Applied Pharmacology in Dentistry
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Pharmacology in Dentistry focuses on the principles and practical applications of pharmacological agents relevant to dental practice. The course covers the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and interactions of drugs commonly used in dentistry, including local anesthetics, antibiotics, analgesics, anti-inflammatory agents, and medications for management of systemic diseases with oral implications. Students learn to safely prescribe and manage medications, assess patient-specific considerations, and understand the legal and ethical aspects of pharmacological therapy in dental care. Case studies and clinical scenarios are used to enhance decision-making skills essential for effective patient management.
Recommended Textbook
Applied Pharmacology for the Dental Hygienist 8th Edition by Elena Bablenis Haveles
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Chapter 1: Information Sources, Regulatory Agencies, Drug
Legislation, and Prescription Writing
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Q1) Which federal regulatory body regulates the trade practices of drug companies and prohibits false advertising of foods,nonprescription drugs,and cosmetics?
A)FDA
B)FTC
C)DEA
D)OBRA
Answer: B
Q2) Each is an advantage of electronic and fax prescribing except one.Which is the exception?
A)It reduces the likelihood of errors in reading handwritten prescriptions.
B)It reduces the patient's ability to tamper with a prescription.
C)There is no record of the prescription in the patient's record.
D)Prescriptions can be faxed to the pharmacy.
Answer: C
Q3) Refill instructions are found in the body of a prescription.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Drug Action and Handling
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Q1) Drugs,after undergoing phase I drug metabolism,are more likely to be distributed to fat tissue.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the therapeutic index (TI)of a drug?
A)A drug with a large TI is more dangerous than a drug with a small TI.
B)The formula for TI is ED50/LD50.
C)ED50 is 50% of the effective clinical dose.
D)TI is the ratio of the median lethal dose to the median effective dose.
Answer: D
Q3) If a drug displays zero-order elimination kinetics
A)elimination increases as the dose of the drug is increased.
B)a constant amount is eliminated per unit time.
C)the drug is not eliminated and is retained in the body.
D)the elimination of the drug cannot be predicted mathematically.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Adverse Reactions
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Q1) A drug effect that is neither predictable nor dose related is called a
A)therapeutic effect.
B)toxic reaction.
C)side effect.
D)drug allergy.
E)Both B and D are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) The greater the therapeutic index is,the greater the toxicity will be.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Drug allergy and a side effect are two examples of dose-related responses.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Tetracycline,nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs),and the benzodiazepines are safe to administer to a pregnant patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Autonomic Drugs
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Q1) Sympathomimetic agents should be used with caution in patients with (1)angina, (2)hypertension, (3)hypothyroidism.
A)1,2,3
B)1,2
C)1,3
D)2,3
Q2) Sarin was used on a subway in Japan to poison riders.Sarin is a(n)
A)sympathomimetic.
B)anticholinergic.
C)anticholinesterase.
D)sympatholytic.
Q3) Tertiary anticholinergic agents are _____ soluble and _____ penetrate the brain.
A)lipid soluble;easily
B)lipid soluble;do not
C)not lipid soluble;easily
D)not lipid soluble;do not
Q4) Pathways innervating smooth muscles and glands are considered afferent pathways.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Nonopioid Non-Narcoticanalgesics
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Q1) Which of the following NSAIDs is the drug of choice for treating a nursing woman?
A)Naproxen
B)Diflunisal
C)Ibuprofen
D)Fenoprofen
Q2) The ability of aspirin to reduce fever results from its inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis in the A)medulla.
B)hypothalamus.
C)pons.
D)cerebellum.
Q3) Which of the following agents would be least useful in alleviating fever?
A)Piroxicam
B)Acetaminophen
C)Diflunisal
D)Probenecid
E)Aspirin
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Chapter 6: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics and Antagonists
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Q1) Children should not receive codeine after a tonsillectomy due to an increased risk for A)central nervous system depression.
B)respiratory depression.
C)postural hypotension.
D)constipation.
Q2) Enkephalins,endorphins,and dynorphins probably function as _____,although their exact function has not been elucidated.
A)prostaglandins
B)neurotransmitters
C)sedative-hypnotics
D)enzymes
Q3) Which of the following opioids is used primarily in the treatment of opioid addiction?
A)Propoxyphene
B)Meperidine
C)Hydromorphone
D)Methadone
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Chapter 7: Antiinfective Agents
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning infection and host resistance?
A)Host resistance should be considered as having both local and systemic components.
B)If a patient has diabetes mellitus it can reduce the resistance to an infection.
C)Drugs such as steroids are capable of enhancing a patient's immune response.
