Applied Surgical Anatomy
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Surgical Anatomy focuses on the practical understanding of human anatomical structures as they relate to surgical procedures. The course emphasizes the spatial relationships between organs, vessels, nerves, and musculoskeletal systems, with a strong focus on clinically relevant landmarks and variations encountered in the operating theatre. Students will learn to interpret anatomical knowledge in the context of disease, injury, and therapeutic intervention, strengthening their ability to plan and execute safe, effective surgical techniques. The integration of cadaveric dissection, surgical imaging, and case-based learning prepares participants for both routine and complex surgical challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110
2
Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) Entry level surgical technologists can fill which of the following roles:
A)Scrub surgical technologist
B)Circulating surgical technologist
C)Second assisting surgical technologist
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following involves establishment of high standards, professional conduct, legal rights, and protection of the profession's integrity?
A)Recommended Standards of Practice
B)Position Statements
C)Code of Ethics
D)Guidelines
Answer: C
Q3) How many phases of patient care constitute surgical case management?
A)2 B)3
C)4
D)5
Answer: B
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Triangulation is a term used to describe the method used to provide instrument access to the anatomy during abdominal surgery. It is uniquely associated with which surgical incision?
A)Mid-epigastric transverse incision
B)Left paramedian incision
C)Thoracoabdominal incision
D)Laparoscopic port incisions
Answer: D
Q2) Carly Shelmire is a 5-year-old girl with a history of weight loss and stomach upset and pain after eating; she is also small for her age. Her pediatrician suspects celiac disease. Carly has arrived at the pediatric endoscopy unit for a procedure that is less invasive and will also have the benefit of spending the next few hours in the mall across from the hospital with her mom until the procedure is over. What is Carly's scheduled procedure?
A)GI manometry
B)Small bowel enteroscopy
C)Capsule endoscopy
D)Stretta procedure
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What technologic characteristic of robotic surgery provides a superior indication for robotic-assisted laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A)The surgeon controls two instruments plus a camera while an assistant suctions and retracts.
B)Bladeless robotic trocars minimize entry injury and inadvertent hemorrhage.
C)The magnified three-dimensional picture may reduce bile duct injuries during dissection.
D)Robotic stapler and suture devices promote intracorporeal anastomotic techniques.
Answer: C
Q2) The functional units of the liver are the lobules. The functional cells of the liver are the ______________ and they manufacture _______________.
A)Kupffer cells; phagocytes
B)sinusoid cells; lymphocytes
C)hepatocytes; bile
D)portal triad cells; ductal epithelium
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mesh-plug open hernia repair technique is indicated for which type(s) of hernias?
A)Femoral hernias
B)Indirect inguinal hernias
C)Direct inguinal hernias
D)All of the options are correct
Q2) Select the triad of the boundaries of the Hesselbach triangle.
A)Inguinal ligament, rectus abdominis muscle, deep epigastric vessels
B)Rectus abdominis muscle, Cooper ligament, aponeurosis
C)Scarpa's fascia, deep epigastric vessels, external oblique muscle
D)Inguinal ligament, inguinal canal, Cooper ligament
Q3) Hernia-entrapped viscera, typically loops of small intestine, will result in intestinal obstruction with resulting pain, vomiting, and distention. What is the appropriate descriptive diagnosis of this condition?
A)Nonreducible hernia
B)Incarcerated hernia
C)Torsion of the hernia sac
D)Gangrenous bowel
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6
Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When catheterizing the female patient, the urethra must be located. The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, urethra, clitoris, vaginal opening.
B)labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening, mons pubis.
C)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening.
D)labia majora, labia minora, urethra, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal opening.
Q2) Select the congenital anomaly that best reflects indications for fetal surgery.
A)Imperforate anus
B)Tracheoesophageal fistula
C)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D)Nonobstructive uropathy
Q3) Sally Hargraves is a 72-year-old patient with multicentric carcinoma in situ (CIS) of the vulva, without evidence of leukoplakia and pruritus. She has a history of prior papillomavirus infection. Select the most appropriate surgical option.
A)Radical vulvectomy with inguinal lymph node dissection
B)Skinning vulvectomy
C)CO<sub>2</sub> laser surface ablation of the vulvar lesions
D)Simple vulvectomy
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement about the prostate that best reflects its location, size, and weight.
A) The prostate sits adjacent to the urethra, is 2 to 4 cm in depth, and weighs about 25 g.
B) The prostate sits below the urethra, is 2 to 3 cm in depth, and weighs 25 to 30 g.
C) The prostate sits below the bladder, is 2 cm in depth, and weighs about 25 to 40 g.
D) The prostate sits below the base of the bladder, is 4 cm at the base, and weighs 20 to 30 g.
