Applied Pathophysiology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Applied Pathophysiology explores the physiological mechanisms underlying disease processes and their clinical manifestations. This course emphasizes the integration of basic scientific principles with clinical practice, focusing on how disruptions in normal body functions lead to the signs and symptoms of various illnesses. Students will analyze case studies, review current research, and apply pathophysiological concepts to real-world scenarios to enhance their understanding of disease progression, diagnosis, and management. The course is designed for students in health-related fields seeking a deeper understanding of the connection between cellular and systemic pathology and patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/176 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2430
Sample Questions
Q1) The term pathogenesis refers to:
A) the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue changes involved in the disease process.
B) the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a malignant neoplasm.
C) the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to a chronic disease.
D) the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis.
Answer: A
Q2) Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
A) To predict the prognosis
B) To determine treatments
C) To develop preventive measures
D) To develop morbidity statistics
Answer: C
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2431
Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body:
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 4%
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
A) Dehydration
B) Third-spacing
C) Hypovolemia
D) Water retention
Answer: B
Q3) Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because:
A) permeability of nerve membranes increases.
B) insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction.
C) low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction.
D) excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle.
Answer: B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2432
Sample Questions
Q1) The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
A) undesirable side effects.
B) development of resistant microbes.
C) an allergic response.
D) proper metabolism and excretion of drug.
Answer: B
Q2) At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Circulating blood
D) Lymphoid tissue
Answer: A
Q3) Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is likely lost before reaching the site of action?
A) Oral
B) Intramuscular
C) Sublingual
D) Intravenous
Answer: A
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Pain
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2433
Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as:
A) neuropathic pain.
B) central pain.
C) neurogenic pain.
D) referred pain.
Q2) Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating:
A) severe pain.
B) pain caused by inflammation.
C) intracranial pain.
D) pain in young infants.
Q3) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A) tension
B) sinus
C) migraine
D) intracranial
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2434
Sample Questions
Q1) Scar tissue consists primarily of:
A) granulation tissue.
B) epithelial cells.
C) collagen fibers.
D) new capillaries and smooth muscle fibers.
Q2) Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include:
1) COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs).
2) glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone).
3) ibuprofen (NSAID).
4) acetaminophen.
5) aspirin (ASA).
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 5
D) 1, 4, 5
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Infection
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2435
Sample Questions
Q1) How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?
A) It interferes with cell-wall synthesis.
B) It blocks protein synthesis.
C) It increases cell membrane permeability.
D) It prevents DNA replication.
Q2) What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
A) Immunosuppression
B) Bone marrow damage
C) Presence of bacterial infection
D) An allergic or autoimmune reaction
Q3) How do antiviral drugs act?
A) They interfere with cell wall development.
B) They decrease cell membrane permeability.
C) They destroy new, immature viral particles.
D) They reduce the rate of viral replication.
Q4) What does "bacteremia" refer to?
A) Numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
B) Uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
C) Multiple infections, primary and secondary, established in the body
D) Microbes present in the blood
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Immunity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2436
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
A) activate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
B) destroy antigens quickly.
C) increase the rate of mitosis in tumors.
D) cause immediate pain.
Q2) Humoral immunity is mediated by:
A) natural killer cells.
B) T lymphocytes (T cells).
C) B lymphocytes (B cells).
D) neutrophils.
Q3) HIV infection impairs:
A) humoral immunity.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
D) neither type of immunity.
Q4) Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
A) Active natural
B) Active artificial
C) Passive natural
D) Passive artificial
Page 9
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2437
Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes virus is usually spread by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) saliva during an exacerbation and for a short time thereafter.
B) contact with the fluid in the lesion.
C) contaminated blood.
D) autoinoculation by fingers.
Q2) Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
A) Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
B) Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
C) Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
D) Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques
Q3) Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi's sarcoma?
A) Excessive sun exposure
B) Increased number of nevi
C) Increase in immunosuppressed individuals
D) Presence of more seborrheic keratoses
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
10
Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2438
Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common outcome of fibrosis, calcification, and fusion of the spine in ankylosing spondylitis?
A) Damage to the spinal nerves and loss of function
B) Frequent fractures of long bones
C) Impaired heart function
D) Rigidity, postural changes, and osteoporosis
Q2) All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:
A) weight-bearing activity.
B) a sedentary lifestyle.
C) long-term intake of glucocorticoids.
D) calcium deficit.
Q3) Paget's disease often leads to which of the following?
A) A reduction in bone fractures
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Disintegration of joint cartilage
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2439
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies to the leukemias?
A) Chronic leukemias are more common in older people.
B) AML is the most common childhood leukemia.
C) Exposure to chemicals is not considered a predisposing factor.
D) Lymphoid tissue produces abnormal leukocytes.
Q2) Predisposing factors to leukemia commonly include:
A) exposure to radiation.
B) certain fungal and protozoal infections.
