

Applied Psychology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Psychology explores the practical application of psychological theories, principles, and methods to solve real-world problems in various domains such as education, health, business, and social settings. The course examines how psychological research informs interventions, assessments, and strategies to enhance individual well-being, improve workplace productivity, guide community programs, and support effective decision-making. Students will engage with case studies and practical examples to understand how psychological concepts are implemented in diverse professional contexts, developing critical thinking and skills necessary for evidence-based practice.
Recommended Textbook Forensic Psychology 4th Edition by Joanna
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30 Chapters
927 Verified Questions
927 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2037

Page 2

Chapter 1: A: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40501
Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the case of R.v.Mohan (1994)so important to forensic psychologists?
A)It stressed the duty to protect a third party.
B)It dealt with the admissibility of expert evidence.
C)It established guidelines for reporting child abuse.
D)It highlighted the importance of client confidentiality.
E)It dealt with the issue of racial segregation.
Answer: B
Q2) Which scholar conducted some of the first experiments in eyewitness testimony in the U.S.examining memory for everyday events?
A)Wundt
B)Cattell
C)Binet
D)Stern
E)von Schrenck-Notzing
Answer: B
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Chapter 1: B: An Introduction to Forensic Psychology
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Ogloff and Cronshaw (2001),what are the two main functions of expert witnesses? Also,how do expert witnesses differ from ordinary witnesses in court?
Answer: The two main functions of expert witnesses are to provide the court with information that assists them in understanding the issues at hand and to provide the court with an opinion (which must fall within the limits of their areas of expertise).
Expert witnesses differ from ordinary witnesses in that they are able to provide their opinion on a particular matter,whereas ordinary witnesses are only able to testify about what they have directly observed.
Q2) What are the four specific Daubert criteria defined by the U.S.Supreme Court that determine when scientific evidence is considered reliable?
Answer: 1.The research has been peer reviewed.
2.The research is tes (i.e.,falsifiable through experimentation).
3.The research has a recognized rate of error.
4.The research adheres to professional standards.
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4

Chapter 2: A: Police Psychology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40503
Sample Questions
Q1) The press has been distorting the facts of a particular case on which a police officer is working.This is an example of:
A)an organizational stressor
B)an occupational stressor
C)a criminal justice stressor
D)a public stressor
E)an extrinsic stressor
Answer: D
Q2) New strategies for recruiting police officers,such as those used by the Vancouver Police Department,involve
A)more rigorous physical testing
B)use of social media such as blogs and Twitter
C)criminal background checks
D)screening for mental disorders
E)use of role play to determine suitability
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: B: Police Psychology
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four reasons why police discretion is necessary,as indicated by Sheehan and Cordner (1989).
Q2) What are the main conclusions from Butler and Hall's (2008)study of use of force using data from the Calgary Police Service?
Q3) Define "police discretion" and name three areas of policing in which discretion is often used.
Q4) Name four main sources of police stress and provide an example of each.
Q5) You are a police officer who has encountered a mentally ill person causing a disturbance.What are the three main options available to you in this situation? Identify a disadvantage associated with each.
Q6) In general,there are two stages involved in developing a valid police selection process.Name these stages and explain them briefly.
Q7) Name and describe two of the three most common types of police selection procedures.
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Chapter 3: A: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maximization techniques are also called _______ tactics; minimization techniques are also called ________ tactics.
A)soft sell/scare
B)heavy/compassion
C)scare/soft sell
D)compassion/scare
E)intimidation/sympathy
Q2) In Canada,which of the following police interrogation practices would not be accep by legal standards?
A)exaggerating the infallibility of polygraph tests
B)minimizing the seriousness of the crimes that were committed
C)implying that psychiatric assistance can be made available if the suspect confesses
D)depriving the suspect of sleep
E)none of the above are legally condoned
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Chapter 3: B: The Psychology of Police Investigations
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) State four general criticisms of criminal profiling.
Q2) What is the name of the interrogation model that is most often taught to police officers in North America? Briefly describe the model's three stages.
Q3) List five background characteristics that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five background characteristics that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q4) List the two primary goals of a police interrogation.In addition,describe the three types of false confessions that can result from North American-style police interrogation techniques,making it very clear how they differ from one another.
Q5) List five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to relate to organized offenders and five crime scene behaviours that are assumed to related to disorganized offenders.
Q6) Distinguish between deductive criminal profiling and inductive criminal profiling.Identify a problem associated with each method.
Q7) Distinguish between a retracted confession and a disputed confession.
Q8) Define criminal profiling in general terms and provide four main goals of criminal profiling.
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Chapter 4: A: Deception
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most research on malingering uses a ___________ design.
A)known-groups
B)simulation
C)case study
D)cross-sequential
E)cross-sectional
Q2) What is one of the key components to malingering?
A)Symptoms are not intentionality produced.
B)There are only internal motivations for the production of symptoms.
C)There are external motivations for the production of symptoms.
D)Symptoms are produced in order to assume the sick role.
E)There is an absence of external incentives.
Q3) According to research findings,the most probable explanation of malingering is captured by:
A)a pathogenic model
B)a criminological model
C)an adaptational model
D)an antisocial model
E)none of the above
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Page 9

