
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Applied Psychology explores the use of psychological principles, theories, and research to solve real-world problems and optimize human functioning in various settings such as workplaces, schools, hospitals, and communities. This course examines how knowledge from core psychological domains including cognitive, developmental, social, and clinical psychology can be employed to address issues such as mental health, organizational behavior, educational practices, and health promotion. Students will learn about practical applications, ethical considerations, and the design and evaluation of interventions aimed at improving individual and societal well-being.
Recommended Textbook Psychology in Action 11th Edition by Karen Huffman
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Q1) Which of the following is a mental process?
A) Remembering
B) Speaking
C) Reading
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) The belief that the unconscious mind has an influence on one's behavior is part of what theory of personality?
A) Psychobiological
B) Psychosocial
C) Psychoanalytic
D) Psychobehavioral
Answer: C
Q3) A "Freudian slip" is said to reveal:
A) a person's true, unconscious desires and conflicts
B) too much of a woman's leg under her dress
C) a person who isn't very aware of his or her physical presence in the world
D) a person who needs to change his or her personality
Answer: A
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Q1) Stimulating the _____ increases aggressive behavior.
A) amygdala
B) cerebellum
C) fornix
D) medulla
Answer: A
Q2) The subarea of psychology that studies applying the principles of evolution to explain behavioral and mental processes is called ____.
A) biopsychocognition
B) behavioral biology
C) evolutionary psychology
D) biobehaviorism
Answer: C
Q3) What is the main function of our nervous system?
A) To convey information
B) To keep us safe
C) To regulate our heartbeat and respiration
D) To help us communicate with others
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics associated with Type-A personality?
A) Time urgency
B) Patience
C) Competition
D) Hostility
Answer: B
Q2) Simon is experiencing chest pain due to an insufficient blood supply to the heart. Saul's coronary arteries are nearly blocked, which is slowing blood flow to his heart. Sean has just experienced the death of some of his heart muscle tissue. What do these men have in common?
A) Angina
B) Atherosclerosis
C) Heart attack
D) Heart disease
Answer: D
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Q1) The Gestalt principle of contiguity has to do with _______.
A) time
B) volume
C) unification
D) closure
Q2) Briefly describe and explain the processes and function of olfaction and gustation.
Q3) As a flock of Canadian geese flies overhead in its familiar "V" formation, the geese are seen as _____ and the sky as _____.
A) continuity; closure
B) a sensation; perception
C) figure; ground
D) ground; figure
Q4) The fluid-filled structure that contains receptors for hearing is the _____.
A) hammer
B) cochlea
C) vestibular canals
D) anvil
Q5) Why is sensory adaptation helpful for us? Give examples.
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Q1) Researchers have documented all EXCEPT which of the following hazards of sleep deprivation?
A) Reduced cortisol levels
B) Reduced concentration and motivation
C) Increased irritability
D) Reduced motor skills
Q2) Which of the following is (are) true?
A) There are no common themes in men and women's dreams.
B) Men and women share many common dream themes.
C) There are some cultural differences in dream themes.
D) B and C only
Q3) Marijuana has properties of _____.
A) depressants
B) narcotics
C) hallucinogens
D) all of these options
Q4) Describe the characteristics associated with meditation, and discuss the major physiological processes that can be affected by this alternate state of consciousness. Write a brief description of one method of entering a meditative state.
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134 Verified Questions
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Q1) According to Skinner's principles of instrumental conditioning, reinforcement and punishment must come immediately _____the response.
A) after
B) before
C) at the same time as
D) before, during, or after
Q2) Research showing that animals classically conditioned to salivate to a tone that is always paired with food make a stronger conditioned response than animals conditioned to salivate to a tone that is sometimes paired with food. This is evidence that which factor is most important in classical conditioning?
A) The time between the CS and US
B) The similarity between the CS and US
C) The extent to which the CS predicts the US
D) All of the above
Q3) When you take aspirin to remove a headache, the removal of pain is_____.
A) ineffective
B) secondary reinforcement
C) positive reinforcement
D) negative reinforcement
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Q1) Which of the following are ways that people can improve their elaborative rehearsal skills?