D)Both A and B
E)Both B and C
Q2) Large doses of cephalosporins often produce a Coombs reaction,which means
A)high blood pressure is exacerbated.
B)the immune mechanism is attacking the patient's own red blood cells.
C)degeneration of neural glial cells occurs.
D)nephritis of the kidneys occurs.
Q3) A cephalosporin would be most closely related to which of the following agents?
A)Penicillin VK
B)Clarithromycin
C)Ciprofloxacin
D)Doxycycline
E)Clindamycin
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Chapter 8: Antifungal and Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Nystatin is used for both the treatment and the prevention of _____ in susceptible cases.
A)blastomycosis
B)histoplasmosis
C)oral candidiasis
D)tinea
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning clotrimazole?
A)It is available in the form of an aqueous suspension for oral use.
B)It is the only antifungal for oral use that does not contain sugar.
C)Clotrimazole has been reported to produce elevated liver enzyme levels in approximately 85% of patients.
D)Systemic clotrimazole should not be administered to a pregnant woman.
Q3) A dental hygienist should receive postexposure prophylaxis within __ hours following exposure to the HIV virus?
A)24
B)48
C)72
D)96
E)Zero hours because the medication must be administered prior to exposure.
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Chapter 9: Local Anesthetics
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Q1) Which of the following local anesthetics is safest to use for dental treatment for a pregnant woman?
A)Mepivacaine
B)Lidocaine
C)Articaine
D)Bupivacaine
Q2) Patients with uncontrolled high blood pressure,hyperthyroidism,angina pectoris,and cardiac arrhythmias and those who have had a myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accident in the past _____ should make an appointment for elective dental treatment only after their medical condition is under control.
A)6 weeks
B)3 months
C)6 months
D)12 months
Q3) Which of the following agents is the most common topical local anesthetic?
A)Lidocaine
B)Benzocaine
C)Tetracaine
D)Dyclonine
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Chapter 10: General Anesthetics
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Q1) Nitrous oxide,as used in the dental office,maintains the patient in stage _____ of Guedel's system of stages and planes.
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)IV
Q2) Features of nitrous oxide administration include each of the following except one.Which is the exception?
A)Nitrous oxide has low solubility in blood.
B)Nitrous oxide alone is a good choice for a general anesthetic.
C)Nitrous oxide has a quick onset.
D)The patient will recover quickly following termination of administration of nitrous oxide.
Q3) The best indicator of the degree of sedation under nitrous oxide is
A)response to a painful stimulus.
B)percent nitrous oxide being delivered.
C)response to questions.
D)muscle tone.
E)eye movements.
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Chapter 11: Antianxiety Agents
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Q1) ______ is an intravenously (IV)administered benzodiazepine that is used for conscious sedation in oral health care.
A)Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
B)Lorazepam (Ativan)
C)Triazolam (Halcion)
D)Midazolam (Versed)
Q2) Each of the following is true of melatonin except one.Which is the exception?
A)Melatonin is a naturally occurring hormone.
B)Melatonin is a scheduled drug that requires a prescription.
C)Melatonin may cause daytime sedation.
D)Melatonin has been shown to have no benefit over a placebo in several clinical trials.
Q3) Which of the following agents may decrease the effectiveness of benzodiazepines?
A)Tobacco
B)Omeprazole
C)Valproic acid
D)Fluoxetine
Q4) Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in wide-angle glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drugs for the Treatment of Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which agent is contraindicated in pregnant women due to the risk of teratogenicity?
A)Methyldopa
B)Labetalol
C)Captopril
D)Nifedipine
Q2) a-Methyldopa (Aldomet)and clonidine (Catapres [TTS])act in the central nervous system (CNS)as
A)alpha-adrenergic blocking agents.
B)alpha-adrenergic agonists.
C)beta-adrenergic blocking agents.
D)beta-blockers with alpha-blocking activity.
Q3) The use of nitroglycerin (NTG)is contraindicated if sildenafil (Viagra)has been administered within 24 hours.This is because the NTG-sildenafil combination can precipitate a hypertensive crisis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
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Chapter 13: Drugs for the Treatment of Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following gastrointestinal drugs is a phenothiazine used to treat nausea?
A)Mineral oil
B)Loperamide
C)Lansoprazole
D)Prochlorperazine
E)Ranitidine
Q2) Which histamine-2 (H )-blocking agent has been associated with dry mouth and taste alterations?
A)Cimetidine (Tagamet)
B)Ranitidine (Zantac)
C)Famotidine (Pepcid)
D)Meclizine (Bonine)
Q3) Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)carry a greater risk of diarrhea associated with A)Helicobacter pylori.
B)Clostridium difficile.
C)Escherichia coli.
D)Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans.