Q2) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate, which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A)Systemic disease
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Post-treatment cancer in remission
D)Active cancer
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8
Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid storm can occur in patients whose hyperthyroidism is partially controlled or untreated. Thyrotoxic crisis can be precipitated by a stressful event, such as surgery. An example of an action(s) the circulator and surgical technologist can take to reduce the risk of thyroid storm is:
A)administer potassium iodide before transfer to the OR.
B)provide a quiet, calm atmosphere and help the patient relax.
C)provide comfort measures, including a cooling blanket.
D)provide a quiet, calm atmosphere and help the patient relax, and provide comfort measures, including a cooling blanket.
Q2) Postoperative hoarseness, obstructed airway, or paralysis of the vocal cords is a serious complication of thyroid surgery. During surgery, care is taken to identify and protect which nerve?
A)Superior branch of the vagus nerve
B)Intrinsic cricothyroid nerve
C)Recurrent tracheoesophageal nerve
D)Recurrent laryngeal nerve
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Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ductal ectasia is a benign breast disorder that is difficult to distinguish from cancer, primarily because it presents with:
A)bilateral tenderness, mottled skin patterns of the breast, and fullness.
B)bilateral multicentric nodules and nipple discharge.
C)mottled skin patterns of the breast and edema.
D)a hard and irregular mass, nipple discharge, and enlarged axillary nodes.
Q2) Breast cancer is usually staged to measure the extent of the disease and to design a specific treatment plan, using the TNM (T = tumor; N = node; M = metastasis) classification system. Apply the description of a stage 0 carcinoma in situ to the appropriate disease description listed below.
A)Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) has abnormal cells lining the lobule and often becomes invasive.
B)Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is defined as abnormal cells lining the ductal system and is not invasive.
C)Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) has abnormal cells infiltrating the lobule and often does not become invasive.
D)Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) has abnormal cells lining the ductal system and is often invasive.
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Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cycloplegic drugs produce a similar effect on the pupil as mydriatic drugs, with one difference. From the options below, select the most appropriate statement about the effects of cycloplegics.
A)Anticholinergics dilate the pupil and inhibit focusing.
B)Epinephrine is added to balanced salt solution (BSS) to constrict sclera vessels and the pupil.
C)Homatropine hydrobromide (Isopto Homatropine) sustains the longest and most potent duration of dilation.
D)Cycloplegics and mydriatics have similar effects on the pupil; however, cycloplegics preserve the patient's ability to refract light and focus.
Q2) The extraocular muscles work in yoked pairs, with ocular movements generated by an increase in the tone of one set of muscles and a decrease in the tone of the antagonistic muscles. Of the two muscle types, how many are represented in each eye?
A)Two recti muscles and four oblique muscles
B)Two superior muscles and one lateral muscle
C)Four recti muscles and two oblique muscles
D)Two inferior muscles and two medial muscles
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11
Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When microlaryngoscopy is performed to remove polyps or nodules from the vocal cords, what important postoperative instruction must be provided to the patient during preparation for discharge?
A)Complete voice rest is important.
B)Coughing and deep-breathing exercises should be performed.
C)Clearing the throat to remove secretions is advised.
D)The patient should use a humidifier.
Q2) Patients scheduled for otologic surgery may have undergone evaluation of their hearing through audiograms to determine whether they have which of these diagnoses?
Select all answers that apply.
A)Normal hearing
B)Sensorineural hearing loss
C)Conductive hearing loss
D)Mixed loss of hearing from combination of conductive and sensorineural
E) None of the above
Q3) Of the three salivary glands, which one is the largest?
A)Sublingual
B)Submandibular
C)Zygomatic
D)Parotid
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin network formation
Q2) Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are used for the treatment of vertebral compression fractures attributable to osteoporosis or pathologic conditions. Bone cement is injected into the vertebral body to decrease back pain and prevent further vertebral body height loss. Equipment includes C-arm, radiolucent OR bed, and x-ray vests for staff as well as bone biopsy needles, vertebroplasty system, and cement injection system. An important consideration relevant to this interventional radiology-assisted procedure would be:
A)shield the patient with a lead apron, covering from thyroid to reproductive organs.
B)organize and have casting supplies available outside of the room.
C)position patient in prone body alignment with padding to prevent skin and nerve injury.
D)abduct both arms less than 90 degrees on attached armboards.
Q3) Callus formation
Q4) The rotator cuff consists of which group of muscles?
A)Deltoid, teres major, and teres minor
B)Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis
C)Latissimus dorsi, deltoid, and teres major
D)Supraspinatus, subscapularis, pectoralis major, and deltoid
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the anatomical bloodless plane that contains loose areolar tissue and permits mobility of the scalp?
A)Subarachnoid space
B)Galea aponeurotica
C)Subgaleal space
D)Diploe table
Q2) Which of the 12 cranial nerves is involved in Bell's palsy and may be damaged during parotidectomy procedures?