A) Expand on the information
B) Question the new information
C) Find meaning in the information
D) All of the above
Q2) The three steps in memory processing are _____.
A) encoding, storage, retrieval
B) translations, maintenance, transmittal
C) dictation, capturing, regurgitation
D) encrypting, sensory retention, neural processing
Q3) Ralph fell through the floor of his tree house and found himself in the hospital. He has no memory of his hospital stay, which suggests he has developed _____ amnesia.
A) retroactive
B) proactive
C) anterograde
D) retrograde
Q4) Describe the encoding, storage, and retrieval approach to memory, using a computer analogy.
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Q1) When confronted with a problem, persistence in using strategies that have worked in the past rather than new ones is called _____.
A) mental rigidity
B) a mental set
C) functional rigidity
D) a functional set
Q2) The cause(s) of intellectual disability is(are) _____.
A) genetic abnormalities
B) environmental factors
C) many times unknown
D) all of these options
Q3) Which of the following is the BEST example of telegraphic speech?
A) "I hungry"
B) 'Baba" for baby
C) "Daddy"
D) "Mama"
Q4) Define creativity and describe the three elements of creative thinking. Describe Sternberg and Lubart's investment theory of creativity and the six resources they considered necessary for creative thinking.
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Q1) The use of _____ during pregnancy is most associated with premature birth, low-birth-weight infants, and fetal death.
A) nicotine
B) caffeine
C) aspirin
D) all of these options
Q2) Which of the following results suggest that infants can perform perceptual categorization?
A) 6-month-old infants will kick a mobile shown to them 2 weeks earlier even if the mobile is a different color
B) 6-month-old infants will not kick a mobile shown to them 2 weeks if the mobile is a different color
C) 6-month-old infants can group fruits and vegetables
D) None of the above
Q3) The first motor movements a newborn exhibits are _____.
A) unimportant for survival
B) innate and voluntary
C) involuntary reflexes elicited by external stimuli
D) all of these options
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Q1) What is the most common treatment for ADHD?
A) Valium
B) Risperdal
C) Lithium
D) Ritalin
Q2) Consider the following statement: "Cheating is wrong." Describe the moral reasoning someone at each of Kohlberg's stages would use for why this statement is morally correct.
Q3) Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?
A) Preconventional level: fear of punishment
B) Conventional level: other-centered
C) Postconventional: personal standards for right and wrong
D) All of these options are correctly matched
Q4) An infant's inborn disposition is known as _____.
A) personality
B) reflexes
C) temperament
D) traits
Q5) Describe the four stages of grief people experience after the loss of a relationship, then list three strategies for coping with grief.
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Q1) Pamela's immune system has been destroyed, leaving her body unable to fight disease and vulnerable to a variety of opportunistic infections and cancers. Pamela has _____, which started as _____.
A) HIV; an AIDS infection
B) AIDS; an HIV infection
C) bacterial AIDS; a viral infection
D) HIV; a bacterial AIDS infection
Q2) The part of the nervous system that responds reflexively to stroking or touching of the genitals is the _____.
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebral cortex
C) peripheral nervous system
D) spinal cord
Q3) The female gonads are the _____; the male gonads are the _____.
A) vagina; penis
B) ovaries; testes
C) uterus; seminal vesicle
D) all of these options
Q4) Define HIV and AIDS, and describe the progression of the illness from HIV+ status to death.
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Q1) Assume that you want to perform well on this test, but you feel anxious about your ability to do so. In this case, your desire to perform well is related to your _____ state, while your anxiety is related to your _____ state.
A) conscious; unconscious
B) unconscious; conscious
C) motivational; emotional
D) emotional; motivational
Q2) Hunger, arousal, and achievement are three basic _____.
A) emotions
B) feelings
C) responses
D) motives
Q3) In the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, the thalamus sends simultaneous messages to the _____.
A) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system
B) endocrine system and muscular system
C) cortex and autonomic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system and sympathetic nervous system
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Q1) State the social/cognitive perspective on personality, and describe the concepts proposed by the two most influential theorists in this field.
