Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition Study Guide Questions
Applied Nutrition focuses on the practical application of nutritional science to enhance health, prevent disease, and manage various medical conditions. This course explores the principles of human nutrition, dietary requirements across the lifespan, and the impact of nutrients on metabolic processes. Students will learn to assess nutritional status, interpret dietary guidelines, develop nutrition care plans, and apply evidence-based strategies to address individual and community nutrition challenges. Emphasis is placed on translating scientific knowledge into effective dietary recommendations for diverse populations and real-world settings.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) To be labeled as "healthy," a food must be low in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, and sodium, and contain at least _____% of the DV for vitamin A, vitamin C, iron, calcium, protein, or fiber.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
E) 25
Answer: B
Q2) The kcalorie content of a food is not dependent on how much _____ it contains.
A) carbohydrate
B) fat
C) water
D) protein
E) sugar
Answer: C
Q3) An excess intake of any energy nutrient can lead to weight gain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive sugar consumption contributes to the development of _____.
A) cancer
B) type 1 diabetes
C) dental caries
D) hyperactive behavior in children
E) hyperactive behavior in adults
Answer: C
Q2) Which group contains the fewest carbohydrates?
A) grains and starchy vegetables
B) nuts and dried fruits
C) milk and cheese
D) fruits and vegetables
E) meat and nuts
Answer: C
Q3) Cindy consumed 2 servings of vegetables, 2 servings of fruit, 5 servings of whole grains, and 2 servings of legumes during the day. Cindy meets the DV recommendation for fiber for the day.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "saturated fatty acid" means that ____.
A) its carbon chains contain fewer than ten carbons
B) the fat lacks glycerol
C) each carbon is filled to capacity with hydrogen atoms
D) the fat is solid at room temperature
E) the fat comes from animal sources
Answer: C
Q2) Olive oil is known to help protect against heart disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which statement characterizes fat replacements?
A) The use of sugars and proteins as fat replacers results in higher-kcal products.
B) Unlike a triglyceride, an olestra molecule does not contain fatty acids.
C) The vitamins added to olestra are dietarily insignificant.
D) Since it is not absorbed, olestra does not affect the absorption of nutrients.
E) Trans-fats are much less harmful than cis-fats.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vegans must carefully combine their plant protein foods in order to obtain the full array of essential amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When glucose is unavailable, the ____ cannot function properly.
A) lungs and circulatory system
B) kidneys and liver
C) brain and nervous system
D) bones and muscles
E) muscles and liver
Q3) If the shape of a protein is changed, the ____ of the protein is also changed.
A) function
B) size
C) electrical charge
D) nutritional value
E) density value
Q4) What are some health advantages of a vegetarian diet?
Q5) How is the protein RDA calculated?
Q6) Explain the difference between an essential and a nonessential amino acid.
Q7) Discuss potential problems with the use of amino acid supplements.
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the route of blood in the vascular system in relation to digestion.
Q2) Leftovers should be eaten within ____ days.
A) 5-7
B) 3-4
C) 2-3
D) 1-2
E) 8-10
Q3) To prevent bacterial growth, cooked foods should be kept at ____° F or higher until served.
A) 40
B) 140
C) 165
D) 200
E) 100
Q4) Pepsin cannot function in the strong acidic environment of the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the benefits of intestinal flora to health.
Q6) What is norovirus and how is it linked to personal hygiene?
Q7) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
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Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the goals of the dietary plan to treat bulimia is to help clients _____.
A) decrease control
B) restrict kcalorie intake
C) restore nutritional health
D) develop a set pattern of menus
E) minimize osteoporotic effects
Q2) Which type of fat poses the greatest risk to health?
A) visceral fat
B) dietary fat
C) subcutaneous fat
D) lower body fat
E) skinfold fat
Q3) What percentage of a triglyceride molecule cannot be converted to glucose at all?
A) 50
B) 75
C) 95
D) 80
E) 40
Q4) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) As part of a sensible weight-loss plan, individuals should _____.
A) eat breakfast
B) eliminate some meals
C) always eat a few large meals instead of several small meals
D) restrict water intake
E) limit daily intake to less than 1200 kcal/day
Q2) Sarah is trying to lose 10 pounds. Which recommendation would you make?
