Applied Radiologic Procedures
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Applied Radiologic Procedures is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with hands-on experience and in-depth understanding of diagnostic imaging techniques and protocols used in clinical settings. The course covers patient positioning, equipment operation, radiation safety principles, and the application of advanced imaging modalities such as computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and ultrasonography. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical competence, accurate image acquisition, and adherence to ethical and professional standards. Through laboratory practice and case studies, students gain the practical knowledge and critical-thinking skills necessary to perform radiologic procedures safely and effectively in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook merrills atlas of radiographic positioning and procedures 13th edition 3 volume set by bruce long
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Chapter 1: Preliminary Steps in Radiography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each radiology department must write age-specific competencies to meet the standards of the:
A) CDC.
B) ASRT.
C) ARRT.
D) JCAHO.
Answer: D
Q2) The equivalent term for optical density in digital imaging is:
A) contrast.
B) noise.
C) brightness.
D) window level.
Answer: C
Q3) The ability to visualize very small structures on a medical image is termed: A) contrast.
B) density.
C) distortion.
D) spatial resolution.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Compensating Filters
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Q1) Which of the following projections will always require a compensating filter to demonstrate all of the anatomy on one image?
1)AP shoulder
2)Lateral hip
3)Lateral C7-T1
A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B
Q2) Where are most compensating filters placed?
A) Under the patient
B) Directly on the patient
C) Between the x-ray tube and skin surface
D) Between the x-ray tube and collimator
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: General Anatomy and Radiographic Positioning
Terminology
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Q1) If the central ray enters the anterior body surface and exits the posterior body surface, the x-ray projection is termed:
A) PA.
B) AP.
C) lateral.
D) axiolateral.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following planes divides the body into superior or inferior portions?
A) Horizontal
B) Oblique
C) Midsagittal
D) Midcoronal
Answer: A
Q3) The stomach is positioned the highest in which type of body habitus?
A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hyposthenic
D) Hypersthenic
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Upper Limb
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Sample Questions
Q1) The head of the radius fits into a depression on the lateral aspect of the coronoid process of the ulna. This depression is called the:
A) radial fossa.
B) coronoid fossa.
C) radial notch.
D) trochlear notch.
Q2) For a lateral projection of the second through fifth digits, the central ray is directed:
A) 0 degrees.
B) 5 degrees caudad.
C) 5 degrees cephalad.
D) 2 to 5 degrees cephalad.
Q3) Where is the central ray directed for a lateral projection of the humerus?
A) Elbow joint
B) Shoulder joint
C) Glenoid cavity
D) Midpoint of the humerus
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6
Chapter 5: Shoulder Girdle
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Q1) Which of the following positions of the humerus are commonly used when performing an AP projection of the shoulder?
1)External rotation
2)Neutral rotation
3)Internal rotation
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) How far should the arm be abducted for an inferosuperior projection of the shoulder joint?
A) 15 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 90 degrees
Q3) The use of compensating filters is particularly useful when using:
A) small focal spot.
B) digital radiography systems.
C) detail film/screen IR.
D) less collimation.
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Chapter 6: Lower Limb
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Q1) Posteriorly, the femoral condyles are separated by a deep depression called the:
A) popliteal surface.
B) intercondylar eminence.
C) patellar surface.
D) intercondylar fossa.
Q2) How much should the leg be flexed for a lateral projection of the knee?
A) 10 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 10 to 20 degrees
D) 20 to 30 degrees
Q3) How many degrees of angulation are required to open the IP joint spaces of the toes on an AP projection?
A) 0
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
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Chapter 7: Pelvis and Upper Femora
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Sample Questions
Q1) The angle of the SI joints is _____ degrees relative to the midsagittal plane.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 25 to 30
D) 30 to 35
Q2) The internal oblique position of the AP oblique projection (Judet method) demonstrates the _____ column and _____ rim of acetabulum.
A) iliopubic; posterior
B) iliopubic; anterior
C) ilioischial; posterior
D) ilioischial; anterior
Q3) Where is the IR centered for an AP pelvis?
A) Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
B) At the level of the ASIS
C) At the level of the pubic symphysis
D) 2 inches below the iliac crest
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Chapter 8: Vertebral Column
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Q1) Which vertebra contains both an anterior and a posterior arch?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacral
Q2) The phase of respiration for a hyperflexion or hyperextension lateral cervical spine is:
A) shallow breathing.
B) suspended respiration.
C) full expiration.
D) full inspiration.
Q3) A fracture of the anterior arch of C2 due to hyperextension is termed a _____ fracture.
A) Pott's
B) Jefferson
C) hangman's
D) clay shoveler's
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Chapter 9: Bony Thorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the patient's hands be positioned for an upright lateral sternum?