Chapter 4: B: Deception
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how event-related brain potentials (ERPs)have been used to detect deception.
Q2) What are the eight strategies that a person may employ when malingering identified by the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS)?
Q3) Your text identifies several cues of malingered psychosis.Identify three cues associated with hallucinations and three cues associated with delusions.
Q4) Provide two verbal and two nonverbal cues (variables)demonstrated to be reliable indicators of deception.
Q5) Provide four criticisms of the Comparison Question Test (CQT).
Q6) Describe the four phases of a Comparison Question Test (CQT).Make sure you identify the purpose of each phase.
Q7) Rogers (1990)describes three explanatory models of malingering.Name and define these three models.Which model is most highly supported?
Q8) According to your text,what are the two key components of malingering? List four reasons why an individual might be motivated to malinger.
Q9) Give two explanations for poor performance in deception detection.
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Chapter 5: A: Eyewitness Testimony
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40509
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text,when an eyewitness simultaneously compares lineup members to one another and then makes a decision based on who they believe looks most like the perpetrator,they are making:
A)an absolute judgment
B)a false judgment
C)a relative judgment
D)a correct acceptance
E)none of the above
Q2) According to the text,which lineup procedure is considered most suggestive and is reserved only for certain extenuating circumstances?
A)a showup
B)a simultaneous lineup
C)a sequential lineup
D)a walk-by
E)an elimination lineup
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11

Chapter 5: B: Eyewitness Testimony
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40510
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the three major types of biases that have been found to increase false positives in lineup identifications.
Q2) Distinguish between a simultaneous and a sequential lineup.
Q3) State two difficulties with the use of hypnosis in the eyewitness context.
Q4) Distinguish between the cue-utilization hypothesis and the unusualness hypothesis as explanations for the weapon focus effect.
Q5) What is the cross-race effect? Describe the three common explanations as to why the cross-race effect occurs.
Q6) On the basis of the research you have read in the textbook,list five recommendations that you would make to police forces regarding how they should conduct police lineups.
Q7) Distinguish between recall versus recognition tests of memory as dependent variables in research.Describe how recall and recognition responses made by witnesses can be examined.
Q8) List the correct decisions associated with both target-present and target-absent lineups.Also,list the potential errors that can be made in the lineup identification process and whether these errors are known or unknown to the police.
Page 12
Q9) List the five reasons why photo lineups are more common than live lineups.
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Chapter 6: A: Child Victims and Witnesses
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40511
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following was reported by Dube et al.(2005)to be twice as likely in men and women reporting child sexual abuse histories relative to those without such a history?
A)Spousal abuse
B)Substance abuse disorders
C)Depression
D)Neurological disorders
E)Suicide attempts
Q2) In Leichtman and Ceci's Sam Stone study (1995),which condition led to the highest level of accuracy and which condition led to the lowest level of accuracy?
A)control condition - stereotype plus suggestion condition
B)stereotype condition - control condition
C)suggestion condition - stereotype condition
D)stereotype plus suggestion - control condition
E)There were no differences between the groups in accuracy level.
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13

