Applied Nutrition
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Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition explores the practical application of nutritional principles to promote health, prevent disease, and manage dietary needs in various populations. The course covers topics such as nutrient requirements, food choices, dietary assessment, meal planning, and the role of nutrition in chronic disease management. Students will learn how to translate scientific knowledge into everyday dietary guidelines, evaluate nutritional strategies, and understand the impact of social, economic, and cultural factors on eating behaviors. The course emphasizes evidence-based practices and equips students with the skills needed to assess nutritional status and develop tailored nutrition interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by
Ruth A. Roth
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Chapter 1: The Relationship of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Poorly shaped bones or teeth are a symptom of calcium and vitamin D deficiency. Discuss the relationship between these substances.
Answer: Vitamin D is necessary for the utilization of calcium in the body.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is related to vitamin C deficiency?
A)anemia
B)goiter
C)scurvy
D)xerophthalmia
Answer: C
Q3) Primary deficiencies are those an individual is born with, while secondary deficiencies are those caused by a disease condition associated with malabsorption and accelerated excretion or by the destruction of the nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Of the goals identified, which is the highest in priority?
Answer: Normal laboratory values are the highest priority. In his present condition, it is of utmost need to stabilize his body's fluid and electrolyte balance.
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3
Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Determine the calories burned with specific types of exercise activity. Plan an exercise regimen based on Haley's height and weight.
Answer: Haley needs to lose an additional 21 pounds to reach her goal weight of 175 pounds in 12 weeks. (With the decrease in calories, she will lose 24 pounds.) An exercise session may burn an average of 300 calories. For example, low-impact dance aerobics burn 315 calories in 30 minutes and would burn approximately 0.6 pound per week if exercise is daily. The number of calories burned may be higher or lower depending upon the intensity level and one's actual body weight.
Q2) Beef is commonly eaten on the Mediterranean side of Italy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Weight loss should not exceed ____.
A)1-1 1/2 pounds per week
B)5 pounds per week
C)10 pounds per week
D)15 pounds per month
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inner wall of the small intestine is smooth.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) How many additional calories will be needed for lactation? What other substances need to be ingested in adequate amounts?
Answer: Five hundred (500) extra calories a day and increased amounts of fluids
Q3) The cardiac sphincter prevents acid from flowing back into the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Digestion is the process whereby food is broken down into smaller parts and is chemically changed. Digestion occurs in the stomach and small intestine only.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) What is the goal of the initial medical treatment?
Answer: Alleviating the symptoms.
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) This sugar is distinct from other sugars because it is not found in plants.
A)fructose
B)lactose
C)sucrose
D)glucose
Q2) Jill and Henry consume a lot of carbohydrates. Why is this a common occurrence among the elderly population?
Q3) Which part of the grain is full of B vitamins?
A)endosperm
B)exosperm
C)bran
D)germ
Q4) What is the minimum amount of carbohydrates needed each day?
Q5) Potatoes are a good food source for _____.
A)lactose
B)glycogen
C)monosaccharides
D)complex carbohydrates
Q6) Discuss the consequences of consuming too much fiber.
Q7) What is the recommended weight loss per week?
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Chapter 5: Lipids Fats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functions is NOT a role of fat in the body?
A)provides energy
B)protects organs and bones from injury
C)a carrier for fat-soluble vitamins
D)helps the body store glucose
Q2) What factors could have contributed to his weight?
Q3) What are trans-fatty acids? What effect do they have on cholesterol levels? In what foods are they found?
Q4) What is an example of a visible fat?
A)whole milk
B)cheese
C)cooking oil
D)pastries
Q5) Where is the primary location for fat digestion?
A)large intestine
B)liver
C)small intestine
D)kidney
Q6) Describe the pathology that occurs within the cardiovascular system with the ingestion of coffee, nicotine, and fats.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Essential amino acids are necessary for growth and development and must be provided in the diet. There are 20 amino acids that are considered essential.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the effect of diarrhea on the electrolyte balance.
Q3) When completing a nursing care plan for Ariel, based on protein and metabolic needs, what are the desired outcomes/evaluation criteria for Ariel?
Q4) Which of these are examples of complementary protein foods?
A)corn and beans
B)corn and rice
C)corn and bread
D)rice and bread
Q5) Why does edema occur in this state of malnutrition?
Q6) Proteins may contain _____in addition to carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.
A)potassium
B)calcium
C)sulfur
D)sodium
Q7) Discuss the impact of protein deficiency on the body.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deficiency of vitamin D in young children may cause night blindness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the best source of vitamin D?
A)milk
B)fortified milk
C)sunlight
D)cheese
Q3) What is one possible consequence of hypervitaminosis of vitamin A?
A)xerostomia
B)kidney disease
C)diabetes
D)liver damage
Q4) _____ are an example of a precursor.
