Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition
Textbook Exam Questions
Applied Nutrition explores the practical application of nutritional science to promote health and manage disease across various populations. This course covers the fundamentals of nutrient metabolism, dietary assessment, and the development and implementation of nutrition interventions. Students examine the role of nutrition in different life stages, community and public health settings, and in the management of chronic diseases. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based strategies for dietary planning, behavior change, and evaluating the impact of nutritional programs, preparing students to address real-world challenges in individual and population health.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
2040 Verified Questions
2040 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are advising a client on components of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. Which of the following would you include in your advice?
A) Increase intake of vegetables and fruits.
B) Decrease intake of milk and milk products to two cups per day.
C) Decrease intake of whole grains and other complex carbohydrates.
D) Increase intake of trans fats and saturated fats.
E) Avoid all carbohydrates.
Answer: A
Q2) For comparison purposes, three ounces of meat can be visualized as being about the size of:
A) a 9-volt battery.
B) a CD case.
C) a deck of cards.
D) a paperback book.
E) a golf ball.
Answer: C
Q3) Bioactive food components, or phytochemicals, may increase the risk of cancer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chylomicrons are composed of:
A) phospholipid, cholesterol, and lymph
B) proteins, triglyceride, and water-soluble vitamins
C) triglyceride, phospholipid, and proteins
D) water-soluble vitamins, phospholipid, and cholesterol
E) fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins, and proteins
Answer: C
Q2) Which organ does not contribute juices during digestion?
A) salivary glands
B) small intestine
C) pancreas
D) esophagus
E) stomach
Answer: D
Q3) Bacteria in the colon protect people from some infections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following foods would you recommend to someone interested in lowering his or her blood cholesterol level?
A) wheat bread
B) almonds
C) strawberries
D) pork
E) oatmeal
Answer: E
Q2) Soluble fiber can help reduce blood cholesterol levels by:
A) converting cholesterol into vitamin D.
B) binding cholesterol and carrying it out of the body with the feces.
C) reducing bile excretion.
D) preventing the production of bile.
E) slowing glucose absorption.
Answer: B
Q3) Most dietary fiber provides little or no energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that fat substitutes are always effective at promoting weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main route for excretion of cholesterol from the body is:
A) via the lungs.
B) in the urine.
C) in the feces.
D) through the skin.
E) no excretion; it is all reused by the body.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of an omega-6 fatty acid?
A) EPA.
B) linolenic acid.
C) DHA.
D) cholesterol.
E) linoleic acid.
Q4) Discuss the potential benefits and risks of taking fish oil supplements.
Q5) What are trans-fatty acids, and how do they influence health?
Q6) What is meant by saturation of a fatty acid?
Q7) Describe the various functions of fat in the human body.
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) You encourage your vegetarian clients to eat iron-rich foods and foods that are rich in which of the following to increase iron absorption?
A) vitamin C
B) calcium
C) phytic acid
D) fiber
E) phosphorous
Q2) Essential amino acids:
A) are found mostly in plant foods.
B) cannot be synthesized by the body.
C) cannot be supplied by the diet.
D) are the best source of energy for the body.
E) are also referred to as dispensable amino acids.
Q3) The best choice for a dessert that will provide high-quality protein is:
A) milk pudding.
B) fruit gelatin.
C) sherbet.
D) apple pie.
E) peanut butter cookie.
Q4) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within a day of beginning a fast, most of the body's stores of which of the following are depleted?
A) glycogen
B) amino acids
C) fatty acids
D) glycerol
E) protein
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to occur among young competitive athletes with disordered eating?
A) hyperlipidemia
B) fluid retention
C) increased bone density
D) stress fractures
E) weight gain
Q3) Fasting results in:
A) degradation of lean body tissue.
B) safe, quick, and easy loss of fat tissue.
C) immediate loss of energy and mental alertness.
D) cleansing of toxins from the body.
E) improved resistance to infections.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding weight loss?
A) Laxatives promote weight loss.
B) Hot baths speed up metabolism.
C) Grapefruit juice melts body fat.
D) Some weight-loss products can be dangerous.
E) Wraps performed by a professional will reduce body fat.
Q2) Warning signs of an unsound weight-loss program include:
A) a diet that provides at least 1200 kcalories.
B) recommendations to consume ordinary foods.
C) requirements to purchase a particular brand of foods/supplements.
D) encouragement to pursue physical activity.
E) a diet that limits added sugars and alcohol.
Q3) Susie has been overweight for many years. She tends to eat when she is not really hungry and eats more food when she is angry or depressed. Which of the following could explain Susie's problem of overweight?
A) lipoprotein lipase
B) set-point theory
C) learned behavior
D) genetics
E) food desert
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first signs of vitamin C deficiency appear in the:
A) blood vessels.
B) bones.
C) hair.
D) fingernails.
E) digestive system.
Q2) Ascorbic acid is another name for:
A) niacin.
B) thiamin.
C) vitamin C.
D) vitamin B6.
E) vitamin E.