Chapter 6: B: Child Victims and Witnesses
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12 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the narrative elaboration interview procedure? Describe how this procedure works and what the research on this procedure suggests in terms of its usefulness in interviewing children?
Q2) Name and briefly explain the first five steps of the Step-Wise Interview.
Q3) What is Criterion-Based Content Analysis (CBCA)? Specify the assumption that underlies the CBCA and identify two potential problems with this method.
Q4) Describe the four categories of child maltreatment defined by the Child Maltreatment Section (CMS)of Health Canada.
Q5) What are the five criteria identified by Lindsay and Read (1995)that should be considered when determining the veracity of a recovered memory?
Q6) Describe the changes made to the competency inquiry with the enactment of Bill C-2 (2006).
Q7) Name and briefly describe the two directions that have been taken to understand children's greater propensity toward suggestibility when recalling events (Bruck & Ceci,1999).
Q8) Distinguish between the incidence and the prevalence of child maltreatment.Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 7: A: Juries: Fact Finders
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40513
Sample Questions
Q1) In most Canadian trials,the defence and Crown are each allowed ___ peremptory challenges.
A)6
B)10
C)12
D)16
E)20
Q2) According to a review of research examining juror questions,Penrod and Heuer (1997)concluded that:
A)juror questions help reveal truth
B)juror questions help increase jurors',judges',and lawyers' satisfaction with the trial and verdict
C)jury questioning increases a juror's understanding of the case facts
D)jurors tend to ask legally inappropriate questions
E)all of the above
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Chapter 7: B: Juries: Fact Finders
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four functions of a jury.
Q2) Besides the method of placing a ban on pretrial publicity,name and explain two other methods that courts can employ to increase the likelihood of jury impartiality.
Q3) What is meant by the juror characteristic of impartiality? What are two of the issues surrounding impartiality?
Q4) In the context of jury decision making,identify two defendant characteristics that are most likely to result in guilty verdicts,and briefly explain each.
Q5) List four proposed reforms for judges' instructions aimed at facilitating juror understanding.
Q6) List one advantage and one disadvantage of using simulation studies to investigate jury decision making.Briefly outline a simulation study to study the effects of victim characteristics in a sexual assault case on juror decision making.Make sure you clearly identify your independent variables (and/or person characteristics)and dependent variables.
Q7) In the context of jury decision making,distinguish between the terms polarization,leniency bias,and black sheep effect.
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Page 16