C) familial tendency.
D) cigarette smoking.
Q3) Thalassemia is caused by:
A) a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin.
B) an abnormal form of heme.
C) abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron.
D) overproduction of hypochromic, microcytic RBCs.
Q4) Von Willebrand disease is caused by:
A) defective erythrocytes that become deformed in shape, causing occlusions.
B) excessive lymphocytes that do not mature.
C) absence of a clotting factor that helps platelets clump and stick.
D) a lack of hemoglobin due to iron deficiency.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 12
Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2440
Sample Questions
Q1) A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
A) Castleman disease.
B) hyperlymphatic disease.
C) hypolymphatic disease.
D) Ann Arbor disease.
Q2) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
Q3) Elephantiasis, caused by the obstruction of lymphatic vessels by parasitic worms, is an example of the condition known as:
A) plasma cell myeloma.
B) diverticulitis.
C) lymphedema.
D) obstructive vessel disorder.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2441
Sample Questions
Q1) An atheroma develops from:
A) a torn arterial wall and blood clots.
B) accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred.
C) thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins.
D) repeated vasospasms.
Q2) Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
A) Delayed conduction through the AV node blocks ventricular stimulation.
B) Insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium.
C) The ventricles contract before the atria.
D) Parasympathetic stimulation depresses the SA node.
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
A) Incompetent tricuspid heart valve
B) Chronic pulmonary disease
C) Infarction in the right atrium
D) Uncontrolled essential hypertension
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2442
Sample Questions
Q1) A group of common chronic respiratory disorders characterized by tissue degeneration and respiratory obstruction is called:
A) mesothelioma.
B) COPD.
C) CF.
D) MD.
Q2) Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
A) insufficient surfactant production.
B) incomplete expiration shortly after birth.
C) retention of fluid in the lungs after birth.
D) immature neural control of respirations.
Q3) How does a large pleural effusion lead to atelectasis?
A) The cohesion between the pleural membranes is disrupted.
B) There is decreased intrapleural pressure.
C) The mediastinal contents compress the affected side.
D) Pleuritic pain causes very shallow breathing.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2443
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is NOT part of the criteria for a declaration of "brain death"?
A) No activity on EEG
B) Absence of all reflexes
C) No spontaneous respirations
D) Presence of any head injury
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
A) Remissions and exacerbations
B) Predictable pattern of progression in all patients
C) Onset in men and women more than 60 years of age
D) Full recovery of function during remissions
Q3) Which of the following are typical early signs of Alzheimer's disease?
1) Behavioral changes
2) Reduced ability to reason and problem solve
3) Decreased verbal responses
4) Urinary incontinence
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2444
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
A) Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells
B) Edema of the cornea causing blurred vision
C) Cupping of the optic disc with damage to the optic nerve
D) Damage to the fovea centralis
Q2) Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the:
A) pupils are constricted.
B) pupils are dilated.
C) lens changes shape.
D) excess vitreous humor forms.
Q3) Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals?
A) Sudden total loss of hearing
B) Tinnitus
C) Severe pain in ear
D) Fluid exudate draining from ear
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 17
Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2445
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may cause goiter?
1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Hypothyroidism
3) Lack of iodine in the diet
4) Pheochromocytoma
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics?
A) Necrosis and gangrene in the feet and legs
B) Lack of glucose to the cells in the feet and legs
C) Severe dehydration in the tissues
D) Elevated blood glucose increasing blood viscosity
Q3) Which of the following indicates hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
A) Deep, rapid respirations
B) Flushed dry skin and mucosa
C) Thirst and oliguria
D) Staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2446
Sample Questions
Q1) At what stage of alcoholic liver disease can the damage be reversed?
A) It can never be reversed
B) Initial stage
C) Alcoholic hepatitis stage
D) End-stage cirrhosis
Q2) What is/are common location(s) for oral cancer?
A) Floor of the mouth or tongue borders
B) Mucosa lining the cheeks
C) Hard and soft palate
D) Gingivae near the teeth
Q3) Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?
A) Amylase
B) Peptidase
C) Lactase
D) Trypsin
Q4) Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves:
A) periodic flow of gastric contents into the esophagus.
B) constant flow of intestinal and gastric contents into the esophagus.
C) spasmodic and violent vomiting of gastric contents.
D) violent spasming of the esophagus, causing choking.
Page 19
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2447
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicate a decreased GFR?
A) Increased serum urea and decreased serum bicarbonate
B) Urine with low specific gravity and dark color
C) Albuminuria and hematuria
D) Hyponatremia and hypokalemia
Q2) Which of the following is a significant indicator of renal insufficiency?
A) Urine with pH of 5
B) Increased serum urea and creatinine
C) Urine with high specific gravity
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q3) In a case of acute pyelonephritis, what is the cause of flank pain?