Q3) Absorption of which of the following requires the presence of intrinsic factor?
A) vitamin B6
B) vitamin D
C) vitamin B12
D) vitamin A
E) vitamin K
Q4) What vitamin needs special consideration for those eating vegan diets? Explain why and make diet planning recommendations.
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Q1) Which of the following would be least likely to increase blood calcium levels?
A) increased absorption of calcium in the intestine.
B) retention of calcium by the kidneys.
C) release of calcium from the bones.
D) manufacture of calcium from albumin.
E) increased intake of calcium in the diet.
Q2) The major negative ion of the extracellular fluid is:
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) chloride.
D) calcium.
E) magnesium.
Q3) The hallucinations commonly experienced during withdrawal from alcohol intoxication are believed to be due to a deficiency of:
A) magnesium.
B) phosphorus.
C) iron.
D) calcium.
E) potassium.
Q4) How does fluoride exert a caries-reducing effect?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Academy of Pediatrics' position on alcohol consumption and pregnancy is that _____.
A) women should not consume more than 2 alcoholic beverages throughout pregnancy
B) women should not drink any amount of alcohol past the second trimester
C) women can safely consume 1 alcoholic beverage on an occasional basis during pregnancy
D) women should discontinue drinking alcohol as soon as they learn they are pregnant
E) women should not drink alcohol as soon as they plan to become pregnant
Q2) List several maternal discomforts of pregnancy and describe strategies that may be implemented to counteract some of these symptoms.
Q3) Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD) include what associated characteristics at birth?
A) infection with Streptococcus
B) unusual skin rash
C) facial and vision abnormalities
D) spinal curvature and muscle weakness
E) lack of brown fat
Q4) Explain how energy needs change as pregnancy progresses.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AAP supports exclusive breastfeeding for approximately six months but recognizes that infants are often developmentally ready to accept complementary foods between four and six months of age.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At home, where teenagers are frequently snacking, the best strategy for parents is to stock the pantry with _____.
A) plenty of diet drinks and low-fat snacks
B) easy-to-grab foods that are nutritious
C) enough food for only one snack a day
D) 100-kcalorie snack packs
E) a variety of fruits, vegetables, and sweets
Q3) To prevent iron deficiency, a child needs _____ mg of iron per day.
A) 2-3
B) 3-5
C) 7-10
D) 9-12
E) 13-15
Q4) What is the role of the "gatekeeper," as applied to nutrition?
Q5) Identify the nutrients most often found lacking in the diets of teenagers.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A malnourished older adult would most likely benefit from which source of protein?
A) Lean meat
B) A milkshake
C) Boiled eggs
D) Whole-grain bread
E) Cooked legumes
Q2) What describes a typical age-related change that is not a sign of Alzheimer's disease?
A) Becoming suspicious of unfamiliar people
B) Needing help recording a television program
C) Being unable to retrace steps
D) Withdrawing from social activities
E) Forgetting where common items should normally be located
Q3) The fastest growing age group in the U.S. population is people over _____.
A) 50
B) 65
C) 75
D) 85
E) 100
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Q1) When direct observations are used to generate an estimate of a client's current food intake, the procedure is called a _____.
A) kcalorie count
B) food diary
C) 24-hour recall
D) food record
E) nutrient surveillance record
Q2) Among people who are ill, significant weight loss may be masked by _____.
A) fluid retention
B) dehydration
C) a large tumor
D) drug therapy
E) hypotension
Q3) What best describes a task of the registered dietitian?
A) making referrals for dietary counseling
B) administering total parenteral nutrition
C) conducting nutrition assessments
D) administering formula through feeding tubes
E) prescribing diet orders
Q4) noncoding sequence
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe a mechanically altered diet and explain when it is useful.
Q2) There are no known interactions between herbal supplements and medications. A)True
B)False
Q3) What menu selections would be appropriate for a patient placed on a clear liquid diet?
A) Chicken broth, apple juice, popsicle
B) Yogurt, cranberry juice, beef broth
C) Scrambled egg, coffee, orange juice
D) Jell-O, ice cream, coffee
E) Milk, applesauce, and cottage cheese
Q4) An advantage of selective menus in hospitals is that they _____.
A) are more nutritious
B) simplify food production and preparation of foods
C) enable patients to become familiar with their special diets
D) result in lower food costs to the hospital
E) are easier to coordinate
Q5) A ground/minced diet is useful for patients with chewing problems. A)True B)False
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Q1) Many tube feeding complications can be prevented by selecting the formula and feeding route wisely, preparing the formula correctly, and delivering it appropriately.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of feeding would be least likely to cause Mr. Edward a liver-related abnormality?
A) A cyclic parenteral infusion
B) A continuous parenteral infusion
C) An oral feeding
D) Total parenteral nutrition
E) Continuous enteral feedings
Q3) Differentiate between the characteristics and uses of standard formulas and hydrolyzed formulas.
Q4) Long-term TPN administration may result in complications such as _____.
