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Applied Physics for Radiography explores the fundamental principles of physics as they relate to the field of medical imaging. This course covers topics such as the nature of X-rays, electromagnetic radiation, image formation, interaction of radiation with matter, and radiation safety. Students will develop an understanding of the technical aspects of radiographic equipment, including the operation of X-ray machines and digital imaging systems. Emphasizing practical applications, the course bridges theoretical physics concepts with their role in image production, quality control, and patient care in clinical radiography settings.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Radiographic Physics and Imaging 1st Edition by James Johnston
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Q1) Kilograms-meters per second (kg-m/s)is the unit of measure of:
A) velocity
B) momentum
C) force
D) acceleration
Answer: B
Q2) When 3 kilograms of frozen water is melted,it produces 3 kilograms of water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Mass does not change with gravitational force.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The ____________ is the SI unit equivalent to the rem.
A) rad
B) roentgen
C) Becquerel
D) sievert
Answer: D
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Q1) The number of protons and neutrons in the atom's nucleus is the:
A) atomic number
B) atomic mass number
C) element
D) compound
Answer: B
Q2) Atoms with different atomic numbers but the same atomic mass numbers are:
A) isotopes
B) isotones
C) isobars
D) isomers
Answer: C
Q3) The fundamental component of the atom that has the smallest mass is the:
A) electron
B) neutron
C) proton
D) none of the above
Answer: A
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Q1) Half-life is:
A) the rate at which a radioactive material decays
B) half the time it takes for all the radioactivity to decay
C) the rate at which particulate radiation is emitted from a radioactive atom's nucleus
D) none of the above
Answer: A
Q2) The electromagnetic radiation used in tanning beds is:
A) visible light
B) infrared light
C) microwaves
D) ultraviolet light
Answer: D
Q3) An ion pair is:
A) an electron and proton
B) a proton and neutron
C) an atom and the electron that was removed from it
D) an atom with an extra electron and an atom that is missing an electron
Answer: C
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Q1) The study of stationary electric charges is:
A) electromagnetism
B) electrodynamics
C) electronics
D) electrostatics
Q2) The rate of flow of electrons passing through the x-ray tube during an exposure is:
A) mA
B) tube current
C) filament current
D) A and B
Q3) A general purpose radiographic tube typically has ____ filament(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Q4) To produce x-rays,a cloud of electrons are necessary and the cathode must have a strong positive charge.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The electrons in the tube current travel:
A) at the speed of light
B) approximately half the speed of light
C) approximately one-fourth the speed of light
D) none of the above
Q2) The relationship between the actual focal spot size,effective focal spot size,and anode target angle is called:
A) the anode heel effect
B) the line-focus principle
C) Roentgen's principle
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following occurs first during x-ray production?
A) thermionic emission
B) voltage is transformed to kilovoltage
C) current passes through the rheostat
D) kilovoltage is applied to anode and cathode
Q4) Prepping the rotor but not making an exposure on a regular basis is unrelated to tube damage or failure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If kVp is doubled,the quantity of radiation increases by a factor of:
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
Q2) Normal HVL of diagnostic x-ray beams is:
A) 1-2 mm Al
B) 3-5 mm Al
C) 6-10 mm Al
D) 15-25 mm Al
Q3) The x-ray beam found after leaving the patient is called the:
A) remnant beam
B) primary beam
C) patient beam
D) none of the above
Q4) The total number of x-ray photons in a beam is referred to as the:
A) x-ray quality
B) x-ray number
C) x-ray quantity
D) x-ray beam
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Q1) Secondary x-ray photons are the result of:
A) Compton interactions
B) Thompson scattering
C) photoelectric interactions
D) A and C
Q2) Photoelectric interactions are more likely to occur in:
A) air
B) soft tissue
C) bone
D) they occur equally in all types of tissues
Q3) Protective apparel is often made of lead because it:
A) is very heavy
B) can be made very thick
C) is inexpensive
D) has a high atomic number
Q4) The greater the angle of deflection of a Compton scatter photon:
A) the more likely it will interact with the image receptor
B) the lower the energy of the photon
C) the higher the energy of the photon
D) the more likely it will become part of the remnant radiation
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Q1) Matter per unit volume defines:
A) tissue thickness
B) tissue density
C) tissue composition
D) tissue attenuation
Q2) The secondary photon that results from the photoelectric interaction:
A) has the same energy as the incident photon
B) has high energy
C) has low energy
D) typically leaves the patient as scatter radiation
Q3) Photoelectric interactions occur only at the lower end of the diagnostic range of photon energies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The probability of a Compton interaction is _______________ in bone than soft tissue.