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Chapter 14: Drugs for the Treatment of Seizure Disorders
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Q1) Which agent has a narrow therapeutic index because its metabolism is a saturable process?
A)Gabapentin
B)Phenobarbital
C)Phenytoin
D)Valproic acid
E)Clonazepam
Q2) Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for the treatment of _____ seizures.
A)generalized tonic-clonic
B)generalized absence
C)partial simple
D)partial complex
Q3) Which antiepileptic agent is commonly prescribed for trigeminal neuralgia?
A)Lamotrigine
B)Phenytoin
C)Gabapentin
D)Carbamazepine
E)Valproic acid
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Chapter 15: Drugs for the Treatment of Central Nervous System
Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following are true of second-generation antipsychotics in contrast to first-generation antipsychotics? (Select all that apply. )
A)Second-generation antipsychotics are used more frequently than first-generation antipsychotics.
B)Second-generation antipsychotics are better tolerated than first-generation antipsychotics.
C)Second-generation antipsychotics are more effective against the negative effects of psychosis than first-generation antipsychotics.
D)Second-generation antipsychotics are primarily dopamine antagonists,whereas first-generation antipsychotics were dopamine agonists.
Q2) The amount of any drug prescribed for a depressed patient should not exceed a _____-day supply.
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Chapter 16: Adrenocorticosteroids
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Q1) Adrenal crisis is a rare event in dentistry.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glucocorticoids cause an increase in the circulating levels of which of the following white blood cells?
A)T lymphocytes
B)B lymphocytes
C)Neutrophils
D)Basophils
E)Monocytes
Q3) Which of the following conditions may be exacerbated by corticosteroid use? (Select all that apply. )
A)Hypertension
B)Hypotension
C)Congestive heart failure
D)Glaucoma
E)Osteoporosis
Q4) Corticosteroids increase resistance to infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Drugs for the Treatment of Respiratory
Disorders and Allergic Rhinitis
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Q1) The drug of first choice for emphysema is
A)albuterol.
B)zileuton.
C)theophylline.
D)beclomethasone.
E)ipratropium.
Q2) Ipratropium bromide should be used with caution in patients with glaucoma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Montelukast is generally well tolerated.It is more effective than H -antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids.
A)Both parts of the statement are true.
B)Both parts of the statement are false.
C)The first part of the statement is true;the second part is false.
D)The first part of the statement is false;the second part is true.
Q4) Which respiratory disease is characterized by destruction of lung alveoli?
A)Asthma
B)Upper respiratory tract infection
C)Chronic bronchitis
D)Emphysema
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Chapter 18: Drugs for the Treatment of Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) Insulin is usually administered
A)orally.
B)by subcutaneous injection.
C)by intramuscular injection.
D)by intravenous injection.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning oral surgical procedures for the adult patient with diabetes?
A)The procedure should be performed before breakfast,and the patient should have taken regular diabetes medication.
B)The procedures should be performed 1 1/2 to 2 hours after the patient has eaten a normal breakfast and has taken regular antidiabetes medication.
C)The procedure should be performed after lunch,and the patient has taken regular diabetes medication.
D)The procedure should be performed after lunch,and the patient should skip regular diabetes medication.
Q3) Insulin is a pancreatic hormone that promotes insulin storage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Drugs for the Treatment of Other Endocrine Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following agents is categorized as a schedule III controlled substance?
A)Medroxyprogesterone
B)Tamoxifen
C)RU-486
D)Nandrolone
E)Danazol
Q2) Which of the following statements is characteristic of diffuse toxic goiter?
A)It is also known as Plummer disease.
B)It is characterized by a diffusely enlarged,highly vascular thyroid gland.
C)It occurs primarily in older patients and usually arises from long-standing nontoxic goiter.
D)Both A and B are characteristics.
E)Both B and C are characteristics.
Q3) No treatment should be initiated for any patient with a visible goiter,exophthalmos,or a history of taking antithyroid drugs until approval is obtained from the patient's physician.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Antineoplastic Drugs
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Q1) Neurologic adverse effects are prevalent in all of the following antineoplastic agents except which one?
A)Asparaginase (Elspar)
B)Methotrexate (Amethopterin)
C)Vincristine (Oncovin)
D)Procarbazine (Matulane)
Q2) Bisphosphonates work to reduce osteoporosis by
A)stimulating hemopoiesis.
B)stimulating osteoblasts to produce new bone.
C)binding to osteoclasts.
D)remodeling cortical into cancellous bone.
E)increasing blood flow within the osteon.
Q3) Antineoplastic agents will have the greatest negative effect on which of the following tissues?