A) Inflammation, causing ischemia in the tubules
B) Inflammation, stretching the renal capsule
C) Increasing glomerular permeability, creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney
D) Microbes irritating the tissues
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2448
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
A) Bone
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Testes
Q2) Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
A) it does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation.
B) vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis.
C) premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes.
D) hormone therapy is ineffective.
Q3) Infertility in women may result from:
A) endometriosis.
B) hormonal imbalances.
C) A and B
D) Neither A nor B
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2449
Sample Questions
Q1) What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called?
A) Carcinomas
B) Sarcomas
C) Melanomas
D) Fibromas
Q2) Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
1) reduce the adverse effects.
2) guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed.
3) be effective in more phases of the cell cycle.
4) totally block the mitotic stage.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 3, 4
Q3) Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
A) The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
B) Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
C) The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
D) The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2450
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to the effects of exposure to harmful substances during embryonic life?
1) During the first two weeks, exposure will usually cause death of the embryo.
2) Organs or body structures may be altered by exposure during the first two months.
3) The effects of exposure depend on the stage of development at the time of exposure.
4) Metabolic abnormalities usually follow exposure to teratogens.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q2) The term proteomics refers to the study of:
A) DNA sequences with unknown functions.
B) gene sequences in individual chromosomes.
C) the proteins resulting from activation of specific genes.
D) identifying certain base pairs in DNA.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2451
Sample Questions
Q1) Diagnosis of pregnancy is confirmed through elevated serum levels of:
A) hCG.
B) testosterone.
C) AFP.
D) aldosterone.
Q2) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Proteinuria, edema, and weight gain
B) Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Blood clots forming in the legs
Q3) Adolescent pregnancy is often considered high risk because of:
A) inadequate prenatal care.
B) poor nutrition and lack of vitamin supplements.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) All of the above
Q4) Gestational diabetes in the mother usually results in:
A) normal maternal blood glucose levels until the last month of pregnancy.
B) no further indication of diabetes mellitus following delivery.
C) delivery of a high birth-weight infant.
D) no additional complications for the infant or mother.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2452
Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious mononucleosis is characterized by all EXCEPT:
A) sore throat, fever, fatigue, malaise, and rash on trunk.
B) enlarged lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy) and spleen (splenomegaly).
C) increased occurrence in infants and young children.
D) the presence of atypical T lymphocytes.
Q2) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Weight loss
C) Dental caries and esophagitis
D) Amenorrhea
Q3) The biological changes associated with adolescence are stimulated primarily by:
A) the peripheral nervous system.
B) the thalamus.
C) increased secretion of estrogen and progesterone.
D) the pituitary gland.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2453
Sample Questions
Q1) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
Q2) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) decreased estrogen secretion.
B) genetic factors.
C) sedentary lifestyle.
D) decreased parathyroid hormone.
Q3) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
26
Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2454
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following applies/apply to orthostatic hypotension associated with prolonged immobility?
A) Sudden changes in body position from supine to upright may cause low blood pressure.
B) Venous return and cardiac output are decreased with immobility.
C) All cardiovascular reflexes are lost with prolonged immobility.
D) A and B
Q2) Inactive muscle quickly loses strength as it becomes _____________.
A) less elastic.
B) atrophied.
C) contracted.
D) spastic.
Q3) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A) Contracture
B) Muscle hypertrophy
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Increased osteoblastic activity
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 27
Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2455
Sample Questions
Q1) Improved function of the heart and brain during a stress response results from:
1) glycogenesis.
2) bronchodilation.
3) vasoconstriction in the skin and viscera.
4) decreased metabolic rate.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 3, 4
Q2) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q3) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is: A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 28
Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2456
Sample Questions
Q1) What is/are the typical effect(s) of psychedelic substances?
A) Drowsiness and euphoria
B) Marked stimulation of the central nervous system (CNS)
C) Lethargy and decreased metabolic rate
D) Altered perception and awareness as well as hallucinations
Q2) Which of the following is/are NOT a common sign(s) of withdrawal?
A) Irritability
B) Respiratory depression
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Psychotic episodes and convulsions
E) Tremors
Q3) Which of the following drugs causes headache and vomiting when an alcoholic ingests small amounts of alcohol?
A) Methadone
B) Diazepam
C) Disulfiram
D) Naloxone
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2457
Sample Questions
Q1) Institutions frequently have outbreaks of infection associated with poultry products contaminated by:
A) E. coli
B) Salmonella
C) Listeria
D) HIV
Q2) A common illness for tourists in developing countries is "traveler's diarrhea," often caused by:
A) Salmonella
B) Shigella
C) E. coli
D) Listeria
Q3) During the development of hyperthermia, the stage of heat stroke is marked by:
A) shock and coma.
B) hypervolemia and headache.
C) diaphoresis and decreasing body temperature.
D) dizziness, fainting, and headache.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 30