A) Locked behind the back
B) Straight down at the side
C) Locked above the head
D) Back of the hands against the thighs
Q2) For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the highest level in the body?
A) Sthenic
B) Asthenic
C) Hyposthenic
D) Hypersthenic
Q3) The phase of respiration for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints is:
A) expiration.
B) inspiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) slow, shallow breathing.
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Chapter 10: Thoracic Viscera
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the patient position for a lateral projection done in the dorsal decubitus position?
A) Seated
B) Standing
C) Prone
D) Supine
Q2) Which of the following radiographs are usually taken on a patient who is suspected of having a small amount of free air in the pleural cavity?
1)AP, full inspiration
2)AP, full expiration
3)AP, R or L lateral decubitus
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) What is the name of the hooklike process on the last tracheal cartilage?
A) Carina
B) Larynx
C) Alveolus
D) Bronchiole
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Chapter 11: Long Bone Measurement
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Q1) Long bone measurement is most frequently used on the: A) spine.
B) upper limbs.
C) lower limbs.
D) femora only.
Q2) Which long bone measurement technique requires a special single, long image receptor and uses a long SID?
A) Scanogram
B) Orthoroentgenography
C) Teleoroentgenography
D) Direct digital radiography
Q3) Which anatomic landmark is used to localize the knee joint for lower limb long bone measurement?
A) 1 inch inferior to the tibial tuberosity
B) 1 inch superior to the tibial tuberosity
C) Just below the patellar apex
D) Just above the patellar apex
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Chapter 12: Contrast Arthrography
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Q1) The radiography examination in which a contrast medium is introduced into a joint space and radiographs are made of the joint is called:
A) arthrosis.
B) arthrography.
C) arthrogenesis.
D) arthroendoscopy.
Q2) Which of the following imaging modalities has not reduced the use of contrast arthrography?
A) Ultrasound
B) Computed tomography
C) Magnetic resonance imaging
D) Nuclear medicine
Q3) Which of the following is administered during arthrography before the injection of contrast?
A) Conscious sedation
B) Sterile saline
C) Local anesthetic
D) General anesthetic
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Chapter 13: Trauma Radiography
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Q1) Which of the following would be considered a trauma radiography guideline?
1)Remove all splints.
2)Do not move the patient unless necessary.
3)Obtain a minimum of two radiographs of each body part.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Signs of shock include all of the following except:
A) cool, clammy skin.
B) diaphoresis.
C) excessive thirst.
D) vomiting.
Q3) Which imaging modality has replaced conventional trauma skull radiography in most Level I trauma centers?
A) CT
B) MRI
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Angiography
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mouth and Salivary Glands
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Q1) Where does the parotid duct open into the oral cavity?
A) In the floor of the mouth next to the frenulum
B) In the floor of the mouth along the crest of the sublingual fold
C) Opposite the second upper molar
D) Opposite the second lower molar
Q2) Radiographic examination of the salivary glands using contrast medium is called:
A) parotitis.
B) angiography.
C) sialography.
D) sialostenosis.
Q3) The salivary glands produce how much saliva each day?
A) 0.25 L
B) 0.50 L
C) 1 L
D) 1.5 L
Q4) The hard palate is formed by the:
A) ethmoid and vomer.
B) ethmoid and palatine bone.
C) maxillae and vomer.
D) maxillae and palatine bone.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Anterior Part of Neck
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Q1) Which of the following serves as a passage for both food and air?
A) Pharynx
B) Larynx
C) Trachea
D) Bronchus
Q2) Which of the following lies in the anterior neck?
1)Thyroid gland
2)Parathyroid glands
3)Thymus gland
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) All of the following are techniques used during radiographic examination of the pharyngolaryngeal structures except:
A) swallowing.
B) phonation.
C) sneezing.
D) breathing.
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Chapter 16: Abdomen
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Q1) The space between the two layers of peritoneum is called the:
A) pleural cavity.
B) peritoneal cavity.
C) diaphragm.
D) abdominopelvic cavity.
Q2) One of the primary reasons a left lateral decubitus abdominal image is performed is to demonstrate:
A) foreign bodies.
B) the location of tumor masses.
C) intestinal gas.
D) air-fluid levels.
Q3) Where is the center of the IR positioned for an upright PA abdominal image?
A) L3
B) At the lower rib margin
C) At the iliac crests
D) 2 inches above the iliac crests
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Chapter 17: Digestive System: Alimentary Canal
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Q1) The degree of body rotation for the PA oblique projection (RAO or LAO) of the large intestine is _____ degrees.
A) 20
B) 30
C) 20 to 30
D) 35 to 45
Q2) Which projection of the colon best demonstrates the right colic flexure?
A) PA oblique, RAO
B) PA oblique, LAO
C) PA axial
D) AP axial
Q3) The wall of the small intestine is composed of how many coats?