Q2) Pedro was just diagnosed with testicular cancer. Rather than deal with his feelings about this, he searches the Internet for information, academically discusses the disorder with his family and friends, and endlessly debates the pros and cons of treatment with his doctor. This is an example of the defense mechanism called _____.
A) intellectualization
B) rationalization
C) sublimation
D) denial
Q3) ""'m going to take this candy because I want it NOW!" said the _____. "But, stealing is wrong," said the _____. "Let's ask mom if she'll advance our allowance so we can buy it today," said the _____.
A) superego; id; ego
B) ego; id; superego
C) id; ego; superego
D) id; superego; ego
Q4) Describe the five-factor model of personality traits.
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Q1) This is the current term for serious mental disorders characterized by a loss of contact with reality and extreme mental disruptions.
A) Psychosis
B) Neurosis
C) Hysteria
D) Insanity
Q2) This is a thought disturbance characterized by mistaken beliefs that are maintained in spite of strong evidence to the contrary.
A) Cognitive disruption
B) False premise
C) Delusion
D) Illusion
Q3) Many people think that a person with a mental disorder is weak, dangerous, and incurable. Explain why these are not common characteristics in those with mental disorders, and offer your thoughts about why such myths came into being. Why might these myths be maintained?
Q4) Describe the characteristics and causes of antisocial and borderline personality disorders.
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Q1) Define cognitive therapy, and contrast Ellis's rational-emotive behavior therapy with Beck's cognitive-behavior therapy.
Q2) This is a gradual process of extinguishing a learned fear response by associating a hierarchy of fear-evoking stimuli with deep relaxation.
A) Hierarchical training
B) Systematic desensitization
C) Aversion conditioning
D) The relaxation response
Q3) Cognitive therapists assume that problem behaviors and emotions are caused by _____.
A) faulty thought processes and beliefs
B) negative self-image
C) incongruent belief systems
D) lack of self-discipline
Q4) Describe criticisms and successes of each of the following types of therapies: psychoanalytic, cognitive, and humanistic. State the overall effectiveness of all therapy. If you were to want or need therapy, discuss why you would choose one type over other types of therapy.
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Q1) Physical attractiveness is important in attraction across cultures because it _____.
A) is so rare
B) indicates good health, good genes, and high fertility
C) is our most obvious characteristic
D) all of these options
Q2) Romantic love has been found in _____ cultures.
A) mostly Western
B) few agricultural
C) individualistic, but not in collectivist
D) 147 out of 166
Q3) Sometimes people conform because they like and admire a group, and want to be like them. This is the _____ explanation for conformity.
A) need for approval
B) reciprocity of liking
C) reference group
D) foot-in-the-door
Q4) Define what a role is, then describe Zimbardo's classic prison study, the behavior of both guards and prisoners, and what was learned from the study.
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Q1) The theory that a match between a person's personality and occupation results in increased job satisfaction is known as _____.
A) expectancy theory
B) the halo effect
C) participative decision making
D) personality-job fit theory
Q2) The Hawthorne effect was discovered in a study of the relationship between _____.
A) managers and workers
B) lighting and worker efficiency
C) Army recruits and mental ability
D) product placement and sales
Q3) A Theory _____ manger believes that employees dislike work, are lazy, avoid responsibility, and must be prodded to perform.
A) DUD
B) X
C) BAD
D) LAZ-Y
Q4) Describe the five bases of leadership power, providing an example of each.
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Q1) _____ is having to choose between two or more competing goals.
A) Conflict
B) Controversy
C) Persuasion
D) Nonconformity
Q2) According to the textbook, the most important key to effective communication may be ______.
A) knowing your audience
B) providing feedback
C) active listening
D) empathic listening
Q3) A form of nonverbal communication that uses gestures and body language is ______.
A) proxemics
B) kinesics
C) psycholinguistics
D) paralanguage
Q4) Describe and provide an example of each of the eight elements important for all communication.
Q5) Describe five causes of workplace conflict and five ways to resolve it.
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