A)Integumentary tissue
B)Lungs,heart,and liver
C)Gastrointestinal tract,bone marrow,and hair follicles
D)Sensory tissue such as those for smell,sight,and hearing
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Chapter 21: Emergency Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following choices would be the correct sequence for administration of emergency drugs for anaphylactic shock: (1)albuterol, (2)parenteral epinephrine, (3)intravenous corticosteroids?
A)1,2,3
B)1,3,2
C)2,1,3
D)2,3,1
E)3,1,2
Q2) Which of the following drugs is the agent of choice for treating a drug-induced laryngospasm?
A)Aminophylline
B)Succinylcholine
C)Parenteral epinephrine
D)Diazepam
Q3) Which should be administered first for a patient having an asthma attack?
A)Aminophylline
B)Corticosteroids
C) -Agonist
D)Epinephrine
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Chapter 22: Pregnancy and Breast Feeding
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Q1) Metronidazole
A)should only be used during the second trimester of pregnancy.
B)is expressly contraindicated for the nursing mother.
C)has been shown to produce birth defects in animals.
D)Both A and B are correct.
E)Both B and C are correct.
Q2) Which operating personnel who are exposed to trace amounts of nitrous oxide have significantly higher incidence of spontaneous abortion and birth defects in their children?
A)Both women and men.
B)Women but not men.
C)Men but not women.
D)Pregnant women only.
Q3) Which of the following antiinfective agents should be used for dental infections during pregnancy for susceptible anaerobic infections not sensitive to penicillin?
A)Amoxicillin
B)Cephalosporins
C)Clindamycin
D)Metronidazole
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Chapter 23: Substance Use Disorders
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Q1) At which stage of ethyl alcohol withdrawal are hallucinations most prevalent?
A)Stage 1
B)Stage 2
C)Stage 3
D)Ethyl alcohol withdrawal is not associated with hallucinations
Q2) Advanced periodontal disease,jaundice,and palmar erythema are signs of
A)smokeless tobacco use.
B)Wernicke encephalopathy.
C)advanced alcoholic liver disease.
D)chronic nitrous oxide use.
Q3) Disulfiram is an agent used in the treatment of A)ethyl alcohol withdrawal.
B)opioid withdrawal.
C)barbiturate overdose.
D)alcohol use disorder.
Q4) How many Americans who drink have alcohol use disorder?
A)700,000 thousand
B)7 million
C)17 million
D)27 million
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Naturalherbal Products and Dietary Supplements
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Q1) Which is true of eugenol?
A)Used in mouth rinses containing thymol,eucalyptol,and menthol.
B)Extract of aloe vera plant leaf used to treat aphthous ulcers.
C)Historically used in dentistry as a topical analgesic for dental pain.
D)Herbal-based product that significantly reduces plaque and gingivitis.
E)Naturally occurring sweetener with an anticariogenic effect.
Q2) The FDA introduced Good Manufacturing Practice standards to ensure that dietary supplements are free of adulterants,contaminants,and impurities and that the labels accurately depict the contents of the package.This testing in mandatory and is enforced by the FDA.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)The first statement is true,the second is false.
D)The first statement is false,the second is true.
Q3) Herbal products in the United States are regulated by which governmental agency?
A)Federal Trade Commission
B)Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
C)Environmental Protection Agency
D)Dietary Supplement and Education Act (DSHEA)
E)US Pharmacopeia
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Oral Conditions and Their Treatment
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Q1) Actinic lip changes,if keratotic,are best treated with A)sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 15 or greater.
B)acyclovir.
C)5-fluorouracil (5-FU).
D)topical steroids.
E)diphenhydramine.
Q2) Cheilosis can result from deficiencies of vitamins
A)B and .
B) and B .
C)B and B .
D)B and B .
Q3) Which subtype of lichen planus is characterized by a white,lacelike pattern intersecting to form a reticular pattern?
A)Striated
B)Plaque-like
C)Erosive
D)Hypertrophic
E)Idiopathic
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Chapter 26: Hygiene-Related Oral Disorders
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Q1) According to the American Dental Association (ADA),which of the following groups of adults should receive professionally applied fluoride products?
A)All adults
B)Only adults with active caries in the last 3 years with risk factors for caries
C)Only adults with active caries in the last 3 years without risk factors for caries
D)Only adults without active caries in the last 3 years without risk factors for caries
E)No adults
Q2) Which of the following statements is true concerning fluoride toxicity?
A)Both acute and chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
B)Acute but not chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
C)Chronic but not acute toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
D)Neither acute nor chronic toxicity can occur with fluoride use.
Q3) Which of the following treatments is the most effective in reducing gingivitis?
A)Sodium 2% fluoride
B)APF 1.23%
C)0.4% SnF and 1.1% NaF in APF
D)0.3% triclosan
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