A)Pantothenic acids
B)Carotenoids
C)Coenzymes
D)Antioxidants
Q5) If only selected groups of people need vitamins, why do so many people take them?
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Chapter 8: Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss factors that impact the absorption of iron.
Q2) The vitamin that enhances the absorption of calcium is ____.
A)vitamin C
B)vitamin D
C)vitamin B12
D)vitamin B6
Q3) Explain how mineral salts are related to the concept of electroneutrality.
Q4) Educate Ms. James regarding measures to delay or reduce bone loss.
Q5) Describe the deficiency condition that occurs as a result of inadequate iodine in the body.
Q6) List the medical conditions that are impacted by the sodium and potassium level or by an electrolyte imbalance.
Q7) Which of the following is a major role of zinc in the body?
A)component of enzyme that acts as an antioxidant
B)essential for growth and wound healing
C)helps keep the body in electrolyte balance
D)protects cells against oxidation
Q8) Myxedema refers to hyperthyroidism in adults.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) When there is an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood, what occurs?
A)heart rate increases
B)breathing rate increases
C)heart rate slows
D)breathing rate slows
Q2) The fluid found between cells is called intracellular fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List expected outcomes:
Q4) Which of the following conditions may arise with a positive water balance?
A)hyperthyroidism
B)diabetes
C)low white blood cell count
D)congestive heart failure
Q5) Low blood pressure, dry skin, and fever are all symptoms of ____.
A)sodium deficiency
B)anxiety
C)dehydration
D)hypertension
Q6) List the functions of water in the body.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the benefits of breastfeeding.
Q2) "If I eat all those additional calories, how will I ever lose all of the extra weight I have gained?"
Q3) "Will I have to stop drinking coffee if I breastfeed?"
Q4) Why is there an increased need for B vitamins during pregnancy?
A)for development of red blood cells
B)essential for development of infant's bones and teeth
C)to provide an increase of hemoglobin
D)essential for a fetus's collagen development
Q5) During pregnancy, the mother needs additional calories, vitamins, and minerals. It is advisable for the mother to take extra amounts of all vitamins and minerals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Women with smaller-sized breasts will be unable to produce enough milk to satisfy an infant.
A)True
B)False
Q7) List risk indicators for which to be alert.
Q8) Identify the components of a nutritional assessment.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the dietary recommendation for an infant with galactosemia?
A)three cups of milk a day
B)high-calorie dairy foods, for example, ice cream and milk shakes
C)elimination of milk from diet
D)milk in moderation
Q2) Human milk supplies the infant with sufficient vitamin C.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Congenital disabilities that prevent normal metabolism of specific nutrients are called _____.
A)nutritional mutations
B)amniocentesis
C)failure to thrive
D)inborn errors of metabolism
Q4) Which liver enzyme is missing in infants with phenylketonuria?
A)phenylalanine hydroxylase
B)phenylalanine hydrochlorase
C)phenylalanine ketonase
D)ketonase
Q5) Ms. Newby has asked you, "What is a PKU test?"
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Chapter 12: Nutrition During Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Academy of Pediatrics states that energy drinks are safe for children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain why calorie requirements for adolescent boys tend to be greater than for adolescent girls.
Q3) Generally speaking, fast foods are not high in _____.
A)fat
B)sodium
C)calories
D)fiber
Q4) Describe to them the dietary controls that could prevent a child from developing unhealthy adult health behaviors.
Q5) In addition to a meal plan for diabetes, describe the additional need for nutrients Chandra will have, according to the recommended daily requirements.
Q6) Discuss the parameters of the nutritional needs of Chandra, childhood type 2 diabetes, and the impact on her performance as an athlete.
Q7) Nerissa's mother asks about the treatment for anorexia.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nutrition During Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) List adverse symptoms of dehydration for the elderly.
Q2) What are the recommended protein needs for adults over the age of 25?
A)0.65 g per kilogram of body weight
B)0.06 g per kilogram of body weight
C)0.8 g per kilogram of body weight
D)0.08 g per kilogram of body weight
Q3) Bone loss begins slowly, around age 50-60, and leads to osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Estrogen loss that occurs after menopause contributes to osteoporosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mary asks you why her calcium level is low. Your response should include facts and incidence about osteoporosis. Include reasons for bone loss in women.
Q6) Growth is usually complete by the age of _____.
A)18
B)25
C)22
D)40
Q7) Being overweight is a precursor for several health problems. List those.
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Chapter 14: Weight Management Across the Life Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regardless of which type of eating pattern is chosen for weight loss, ___________ change is absolutely required.
A)metabolic
B)physical
C)behavior
D)psychological
Q2) Research has documented there are many benefits to losing what percentage of body weight?
A)1-2%
B)3-5%
C)5-10%
D)10-15%
Q3) All of the following play a role in weight regulation EXCEPT _____________.
A)genetics
B)environment
C)lifestyle
D)education
Q4) List nursing interventions related to diet modifications.