A) Reduce your kcalorie intake by 100-200 kcalories a day and engage in 15 minutes of exercise per day.
B) Ask your physician for a prescription for orlistat.
C) Replace two meals each day with a bowl of cereal.
D)Reduce your kcalorie intake by 300-500 kcalories a day and engage in at least 250 minutes of physical activity per week.
E) Drink smoothies at every meal and engage in at least 300 minutes of physical activity per week.
Q3) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity.
Q4) Why are fad diets appealing to a lot of people?
Q5) Discuss the nuances of over-the-counter weight-loss products, both in terms of what they promise and the federal regulatory climate.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin A plays a role in cell differentiation, which means that it _____.
A) helps cells differentiate between the vitamins
B) allows cells to specialize and mature so they can perform their intended functions
C) promotes the storage of fat-soluble vitamins
D) aids in excretion of water-soluble vitamins
E) allows cells to undergo apoptosis so they can perform their intended functions
Q2) Vitamin E deficiencies are rarely observed in humans because _____.
A) the vitamin is so widespread in foods
B) it can be synthesized by the body
C) most people take vitamin E supplements
D) it is not essential
E) we do not require large amounts
Q3) The main function of vitamin D in bone growth is to _____.
A) synthesize 7-dehydrocholesterol
B) assist in the absorption of calcium and phosphorus
C) mobilize calcium from the bone
D) secrete calcitonin
E) assist in the absorption of vitamin A
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water constitutes up to 95 percent of the volume of most fruits and vegetables.
A)True
B)False
Q2) High intake of _____ interfere with copper absorption and can lead to a deficiency.
A) zinc
B) iron
C) chromium
D) manganese
E) selenium
Q3) Supplement users are more likely to have excessive intake of _____.
A) the B vitamins
B) iron, zinc, vitamin A, and folate
C) vitamins A, D, E, and K
D) calcium, iron, vitamin C, and thiamin
E) selenium, chromium, and magnesium
Q4) Pale yellow urine is representative of dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Q1) Discuss how exercise intensity affects your body's use of glycogen as a fuel.
Q2) How does iron deficiency impair physical performance and how can this be remedied?
Q3) Iron deficiency is especially likely to develop in _____.
A) children
B) physically active young women
C) physically active men
D) older active adults
E) physically inactive young men
Q4) Based on the suggested schedule of hydration for physical activity, at least _____ cups of fluid for each pound of weight lost should be consumed after exercise.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q5) Describe characteristics of a diet best suited for a person who engages in physical activity.
Q6) Why is it important to "refuel" as soon after physical activity as possible?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by a "critical period" during pregnancy? What is the importance of nutrition during a critical period?
Q2) An increased requirement for _____ during pregnancy is related to their roles in the synthesis of red blood cells.
A) calcium and vitamin K
B) vitamin E and vitamin C
C) folate and vitamin B
D) protein and calcium
E) vitamin C and calcium
Q3) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.
Q4) Women who develop gestational diabetes have a greater risk of developing _____ later in life.
A) heart disease
B) type 2 diabetes
C) gastrointestinal problems
D) osteoporosis
E) hyponatremia
Q5) Describe the functions of the placenta in supporting fetal growth.
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Q6) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Snacks provide about _____ of the average teenager's total daily food energy intake.
A) one third
B) one fourth
C) two thirds
D) three fourths
E) half
Q2) Natural breast milk has _____ that offer the infant immune protection against infections.
A) bacteria
B) antibodies
C) zinc
D) iron
E) DHA
Q3) Breast milk or infant formula normally provides enough water to replace fluid losses in healthy infants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
Q5) Describe an ideal treatment program for childhood obesity.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the number of neurons in the _____ diminishes, balance and posture are affected.
A) hindbrain
B) cerebral cortex
C) cerebrum
D) neurofibrillary tangles
E) sensory organs
Q2) The antioxidant nutrients and phytochemicals in fruits and vegetables may help slow the progression of _____.
A) Alzheimer's
B) type 1 diabetes
C) cataracts
D) senile dementia
E) urinary tract infections
Q3) Since 1950, the population older than age 65 has almost _____.