Chapter 8: A: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research by Crocker,Braithwaite,Cote,Nicholls,and Seto (2011)found that review boards charged with assessing NCRMD cases relied more heavily on assessment of ______________ factors to determine if the individual should be detained or released.
A)psychotic
B)static
C)demographic
D)dynamic
E)employment
Q2) Richard has been found not criminally responsible in regards to an assault on his landlord.The judge orders that he be released into the community,but that he is to stay away from his former landlord,not possess any weapons,and must take his medication.What type of disposition did Richard receive?
A)Psychiatric facility detention
B)Absolute discharge
C)Conditional discharge
D)Incarceration
E)Community sentence
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Chapter 8: B: The Role of Mental Illness in Court
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40516
Sample Questions
Q1) Distinguish between noninsane automatism and insane automatism.Discuss what dispositions are associated with each,and what circumstances have been recognized by Canadian courts in cases of noninsane automatism.
Q2) You have been hired by a Canadian lawyer to assess a defendant for competency to stand trial.As a first step,you have decided to conduct a competency screener.Describe the screener that you will use and justify your choice.
Q3) What is the relationship between recidivism rates and offenders with mental disorders,as studied by Rice and Harris (1992)?
Q4) Name two of the three changes to legislation resulting from Brian's Law (Bill 68).
Q5) Peter is on trial for sexual assault.He claims he was in a blackout state due to consumption of two bottles of whisky.Based on the information in your text on intoxication and automatism,what type of disposition would Peter most likely get from a judge and why?
Q6) What changes to how defendants found NCRMD are dealt with were proposed in Bill C-54 early in 2013?
Q7) What are the four main objectives of mental health courts?
Q8) What are the three dispositions that can be made following a finding of NCRMD?
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Chapter 9: A: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40517
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common manner of examining public attitudes toward sentencing and parole is through:
A)simulation studies
B)focus groups
C)public opinion surveys
D)field studies
E)none of the above
Q2) In 1899,Sir Wilfrid Laurier was responsible for the introduction of ______________ in Canada.
A)parole
B)probation
C)conditional sentencing
D)restitution
E)imprisonment
Q3) Aboriginal courts in Canada are sometimes referred to as:
A)Gladue courts
B)drug courts
C)Bill C-41 courts
D)Gregory courts
E)restorative justice courts
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Chapter 9: B: Sentencing and Parole in Canada
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40518
Sample Questions
Q1) Provide at least six of the factors that are available to be considered when the Parole Board of Canada assesses risk and parole options.
Q2) State the fundamental principle of sentencing as defined in Canada's Criminal Code.In addition,specify four other principles of sentencing.
Q3) Define the need principle,risk principle,and responsivity principle.
Q4) Identify and describe the four major types of parole in Canada.
Q5) Discuss the difference in success rates and parole failures across offenders released on day and full parole relative to those granted statutory release.
Q6) Many purposes of sentencing exist,including specific and general deterrence.State four additional purposes of sentencing.
Q7) What is the Aboriginal overrepresentation problem in Canadian corrections? What factors contribute to this overrepresentation,and what measures have been taken in Canada to reduce this problem?
Q8) What is unwarranted sentencing disparity? List and describe the two major sources of unwarranted sentencing disparity.
Q9) Identify and describe the five main sentencing options utilized in Canada.
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Chapter 10: A: Risk Assessment
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40519
Sample Questions
Q1) Concern over school shootings has led to the assessment of many youths and attempts to predict which youths will be potential shooters.The problem is that many of these youths will be wrongly classified as potential shooters because we overestimate the prevalence of school shooting incidents.This example reflects
A)True negatives
B)False negatives
C)True positives
D)False positives
E)The base rate problem
Q2) A court decision mandated the release of 400 forensic psychiatric patients into the community.The clinical staff rated all these patients as being "dangerous" if released into the community.Researchers have conducted a three-year follow-up study on these 400 patients.Of this 400,100 were arrested for committing another violent offence.You should conclude the following from this finding:
A)The percentage of false positives is 25%.
B)The correct classification rate was 50%.
C)None of the forensic psychiatric patients should have been released.
D)The false positive level is 75%.
E)none of the above
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Page 21

Chapter 10: B: Risk Assessment
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40520
Sample Questions
Q1) What was the main issue raised in the Baxstrom and Dixon cases/studies? What are the two key findings to emerge from this research?
Q2) What are the three types of judgment errors or biases that clinicians make when assessing risk?
Q3) What is actuarial risk assessment? Provide two advantages and two disadvantages associated with this method.What new method of risk assessment was developed in an attempt to address certain limitations associated with the actuarial approach?
Q4) Name at least four ways in which female offenders differ from male offenders.
Q5) Within the context of violence prediction,distinguish between a static risk factor,a dynamic risk factor,and a protective factor.Provide an example of each.
Q6) Identify and explain the three historical risk factors for violent/criminal behaviour discussed in your text.Be as specific as possible.
Q7) Describe the coping-relapse model of criminal recidivism proposed by Zamble and Quinsey (1997),including the four levels of the model that can lead to criminal behaviour.
Q8) Name and define the two components of the risk assessment process.
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Page 22

