenia
B) multiple personality disorder
C) comorbidity
D) none of the above are correct
Answer: C
Q3) A clinical interview should be based on information from the client's .
A) past behaviors, attitudes, and emotions
B) interpersonal and social history
C) present behaviors, attitudes, and emotions
D) all of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE with regard to deception of research participants?
A) It is not allowed under any circumstances.
B) The researcher must tell the participants about the deception after the study.
C) The researcher must obtain approval of the procedure from a special national review board.
D) The researcher need only tell the participants about the deception if not telling them would place the participants in any harm.
Q2) The type of study that generally does not follow the scientific method and typically contains many confounds is the
A) case study.
B) correlation model.
C) true experiment.
D) longitudinal study.
Q3) Describe the Patient Uniformity Myth and explain why it is important to recognize in clinical research.
Q4) Why is replication important in research? Explain and give an example.
Q5) Why is studying behavior across cultures important?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starting with the DSV-IV, panic disorder and agoraphobia were integrated into one disorder called panic disorder with agoraphobia. Why was this the case?
Q2) In the general population, as many as of people suffer from social anxiety disorder at some point in their lives.
A) 1.7%
B) 12.1%
C) 31.8%
D) 51%
Q3) The behavioral process in which OCD patients are not permitted to carry out their compulsions while in the presence of the anxiety-producing stimulus or situation is called
A) exposure and ritual prevention.
B) thought-stopping technique.
C) anxiety reduction therapy.
D) behavioral inhibition conditioning.
Q4) What do the integrative models of the various disorders in this chapter tell us?
Q5) Why do anxiety conditions differ from person to person?
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Q6) Discuss Body Dysmorphic Disorder. How is it diagnosed?
Q7) Discuss the different types of specific phobias and how they are acquired.
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Q1) With regard to evidence for the scientific validity of dissociative identity disorder (DID), the most accurate statement is
A) most DID patients are faking.
B) research suggests that faking dissociative experiences is possible.
C) it is virtually impossible to fake the types of changes that occur in dissociative identity disorder.
D) objective tests can always determine which patients are faking dissociative identity disorder.
Q2) One method that is used to reduce the financial burden associated with somatic symptom disorder is ____________.
A) psychoanalysis
B) encouraging patients to speak to family and friends about their symptoms
C) exposure therapy
D) assignment of a gatekeeper physician
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE about conversion disorders?
A) The prevalence of conversion disorders is equal in men and women.
B) Conversion disorders typically develop in the late 20s or early 30s.
C) Conversion disorders are not uncommon in males at times of extreme stress.
D) Once conversion disorders disappear, they do not reoccur.
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Q1) A person who experiences a persistent depressed mood for at least 2 years but is not experiencing major depression may have
A) persistent depressive disorder.
B) cyclothymic disorder.
C) bipolar disorder.
D) double depression.
Q2) All of the following are accurate statements about the prevalence of mood disorders in children and adolescents EXCEPT:
A) Bipolar disorder in children is often misdiagnosed as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
B) Major depressive disorder in adolescents is largely a female disorder.
C) Rates of attempted suicide decrease during adolescence.
D) Adolescents with bipolar disorder may become aggressive, impulsive, sexually provocative, and accident- prone.
Q3) A child raised by depressed parents is likely to
A) struggle with depression as well.
B) learn how to avoid depression.
C) be inoculated against depression.
D) deny stress symptoms.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When women are asked to identify the most attractive female body weight, they typically identify a weight that is
A) lower than the weight identified by men.
B) the same as the weight identified by men.
C) higher than the weight identified by men.
D) 20% lower than their own body weight.
Q2) Discuss possible reasons for the current obesity epidemic seen in the US and other countries and the relative efficacy of currently available obesity treatment options and preventions.
Q3) Individuals with night eating syndrome
A) consume a third of their daily intake after their evening meal.
B) binge during the night.
C) do not wake up while eating during the night.
D) often purge after eating.
Q4) As we grow older, it seems that the amount of sleep that we require .
A) decreases
B) increases
C) stays the same
D) decreases until early adulthood and then begins to increase again
Q5) What is "sleep hygiene?" Give at least two examples.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lifestyle factors includes things such as:
A) Smoking
B) Nutrition
C) Physical activity
D) All of the above are lifestyle factors
Q2) In the massive antismoking campaign in China in 1989, the results indicated that of the 10,000 fathers
In the intervention group quit smoking for at least 6 months in comparison to a control group of 10,000 in which only quit smoking.
A) 1%; 0.1%
B) 12%; 0.2%
C) 22%; 2.2%
D) 50%; 25%
Q3) Individuals who are high users of pain relieving medications are programs than less frequent users.
A) more likely
B) less likely
C) equally likely
D) unable
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those with with are individuals who receive a sexual thrill from inflicting pain on others, and people are individuals who receive a sexual thrill from receiving physical pain.
A) sexual sadism; sexual masochism
B) sexual masochism; sexual sadism
C) transvestic disorder; pedophilic disorder
D) pedophilic disorder; transvestic disorder
Q2) One psychological aspect of voyeurism and exhibitionism that seems to maintain the disordered behavior is
A) some anxiety that increases arousal.