A) quintupled
B) halved
C) quadrupled
D) doubled
E) tripled
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A written account of foods and beverages consumed by a patient over several days is called a nutrition diagnosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most appropriate diet for a patient whose jaw was broken in a motor vehicle accident is a ____ diet.
A) fat-restricted
B) blenderized liquid
C) clear liquid
D) fiber-restricted
E) high-protein
Q3) List the steps in the nutrition care process.
Q4) Which condition would not indicate the need to adjust a modified diet?
A) The patient is not satisfied with the diet.
B) The patient is not tolerating the diet.
C) The patient complains of poor appetite.
D) The patient's condition changes.
E) The patient develops new clinical conditions.
Q5) Describe what is included in a diet manual.
Q6) Describe the concept of NPO.
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Q1) Discuss the ways in which drugs can affect food intake.
Q2) The anticonvulsants phenobarbital and phenytoin increase levels of the liver enzymes that metabolize ____.
A) folate
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin B
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q3) The adverse effects of herbs are required to be listed on supplement labels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Methotrexate interferes with the metabolism of _____.
A) folate
B) iron
C) vitamin B
D) calcium
E) vitamin D
Q5) Naturopathic medicine is based on the theory that "like cures like."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Q1) To ensure that the stomach is emptying properly, the nurse may measure _____.
A) gastric residual volume
B) feeding tube residual volume
C) body weight after feeding
D) urine output
E) gastric emptying rate
Q2) Tube feedings are commonly used for individuals with _____.
A) malabsorption disorders
B) pancreatitis
C) severe swallowing difficulties
D) nonfunctional GI tracts
E) intestinal blockages
Q3) Which statement does not describe feeding tubes?
A) They are all the same diameter.
B) They come in a variety of lengths.
C) They are soft and flexible.
D) They come with special characteristics for specific purposes.
E) They allow the administration of water or medications during feedings.
Q4) After 10 days, Ms. Johnson's physician decides to taper her nutrition support and advance her to an oral diet. Describe the process.
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Q1) A patient requiring a clear liquid diet for more than two days should _____.
A) remain on a clear liquid diet
B) be given added fat
C) be supplemented with a commercially prepared low-residue formula
D) be progressed to the full liquid diet
E) be reevaluated immediately
Q2) Which criterion is not a factor for determining whether a particular food is allowed on a clear-liquid diet?
A) its transparency
B) the amount of digestion required
C) its nutrient density
D) the amount of residue left in the colon
E) that it is liquid at room temperature
Q3) Dental caries are caused by _____.
A) bacteria that produce acids that attack tooth enamel
B) excessive fluoride intake that attacks tooth enamel
C) high-fiber foods that cause carbohydrate to stick to teeth
D) excessive consumption of sugar that eats into teeth
E) over production of alkaline secretions
Q4) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
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Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Q1) Mary has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. Although clinical studies suggest that it may not be beneficial, which dietary modification might her dietitian recommend?
A) a high-fiber diet
B) a low-fiber diet
C) a liquid diet
D) a low-salt diet
E) a hyperosmotic diet
Q2) Which symptom is consistent with ulcerative colitis?
A) inflammation confined to the rectum and colon
B) discrete lesions separated by normal tissue
C) cobblestone appearance of tissue
D) presence of fistulas
E) decreased risk of cancer
Q3) The most common complication of diverticulosis is _____.
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) weight gain
C) fistula development
D) Crohn's disease
E) diverticulitis
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Q1) Elevated levels of _____ are indicative of iron deficiency.
A) serum iron
B) serum ferritin
C) serum transferrin
D) bone marrow iron
E) RBC count
Q2) Which condition does not lead to the development of anemia?
A) inadequate production of erythrocytes
B) rapid destruction of red blood cells
C) loss of erythrocytes due to bleeding
D) deficiency of oxygen in the tissues
E) iron deficiency
Q3) Which laboratory test can diagnosis lactose intolerance?
A) stool fat test
B) biopsy
C) hydrogen breath test
D) xylose absorption
E) endoscopy
Q4) Explain the process of intestinal adaptation.
Q5) What is the cause of cystic fibrosis?