Chapter 11: A: Psychopaths
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40521
Sample Questions
Q1) In Rice,Harris,and Cormier's (1992)study to evaluate treatment outcomes in psychopaths,which group had the highest reoffending rate?
A)untreated nonpsychopaths
B)treated nonpsychopaths
C)untreated psychopaths
D)treated psychopaths
E)offenders who dropped out of the study
Q2) Which of the following is not a myth associated with psychopathy?
A)All psychopaths are violent
B)Psychopaths are all intelligent
C)Psychopaths are trea
D)Psychopaths do not know the difference between right and wrong
E)There are no women psychopaths
Q3) Psychopathic rapists are more likely to be:
A)emotionally driven
B)anxious
C)opportunistic and vindictive
D)disorganized
E)feeling negative emotions prior to the rape
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Page 23

Chapter 11: B: Psychopaths
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the five recommendations identified by Quayle (2008)to use when interviewing a psychopathic suspect.
Q2) Name and describe different study designs used involving twins and siblings when trying to isolate the effect of genes or environment on psychopathic traits.
Q3) Explain who Clifford Olson is and why he is famous.What changes have been made to Canadian legislation as a result of his request?
Q4) Discuss several of the reservations that have been raised concerning applying the label of psychopath to children and adults,and what research has found regarding these concerns.
Q5) Describe the cognitive and affective models of psychopathy in terms of the two predominant theories about the development of psychopathy.
Q6) Define psychopathy,Antisocial Personality Disorder,and sociopathy and give three examples of differences between these disorders.
Q7) Name and describe the most widely used assessment tool for measuring psychopathic traits in adults.
Q8) Identify the ten myths associated with psychopathy.
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Chapter 12: A: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40523
Sample Questions
Q1) Which diagnosis is often a precursor to antisocial personality disorder?
A)attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)oppositional defiant disorder
C)conduct disorder
D)depression
E)anxiety
Q2) Project Head Start and the Incredible Years Parenting Program are both examples of what type of intervention strategy?
A)family-oriented strategy
B)secondary intervention strategy
C)primary intervention strategy
D)community-wide strategy
E)tertiary intervention strategy
Q3) What disposition was available for delinquents under the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA)?
A)sentenced to an industrial school
B)adjournment without penalty
C)probation
D)foster care
E)all of the above
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Chapter 12: B: Assessment and Treatment of Young Offenders
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12 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40524
Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the key changes to the youth criminal justice system associated with the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA),the Young Offenders Act (YOA)and the Youth Criminal Justice Act (YCJA).
Q2) What is the relationship between youth gang involvement and delinquency? Discuss using research to back up your points.
Q3) Describe primary,secondary,and tertiary intervention strategies.Describe an example of each strategy.
Q4) Describe the difference between internalizing problems and externalizing problems.Provide examples of each and identify which is more difficult to treat.
Q5) Define "resilient" and identify four ways that protective factors are effective.
Q6) What is the difference between reactive aggression and proactive aggression? Which is related to an earlier onset of problems?
Q7) Name the three childhood psychiatric disorders that occur with frequency in young offenders.Provide two characteristics of each.
Q8) State three main objectives of the Youth Criminal Justice Act.
Page 26
Q9) Provide three criticisms of the Juvenile Delinquents Act (JDA).
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Chapter 13: A: Intimate Partner Violence
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40525
Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ is a set of cultural values and beliefs that support the dominance of women,and are thought to contribute to domestic violence.
A)The male-emotional funnel system
B)Observational learning
C)Patriarchy
D)Marxism
E)none of the above
Q2) The finding that male batterers are more likely to label many different emotional states as anger is called:
A)the male-emotional funnel system
B)observational learning
C)patriarchy
D)emotional congruence hypothesis
E)none of the above
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Chapter 13: B: Intimate Partner Violence
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40526
Sample Questions
Q1) Name and briefly describe the three-phase cycle of abuse proposed by Lenore Walker (1979).Discuss what happens at each phase.
Q2) According to Rosenfeld (2004),what variables are significantly related to violence amongst stalkers (relative to those who pose a low risk of behaving violently)? What two factors are specifically associated with the greatest risk for continuing stalking behaviour after release from prison?
Q3) Name and briefly describe the three components included in Albert Bandura's Social Learning Theory of intimate violence.
Q4) Identify and explain the two most common forms of intervention for male batterers.According to the meta-analysis conducted by Babcock,Green,and Robie (2004),which is the most effective in terms of recidivism?
Q5) The National Family Violence Prevention Programs developed by the Correctional Service of Canada contain 6 components.Name and briefly describe each of these,and discuss which component has been associated with the best treatment outcomes in research.
Q6) Name and briefly describe the levels that influence intimate violence in the nested ecological model proposed by Dutton (1995).Provide one example for each level.
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Page 28
Chapter 14: A: Sexual Offenders
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40527
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of child molester is most likely to use persuasion or entrapment to make a child feel obligated to participate in sexual acts?
A)Immature rapist
B)Regressed child molester
C)Fixated child molester
D)Sex-pressure molesters
E)Sex-force molesters
Q2) Kevin often has difficulty controlling his emotions and uses sex and rape as an emotional coping strategy.According to Ward and Siegert's (2002)pathway model of child sexual abuse,Kevin's behaviour reflects which pathway?
A)Reproductive strategy
B)Disinhibition
C)Resistance rejection
D)Childhood experiences
E)Emotional dysregulation
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29