B) the fact that these individuals are rarely caught.
C) the desire to hurt their victims.
D) some sense that their victims really enjoy being subjected to their fetish.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a gender difference in sexual beliefs:
A) men show more sexual desire and arousal than women.
B) females are more likely to value the experience of passionate and romantic feelings.
C) men tend to have more negative core beliefs about sex.
D) a minority of women hold embarrassed, conservative, or self-conscious views toward sex.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss some of the racial differences in binge drinking. What do you think accounts for these differences?
Q2) Pyromania
A) is fairly common among arsonists.
B) is a disorder where an individual is preoccupied with setting fires and the associated equipment involved in putting out those fires.
C) is fairly common among people who were bedwetters as children.
D) is all of these.
Q3) The drug called Antabuse helps people abstain from drinking alcohol by
A) causing alcoholic drinks to taste bitter.
B) disrupting breakdown of a byproduct of alcohol, leading to feelings of illness.
C) making people allergic to alcohol.
D) reducing the pleasurable feelings that are associated with alcohol.
Q4) Contingency management involves
A) the use of reinforcement for specific behaviors.
B) the elimination of abuse cues.
C) altering expectations.
D) use of medications to create substance aversions.
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Q1) When individuals with dependent personality disorder are in therapy, they are A) seemingly "model" patients.
B) resistant to the therapeutic process.
C) too unstable to do the intellectual work that therapy requires.
D) demanding and impulsive.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE about narcissistic personality disorder?
A) This disorder is on the decrease in Western societies.
B) Reports of treatment success are limited.
C) Recently there has been a great deal of research on this disorder.
D) All of the above are true.
Q3) According to your text, the most accurate statement regarding the treatment of histrionic personality disorder is that
A) there are no scientific studies demonstrating success.
B) patients who voluntarily attend therapy tend to get better.
C) strict behavioral programs have been shown to be effective in scientific research.
D) cognitive therapy is most effective.
Q4) Explain how Autism in childhood and Schizoid Personality Disorder in adulthood related?
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Q1) In the late 1800s, the German psychiatrist Emil Kraeplin made all of the following contributions to our knowledge of schizophrenia EXCEPT
A) distinguishing dementia praecox (schizophrenia) from manic-depressive illness.
B) noting that hallucinations, delusions, and negativism were symptoms of dementia praecox (schizophrenia).
C) combining several symptoms of insanity (catatonia, paranoia, hebephrenia) that had usually been viewed as reflecting separate and distinct disorders.
D) conceptualizing a treatment for schizophrenic patients that is still being used today.
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters has recently been linked to schizophrenia?
A) Deficiency in the stimulation of prefrontal dopamine D1 receptors
B) Excessive stimulation of striatal dopamine D2 receptors
C) Alterations in prefrontal activity involving glutamate transmissions
D) All of the above
Q3) Describe what the affective flattening symptom of Schizophrenia looks like.
Q4) Discuss the psychotic disorders that can be diagnosed other than schizophrenia.
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Q1) Fragile X syndrome
A) is caused by too many X chromosomes on a gene.
B) is similar to Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
C) primarily affects males.
D) results in an inability to metabolize certain amino acids.
Q2) What are the three types of symptoms for attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder?
A) Hyperactivity, impulsivity, inattention
B) Inattention, distraction, hyperactivity
C) Inattention, impulsivity, distraction
D) Hypervigilance, increased startle, and distraction
Q3) Research by Lovaas (1987) and others suggest that intervention for autism may be most effective when it is provided ______________.
A) at as young an age as possible
B) during adolescence
C) during late childhood/early adolescence
D) to adults
Q4) Discuss why portrayals such as Dustin Hoffman's character in Rain Man are helpful and hurtful in ASD advocacy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE about vascular neurocognitive disorder?
A) The prevalence rate is 25% for those over age 80.
B) The risk for women is slightly higher than men.
C) The outcome is similar to that of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
D) The onset is about the same as for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease.
Q2) The symptoms of substance/medication-induced neurocognitive disorder are generally associated with A) toxic effects of the substances.
B) temporary impairment in brain functioning.
C) permanent brain damage.
D) poor diet and self-care behaviors.
Q3) The progress of cognitive deterioration in Alzheimer's disease is most rapid during the stages of the disease.
A) early
B) middle
C) late
D) advanced
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the 1970s and 1980s, tightened restrictions on involuntary commitment resulted in
A) the criminal justice system becoming responsible for mentally ill people.
B) fewer mentally ill patients living in the community.
C) family members having increased access to treatment services for their loved ones.
D) mentally ill patients receiving needed mental health services.
Q2) With regard to mental health and the law, which of the following is an accurate statement?
A) A person can be found incompetent to stand trial and still be convicted of the crime.
B) A person can be found NGRI but competent to stand trial.
C) More individuals are found NGRI than are found incompetent to stand trial.
D) A person found incompetent to stand trial is placed in a mental hospital for an indefinite period of time.
Q3) Functional imaging technology suggests that empathy involves activity in the .
A) prefrontal cortex
B) hypothalamus
C) ventricles
D) hippocampus
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