A) less
B) the same
C) higher
D) none of the above
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Q1) On the sensitometric curve,optical densities are measured on the _________ and the intensity of radiation on the ______________.
A) top;bottom
B) bottom;top
C) x-axis;y-axis
D) y-axis;x-axis
Q2) The number of bits that determine the gray level that can be assigned to a pixel is the:
A) matrix
B) FOV
C) pixel
D) bit depth
Q3) An area of anatomy that has low subject contrast is the:
A) chest
B) breast
C) elbow
D) knee
Q4) Radiographic contrast should change based on the anatomy being imaged.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which type of body habitus is the thickest,requiring higher exposure factors?
A) asthenic
B) hypersthenic
C) sthenic
D) hyposthenic
Q2) Too little remnant radiation caused by low kVp results in a digital image in which:
A) the image brightness appears high (light)
B) the image brightness appears appropriate
C) quantum noise is visible
D) B and C
Q3) If 10 mAs produce appropriate film density at 40 inches SID,how much mAs is needed at 48 inches SID to maintain that amount of film density?
A) 7 mAs
B) 8 mAs
C) 12 mAs
D) 14 mAs
Q4) Tube angulation may result in elongation and reduced exposure to the IR.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The formula for the grid conversion factor is:
A) GCF = mAs without grid / mAs with grid
B) GCF = mAs with grid - mAs without grid
C) GCF = mAs with grid / mAs without grid
D) GCF = mAs without grid - mAs with grid
Q2) For radiographic procedures,scatter radiation is primarily the result of:
A) photoelectric interaction
B) pair production
C) Compton interaction
D) classical scattering
Q3) The unrestricted primary x-ray beam is:
A) round
B) oval
C) square
D) rectangular
Q4) Beam-restricting devices are located just above the tube housing.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The power rating of the light bulb in a darkroom safelight is not very important as long as the right safelight filter is used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) IRs with detail screens:
A) should be used in the bucky
B) should be used on the tabletop
C) should be used with a grid
D) all of the above
Q3) Following the detection of the light released from the phosphor layer,the signal is sent to the _____________ to allow the computer to process the data.
A) digital-to-analog converter (DAC)
B) analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
C) light-to-computer device (LTC)
D) none of the above
Q4) With digital imaging,mAs does not control image brightness.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Today's AEC system is most likely use a(n):
A) ionization chamber
B) Geiger counter
C) phototimer
D) none of the above
Q2) The reason to have a back-up time is to:
A) protect the patient from excessive exposure
B) make sure the right mAs is used
C) keep the tube from excessive heat-loading
D) A and C
Q3) When a patient for a unilateral AP hip image has a metal prosthesis covering the detector,how will the bony anatomy appear with film imaging?
A) white
B) light
C) appropriate
D) dark
Q4) Phototimer AEC devices convert the radiation to light energy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The ratio of the number of light photons at the output phosphor as compared with the input phosphor is the:
A) brightness gain
B) flux gain
C) minification gain
D) Conversion Factor
Q2) The newest fluoroscopy systems use a flat-panel detector:
A) to record the spot images during fluoroscopy
B) to record the overhead images following fluoroscopy
C) in place of the image intensifier
D) in addition to the image intensifier
Q3) ABC is very similar to AEC in that it controls the length of the exposure to maintain consistent image brightness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) This part of the image intensifier is made of cesium and antimony compounds.
A) input phosphor
B) output phosphor
C) photocathode
D) electrostatic focusing lenses

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Q1) When a panorex examination is being performed,the x-ray tube and image receptor move:
A) from side to side
B) around the patient
C) up and down
D) very little
Q2) The arc created when the x-ray beam is on during tomography is the:
A) tomographic amplitude
B) exposure amplitude
C) fulcrum
D) focal plane
Q3) Challenges when performing mobile radiographic imaging include:
A) having to use SIDs other than 40 inches or 72 inches
B) difficulty minimizing off-level grid cutoff
C) patient condition
D) all of the above
Q4) The battery-powered mobile radiographic unit produces consistent radiation output,similar to a single-phase generator.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A tissue that attenuates fewer x-rays than water has a CT number:
A) 0
B) greater than 0
C) less than 0
D) unable to determine unless more is known
Q2) This is the most common reconstruction algorithm used in CT.
A) array processor
B) algorithm
C) filtered back projection
D) image data
Q3) The high-frequency generator used in CT scanning has minimal voltage ripple,allowing:
A) higher kVp to be used
B) higher mA to be used
C) longer exposures
D) more consistent energy x-ray photons
Q4) Hounsfield unit is another name for the CT number.
A)True
B)False
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