Chapter 14: B: Sexual Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Finkelhor's (1984)theory of child molesting,what are the four preconditions in order for sexual abuse to occur?
Q2) Knight and Prentky (1990)developed the Revised Rapist Typology (MTC: R3)which consists of five primary subtypes of rapists.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's motivational differences.
Q3) Describe the two main components of relapse prevention programs aimed at sexual offenders.In addition,distinguish between the terms lapse,relapse,and abstinence violation effect in the context of relapse prevention programs.
Q4) Identify and discuss the five main myths associated with sexual assault discussed in your text,including facts that challenge these false beliefs.
Q5) Groth (1979)proposed a threefold rapist typology.Name and briefly define each of these types of rapists,focusing on each rapist's goals,the amount of force used,and the primary motivations.
Q6) List four characteristics of the fixated child molester and four characteristics of the regressed child molester.
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Chapter 15: A: Homicidal Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Concerning the difference between male and female serial murderers,which of the following statements is true?
A)Females are more likely to kill family members than males.
B)Females often kill to gain sexual gratification or control over their partners.
C)Males often kill with an accomplice in about half of the homicides they commit.
D)Males are more likely to be territorial and carry out all killings in one location or area.
E)Males are more likely to kill for money than females.
Q2) Mariticide refers to:
A)the killing of men.
B)the killing of women.
C)the killing of a wife by her husband.
D)the killing of a husband by his wife.
E)the killing of a married couple.
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Chapter 15: B: Homicidal Offenders
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four of the six key differences that were identified by Hickey (2006)between female and male serial murderers.
Q2) Identify the two types of familicide murderers described by Wilson,Daly,and Daniele (1995),and discuss the features of both.
Q3) Differentiate between filicide,familicide,femicide,and mariticide.
Q4) Distinguish between serial,mass,and spree murderers.Discuss the key elements that distinguish these types of multiple murderers from one another.
Q5) Describe the General Aggression Model (GAM),including the inputs,the internal states they influence,and behavioural outcomes.
Q6) Holmes and Holmes (1998)proposed a four-fold classification system of serial murderers,with one being a hedonistic serial murderer.What motivates a hedonistic serial murderer? List the three subtypes of the hedonistic serial murderer and distinguish between them.
Q7) Identify the three categories of juvenile homicide offenders outlined by Cornell,Benedek,and Benedek (1987)and describe the circumstances of their offending.Which type is the most common among youth killers?
Q8) Distinguish between a reactive and an instrumental homicide.
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