A) gallbladder disease
B) heart disease
C) diabetes
D) bone cancer
E) hearing loss
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Winslett is a COPD patient who is complaining of poor appetite, abdominal discomfort, and bloating. Which suggestion from the nurse is most appropriate for improving his food intake?
A) "Consume larger meals."
B) "Substitute beans for meat."
C) "Drink a supplement before eating."
D) "Eat smaller, more frequent meals."
E) "Increase fluid intake throughout the day."
Q2) If the reduction in blood flow from inflammation is severe enough to deprive the body's tissues of oxygen and nutrients, SIRS can result.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What complication is most closely associated with severe cases of SIRS or sepsis?
A) hypertension
B) fluid retention
C) hypertriglyceridemia
D) poor glucose control
E) intestinal bleeding
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Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Caries develops when the bacteria that reside in dental plaque metabolize dietary carbohydrates and produce acids that attack tooth enamel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) M.L. should be made aware that absorption of some nutrients can be adversely affected by antacid and antisecretory medication use. An example of one of these nutrients includes _____.
A) iron
B) magnesium
C) zinc
D) vitamin A
E) vitamin K
Q3) Following gastrectomy, the patient may require as many as eight to twelve small meals and snacks per day.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define dysphagia and explain the dietary treatment for this disorder.
Q5) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
Q6) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with bacterial overgrowth in the gastrointestinal tract would most likely be treated with which type of medication?
A) Proton pump inhibitors
B) Antimicrobials
C) Antidiarrheals
D) H2 receptor antagonists
E) Antacids
Q2) Diverticulitis is thought to occur in up to _____ percent of individuals with diverticulosis.
A) 10
B) 18
C) 25
D) 35
E) 48
Q3) Irritable bowel syndrome occurs more frequently in men than in women and episodes of acute symptoms often increase with age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the possible causes of diarrhea and describe its appropriate treatment.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) In patients with fat malabsorption, fat intake may be restricted to less than _____ percent of total kcalories or as necessary to control steatorrhea.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 25
D) 30
E) 45
Q2) alcohol abuse
Q3) High-fat foods may be restricted in patients with cirrhosis who are experiencing steatorrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) jaundice
Q5) What laboratory test would most likely be elevated in Mr. Jamison?
A) Albumin
B) Transferrin
C) Ammonia
D) HDL
E) CRP
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) What describes the basic principles of carbohydrate counting to plan a diabetic diet?
A) The patient follows a set schedule of when to eat.
B) The patient can have most carbohydrates but must avoid artificial sweeteners.
C) The patient can eat when he wants but must only eat certain foods.
D) The patient has freedom to choose foods based on preference.
E) The patient must count carbohydrates but typically has few limits on fat and protein intake.
Q2) The CDE teaches Mr. Hummel how to reduce his kcalories by increasing high-fiber foods in place of foods such as bagged snack chips. A higher intake of fiber could also _____.
A) increase his glycemic control
B) increase the glycemic index of his diet
C) increase his glycosylated hemoglobin
D) increase his blood glucose
E) increase his bedtime glucose levels
Q3) Describe the nutrition therapy for an overweight woman with gestational diabetes.
Q4) Describe the different methods of insulin delivery.
Q5) Identify the acute complications of diabetes and explain why they occur.
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical studies suggest that an overweight hypertensive individual can reduce his blood pressure by losing weight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For individuals with elevated LDL, current guidelines suggest limiting saturated fat intake to less than _____ percent of the total kcalories consumed.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
E) 10
Q3) To reduce her risk of CHD, Mrs. Winslow's LDL should be:
A) <100 mg/dL
B) <120 mg/dL
C) <135 mg/dL
D) <150 mg/dL
E) <160 mg/dL
Q4) Describe the appropriate dietary intervention for a heart attack victim once he or she has been stabilized.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately _____ percent of patients with end-stage renal disease receive a kidney transplant.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 24
D) 30
E) 42
Q2) The nurse understands that patients on peritoneal dialysis may most likely experience what side effect?
A) Weight loss
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Lactose intolerance
D) Hypertriglyceridemia
E) Uremia
Q3) Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.
A) mobilize fluids
B) lower cholesterol
C) prevent PEM
D) activate vitamin D
E) stimulate appetite
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Q1) Because of the availability of advance directives, over 80 percent of people in the United States have completed one.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient who is undergoing chemotherapy has developed sores in his mouth, which makes it difficult for him to eat. What suggestion would most likely help this patient handle this problem?
A) Serve food steaming hot and drink hot liquids.
B) Take larger bites of foods and chew thoroughly.
C) Avoid irritating foods such as citrus fruits or tomato juice.
D) Drink liquids directly from a cup and avoid a straw.
E) Eat a piece of peppermint candy before consuming a meal.
Q3) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
Q4) A durable power of attorney is used to _____.
A) state the patient's wishes about treatments he does or does not want at the end of life
B) appoint a health care agent for the patient
C) withhold CPR in the event of cardiopulmonary arrest
D) allow a physician to write a DNR order
E) determine the decision-making capacity of the patient
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