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
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Chapter 18: Urinary System and Venipuncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiration phase for radiographic images made during intravenous urography is:
A) suspended inspiration.
B) suspended expiration.
C) suspended respiration.
D) slow breathing.
Q2) Where is the IR centered for all abdominal images taken during examinations of the urinary system?
A) L3
B) Iliac crests
C) 2 inches above the iliac crests
D) 2 inches below the iliac crests
Q3) Which plane is centered to the grid for a lateral projection during a cystogram?
A) The midcoronal plane
B) A coronal plane 1 inch anterior to the midcoronal plane
C) A coronal plane 2 inches anterior to the midcoronal plane
D) A coronal plane 2 inches posterior to the midcoronal plane
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which examination is performed 3 months after insertion of an IUD to determine effective uterine tube occlusion?
A) Hysterosalpingogram
B) Pelvic pneumography
C) Vaginography
D) Pelvic sonogram
Q2) Radiographic examination of the uterus and uterine tubes is termed:
A) vaginography.
B) hysterosalpingography.
C) pelvic pneumography.
D) pelvimetry.
Q3) Parts of the male reproductive system include the: 1)testes.
2)seminal vesicle.
3)bulbourethral glands.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 20: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses
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Q1) At which level will the central ray be placed for the tangential projection of the zygomatic arch?
A) Level of the EAM
B) Level of the TMJ
C) Level of the outer canthi
D) At a level 1 inch posterior to the outer canthi
Q2) Which of the following is placed perpendicular to the front edge of the IR for a lateral projection of the facial bones?
A) Mentomeatal line
B) Acanthiomeatal line
C) Orbitomeatal line
D) Infraorbitomeatal line
Q3) At what age are all of the sinuses completely developed?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 14
D) 18
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22
Chapter 21: Mammography
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Q1) Which projection of the breast is performed if the lateral breast tissue is not all seen on the craniocaudal projection?
A) Axillary
B) Caudocranial
C) Exaggerated craniocaudal
D) Craniocaudal (cleavage view)
Q2) For which projections of the breast would minimal compression be used?
A) All postsurgery projections
B) All magnification projections
C) CC and MLO with displaced implant
D) CC and MLO with full implant
Q3) The pectoral muscle is seen on the craniocaudal projection of the breast in what percentage of patients?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 75%
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Q1) Where is the contrast medium injected for a myelogram?
A) Brachial vein
B) Femoral artery
C) L1-L2 interspace
D) L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace
Q2) The largest part of the brain is the:
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) brainstem.
D) medulla oblongata.
Q3) The position of the patient's head during myelography should be in _____ to prevent contrast from passing into the cerebral ventricles.
A) lateral flexion
B) acute extension
C) forward flexion
D) acute flexion
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Chapter 23: Vascular, Cardiac, and Interventional Radiography
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Q1) Potential complications of angiographic procedures include:
1)bleeding at the puncture site.
2)stroke.
3)death.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) The therapeutic radiologic procedure designed to dilate or reopen stenotic or occluded areas within a vessel is termed:
A) "gamma knife" therapy.
B) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty.
C) interventional radiology.
D) transcatheter embolization.
Q3) Which of the following pumps deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary artery?
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Superior vena cava
25
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Chapter 24: Pediatric Imaging
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Q1) Which of the following can protect children from unnecessary radiation exposure?
1)Appropriate use of filters
2)Precise collimation
3)Gonad shielding always
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Which types of fractures have high specificity for nonaccidental trauma to a child?
1)Spiral fractures
2)Scapular fractures
3)Posterior rib fractures
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
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Chapter 25: Geriatric Radiography
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Q1) A common fracture site for an elderly person with osteoporosis is the:
A) first metatarsal.
B) distal radius.
C) humeral head.
D) olecranon process.
Q2) Elder abuse occurs in many forms, such as sexual, emotional, exploitive, or physical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be common sites for decubitus ulcers?
1)Heel
2)Knee
3)Elbow
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q4) Aging and disease are considered synonymous.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Mobile Radiography
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Q1) During mobile radiography, shielding should be used on:
1)children.
2)exams in which the gonads are near the primary beam.
3)patients of reproductive age.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3
Q2) Most grids used for mobile radiography have ratios of:
A) 6:1 or 8:1.
B) 8:1 or 10:1.
C) 10:1 or 12:1.
D) 12:1 or 16:1.
Q3) The single most effective means of radiation protection during mobile radiography is:
A) distance.
B) exposure time.
C) choice of kVp.
D) use of a nongrid technique.
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Chapter 27: Surgical Radiography
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Q1) Less frequently used x-ray equipment in the OR should be cleaned:
A) every 3 days.
B) at least once a week.