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Q1) hepatitis C
A)itchy skin associated with bile obstruction
B)primary plasma protein synthesized by the liver
C)neurological condition associated with advanced liver disease
D)virus transmitted sexually or via contaminated blood; a vaccine is available
E)immunosuppressant drug given after a liver transplant
F)composed of mucus, cholesterol crystals and bilirubin granules
G)procedure that removes fluid associated with ascites
H)increased levels associated with liver disease impair neurotransmitter production
I)carries blood to the liver from the digestive tract
J)virus spread via infected blood and needles; no vaccine is available
Q2) Cirrhosis is treated by all of these drugs except _____.
A) antibiotics
B) appetite stimulants
C) immunosuppressants
D) diuretics
E) antihypertensives
Q3) Describe the possible causes of hepatic encephalopathy.
Q4) Describe appropriate nutrition intervention before and after a liver transplant.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Q1) All of these symptoms are characteristic of diabetes except _____.
A) polyuria
B) polyphagia
C) polydipsia
D) hepatomegaly
E) glycosuria
Q2) After two months, Mr. Joiner has lost weight but his fasting blood glucose has risen to 140 mg/dL. Mr. Joiner's disease has progressed to _____.
A) type 1 diabetes
B) type 2 diabetes
C) gestational diabetes
D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome
E) ketoacidosis
Q3) Diabetics who use insulin or medications that promote insulin secretion should _____.
A) not consume alcohol
B) consume alcohol no more than 3-4 times/week
C) consume alcohol in moderation and always with meals
D) consume alcohol only on an empty stomach
Page 23
E) restrict alcohol consumption to one beer per day
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for
Cardiovascular Diseases
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Q1) Describe the role of fish and fish oil supplements in preventing coronary heart disease.
Q2) The formation of plaque is _____.
A) unrelated to high blood pressure
B) an inflammatory response
C) an autoimmune disorder
D) limited to smaller blood vessels
E) limited to the heart
Q3) Of the dietary lipids, cholesterol has the strongest effect on blood cholesterol levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient has begun taking furosemide to manage heart failure. Which foods should she consume frequently?
A) legumes
B) peanut butter
C) bananas and other potassium-rich foods
D) milk and other milk products
E) proteins
Q5) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Q1) Which process is not a function of the kidneys?
A) maintaining blood pressure
B) regulating electrolyte concentrations
C) maintaining acid-base balance
D) converting vitamin K to its active form
E) maintaining cholesterol levels
Q2) Mr. Wilson's GFR is indicative of stage _____ chronic kidney disease.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) All of these clinical symptoms are characteristic of uremic syndrome except _____.
A) anemia
B) decreased erythropoietin production
C) heart muscle enlargement
D) hypokalemia
E) muscle cramping
Q4) What are kidney stones and how do they develop?
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory
Stress
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Q1) ARDS
A)a disruption in the body's chemical environment due to the effects of disease or injury
B)abnormal gas exchange between the air and blood, resulting in lower-than-normal oxygen levels and higher-than-normal carbon dioxide levels
C)a higher-than-normal metabolic rate
D)the breakdown of lean tissue that results from disease or malnutrition
E)relating to the entire body
F)a whole-body response to acute inflammation; characterized by raised heart and respiratory rates, abnormal white blood cell counts, and altered body temperature
G)acid accumulation in the body tissues
H)a group of lung diseases characterized by persistent obstructed airflow through the lungs and airways; includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema
I)shortness of breath
J)respiratory failure triggered by severe lung injury; a medical emergency that causes dyspnea and pulmonary edema and usually requires mechanical ventilation
Q2) What are the potential diet-drug interactions Caroline might experience?
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) helper T cell
A)describes a cancerous cell or tumor, which can injure healthy tissue and spread cancer to other regions of the body
B)destruction of donor tissue by the recipient's immune system, which recognizes the donor cells as foreign
C)infections from microorganisms that normally do not cause disease in healthy people, but are damaging to persons with compromised immune function
D)cells infected by HIV
E)closely resembles folate
F)foodborne illness caused a parasite
G)an abnormal tissue mass that has no physiological function
H)the use of X-rays, gamma rays, or atomic particles to destroy cancer cells
I)inflammation of intestinal tissue caused by exposure to radiation
J)low white blood cell count
Q2) Nutrition-related factors may increase or decrease the risk of developing cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
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