A)Third (III)
B)Fifth (V)
C)Seventh (VII)
D)Twelfth (XII)
Q3) Which of the following intracranial structures provides collateral blood flow and continuity of the circulation if any one of the four main channels is interrupted?
A)Choroid plexus
B)Circle of Willis
C)Cerebral aqueduct
D)Corpus callosum
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14
Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Facial fractures are classified according to a system developed by Rene Le Fort in the early 1900s. A fracture that starts at the nasal bones, crosses the frontal process of the maxilla and lacrimal bones, and extends through the orbital floor, infraorbital rim, and lateral maxillary sinus wall is known as a:
A)Le Fort I.
B)Le Fort II.
C)Le Fort III.
D)Le Fort IV.
Q2) The science of plastic and reconstructive surgery, which means to mold or create form and shape, improves appearance and body image through an understanding of: A)body geometry.
B)the anatomy and biology of tissue.
C)form and function.
D)body image.
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15
Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an endoscopic thoracic sympathectomy for hyperhidrosis, what action by the anesthesia provider ensures exposure and minimizes damage to the lung?
A)Positions the patient in the anterolateral position with an expandable axillary roll.
B)Decreases ventilatory pressure to decrease lung expansion during dissection.
C)Deflates the lung on recommendation of the surgeon during dissection and resection.
D)Decreases positive end-expiratory pressure until resection is complete.
Q2) Direct visualization of the mucosa of the trachea, the main bronchi and their openings, and most of the segmental bronchi may also include the removal of material for microscopic study, and is an integral part of the examination of patients with pulmonary symptoms such as persistent cough or wheezing, hemoptysis, obstruction, and abnormal roentgenographic changes. What diagnostic modality has been described?
A)Standard bronchoscopy
B)Flexible bronchoscopy
C)Rigid bronchoscopy
D)All bronchoscopic approaches apply
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an open femoropopliteal bypass with graft, an incision is made into the femoral artery with a #11 knife blade and extended with a Potts angulated scissors. What is the proper name of this surgical approach?
A)Potts arterial punch cut
B)Medial vasculotomy
C)Femoral arteriotomy
D)Popliteal arteriostomy
Q2) Identify the venous structure that prevents blood backflow.
A)Semilunar intimal folds
B)Coarctation segments
C)Pressure receptors
D)Venules
Q3) The Doppler transducer is the most widely used instrument for vascular study. What statement regarding a Doppler is true?
A)Doppler probes are expensive but can be steam sterilized.
B)The Doppler probe can provide five different forms of information.
C)Water-soluble gel is needed when the Doppler is used on intact skin.
D)The Doppler is valuable in detecting accurate findings in the presence of stenosis.
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17
Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Complete heart block and bradydysrhythmias are the most common indications for pacemaker implantation. A permanent pacemaker (pulse generator and electrodes) initiates atrial or ventricular contraction, or both. What therapy might be used for acute forms of heart block and dysrhythmias that occasionally occur during and after cardiac surgery?
A)Transvenous endocardial stimulation
B)A temporary pacemaker
C)Epicardial cardioversion
D)Resynchronization therapy
Q2) Select the diagnostic test that represents an invasive cardiac study.
A)Resting MUGA
B)Exercise MUGA
C)Cardiac function
D)Electrophysiology studies
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18
Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Improvements in instrumentation and the development of equipment in smaller sizes have resulted in the evolution of minimally invasive surgery (MIS) from that of a rapidly growing field to one of routine practice in the pediatric surgical arena. The advantages of MIS for the pediatric population include which true statement?
A)There is less risk for injury or complications with pneumoperitoneum insufflation.
B)Pediatric patients having MIS procedures have less prevalence of adhesion formation.
C)There is less possibility for abdominal injury from Foley catheter decompression.
D)MIS procedures on children do not require the use of thromboembolic devices.
Q2) Vascular access in pediatric patients may be established intraoperatively for short-term (weeks) or long-term (months, years) use. Select all the examples of a long-term (months, weeks) use vascular access catheter from the list below.
A)Central venous line
B)Implanted port
C)Peripherally inserted central venous catheter (PICC)
D)Power injection port
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency medical services system consists of trained prehospital personnel who arrive at the scene and perform definitive interventions designed to reduce morbidity and mortality. What is the primary role of the prehospital personnel? Select all that apply from the list below.
A)Scoop and run to the nearest hospital emergency department while performing ABCs.
B)Deliver the victim to the hospital before the end of the golden hour.
C)Determine the severity of injury and initiate medical treatment.
D)Identify the most appropriate facility to which to transport the victim.
Q2) What special consideration should be made when assessing a geriatric trauma patient before surgery?
A)They may have preexisting diseases and conditions.
B)They may take many prescription and nonprescription drugs.
C)They have decreased physiologic reserves.
D)All of the options can negatively impact the geriatric patient's perioperative experience.
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