C) every 2 weeks.
D) once a month.
Q2) The sterile field is the:
A) whole surgical room.
B) area around the surgeon.
C) area prepared for the patient.
D) surgical incision.
Q3) Reaching over a sterile field is allowed by:
A) both sterile and nonsterile team members.
B) only nonsterile team members.
C) only sterile team members.
D) only the surgeon.
Q4) What should be done if the sterile field is compromised?
A) Determine if the area is important.
B) Don't tell anyone.
C) Call your manager.
D) Tell OR staff immediately.
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Chapter 29: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The most significant geometric factor that contributes to spatial resolution is:
A) detector aperture width.
B) FOV.
C) slice thickness.
D) x-ray beam energy.
Q2) The most common reporting method of dose reporting on the present scanners is:
A) Multiple Scan Average Dose (MSAD).
B) Computed Tomography Dose Index (CTDI).
C) Dose-length product (DLP).
D) Computed Tomography Dose Index Volume (CTDIvol).
Q3) The CT system's ability to freeze any motion of a scanned object is termed:
A) detector quantum efficiency.
B) temporal resolution.
C) reconstruction algorithm.
D) spatial resolution.
Q4) All of the following are methods of 3D reconstruction techniques in CT except:
A) volume rendering.
B) maximum intensity projection.
C) shaded surface display.
D) pixel-voxel reregistration.
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Chapter 30: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
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Q1) Generally MRI is considered safe; however, there are some hazards, which would include:
A) rapid echo spin.
B) local burns from wires on a patient.
C) headaches from the magnetic field.
D) spontaneous random molecular motion.
Q2) Gadolinium is a contrast agent used for MRI because it has paramagnetic properties. Compared with iodine contrast, it is:
A) excreted through the bowel.
B) more toxic and has more side effects.
C) less toxic and has fewer side effects.
D) similar in all aspects.
Q3) Spin lattice relaxation (T1) is the release of energy by excited nuclei:
A) as a result of interaction among themselves.
B) to their general environment.
C) according to their precessional frequency.
D) in relation to their resonant frequency.
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Chapter 31: Diagnostic Ultrasound
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Q1) Sometimes examinations in the abdominal cavity are difficult to perform because of:
A) air or gas in the gastrointestinal tract.
B) bony anatomy.
C) tissue differences.
D) too much fluid.
Q2) Sound is attenuated by:
A) soft tissue.
B) fluid-filled structures.
C) most bony structures.
D) solid organs.
Q3) Ultrasonic sound waves are:
A) poorly transmitted by liquids.
B) poorly transmitted by solids.
C) reflected at tissue interfaces.
D) constant in speed.
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Chapter 32: Nuclear Medicine
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Q1) One desirable characteristic of a radiopharmaceutical is:
A) long physical half-life in days.
B) millisecond effective half-life.
C) easily absorbed in surrounding tissues.
D) primary photon energy between 100 and 140 keV.
Q2) An array of photomultiplier tubes (PMTs) is located:
A) in front of the crystal.
B) to the back of the crystal.
C) after the pulse height analyzer.
D) after the collimator.
Q3) The crystal used in gamma cameras is made of:
A) sodium iodide.
B) cesium-activated iodide.
C) thallium-activated sodium iodide.
D) lithium fluoride.
Q4) Half-life (T \(1 / 2\) ) is described as the time required for:
A) half the nuclide to leave the body.
B) half the nuclide to disappear.
C) the nuclide to decay to half its original activity.
D) the original activity to increase by one half.
Page 33
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Chapter 33: Bone Densitometry
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Q1) Accuracy in bone densitometry relates to the ability of the system to:
A) measure the true value of an object.
B) reproduce the same results in repeat measurements of the same object.
C) reflect the bone measurement by the scanner software.
D) measure the variability of the spread of data values around the mean.
Q2) Which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A) Daily physical activity
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Low body weight
D) Low calcium intake
Q3) The most common osteoporotic fracture is found in the:
A) hips.
B) femurs.
C) vertebrae.
D) ankles.
Q4) Radiation dose for DXA scans is:
A) twice as much as for a diagnostic lumbar x-ray.
B) half as much as for a lumbar CT examination.
C) similar to natural background radiation.
D) similar to a diagnostic hand x-ray.
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Chapter 34: Radiation Oncology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24128
Sample Questions
Q1) Intensity-modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) uses:
A) radioactive isotopes.
B) multileaf collimators.
C) cerrobend blocks.
D) permanent implants.
Q2) Tomotherapy combines the principles of:
1)helical CT.
2)stereotaxis.
3)6 MV linear accelerator.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, 3
Q3) _____ is done to relieve symptoms, not to cure.
A) Fractionation
B) Differentiation
C) Palliation
D) Conformal radiation
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