Q5) List causes of malnutrition.
Q6) Describe the risk factors associated with childhood obesity.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Diet and Pre-Diabetes and Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hormone helps release energy by converting glycogen to glucose?
A)estrogen
B)glucagon
C)insulin
D)glycogen
Q2) _____ is the name for a group of serious and chronic disorders affecting the metabolism of carbohydrates.
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Diabetes insipidus
D)Ketonuria
Q3) Diabetes can cause all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A)blindness
B)heart disease
C)kidney disease
D)hearing loss
Q4) Infants of mothers who have had diabetes are prone to hypoglycemia immediately after birth. Describe the cause of this.
Q5) What is the goal or expected outcome for diet therapy for a diabetic client?
Q6) List the most common symptoms of diabetes.
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Chapter 16: Diet and Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss potential causes and risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Q2) What are some modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?
A)diet and lifestyle
B)diabetes mellitus
C)heredity
D)age
Q3) When the lumen narrows and a blood clot forms, what could occur?
A)ischemia
B)atherosclerosis
C)cardiovascular disease
D)myocardial infarction
Q4) Cholesterol is found only in animal tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In severe cases of edema, it is possible for a client to adhere to a diet that is totally salt-free.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The physician has ordered a diuretic for Ed. What foods need to be added to his diet? Why?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Diet and Renal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical renal daily diet is sometimes referred to as "80-3-3," meaning what?
A)80% protein, 3% fats, 3% carbohydrates
B)80 g of carbohydrates, 3 g of fat, 3 g of protein
C)80 g of protein, 3 g of sugar, 3 g of fat
D)80 g of protein, 3 g of sodium, 3 g of potassium
Q2) What is the dietary regimen for prevention of kidney stones?
Q3) Renal disease is a lifelong struggle and a challenge. Describe some of the feelings that may complicate management of the condition.
Q4) Which of the following are among the functions of the kidneys?
A)secrete certain hormones, dilute electrolytes
B)excrete hormones, recycle electrolytes
C)maintain volume of body fluids, dilute electrolytes
D)secrete certain hormones, excrete wastes
Q5) Describe why stones are painful.
Q6) Hemodialysis is done for 3 to 5 hours how many times each week?
Q7) Describe the diet for clients who are on hemodialysis.
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Chapter 18: Diet and Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organs are considered primary organs of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)mouth, small intestine, large intestine
B)mouth, liver, stomach
C)pancreas, gall bladder, kidney
D)heart, lungs, stomach
Q2) What is the name of the intestinal disorder characterized by little pockets in the sides of the large intestine?
A)diverticulitus
B)pancreatitis
C)diverticulosis
D)ulcerative colitis
Q3) Peptic ulcers occur in both the stomach and the duodenum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gastroesophageal reflux can cause _____.
A)hiatal hernia
B)diverticulosis
C)pancreatitis
D)esophagitis
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Diet and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hepatitis B and HPV vaccines can be considered anticancer vaccines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anorexia is a major problem for cancer clients. List ways to encourage eating.
Q3) _____ is the study of cancer.
A)Gerontology
B)Carcinology
C)Oncology
D)Neurology
Q4) What is the appropriate caloric recommendation for a cancer client?
A)30-35 calories per kilogram of body weight
B)35-40 calories per kilogram of body weight
C)40-45 calories per kilogram of body weight
D)45-50 calories per kilogram of body weight
Q5) What is the term for abnormally low amounts of protein in the blood?
A)hypoalbuminemia
B)proteinemia
C)hypoglycemia
D)marasmus
Q6) Describe the nutritional needs of the cancer client.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Foodborne Illness, Allergies, and Intolerances
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Q1) What is the generalized term for a substance that causes hypersensitivity?
A)pollen
B)allergen
C)urticaria
D)pathogen
Q2) Cross-contamination occurs ____.
A)when two microorganisms are ingested together
B)when two or more pathogens are produced from a microorganism
C)when noninfected food is prepared with equipment that has been used to prepare infected foods
D)when two or more people become sick
Q3) Food poisoning caused by spores is the rarest and the most deadly of all food poisonings. Which of the following explains this?
A)Spores have a thick protective shell that allows them to survive in unfavorable conditions.
B)Spores are resistant to all antibiotics.
C)The symptoms occur within 30 minutes of ingestion of the food with spores.
D)Spores are double cells. This allows one cell to "escape" when the spore is attacked.
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Chapter 21: Nutritional Care of Clients With Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the three methods for administering tube feedings.
Q2) Nausea and vomiting have begun. What nursing interventions can be done to relieve or prevent further attacks?
Q3) When does the greatest need for fluids occur? Why?
Q4) An ostomy surgically created into the stomach is a(n) _____.
A)gastrostomy
B)jejunostomy
C)hysterectomy
D)esophagostomy
Q5) Parenteral nutrition is the provision of nutrients via an ostomy into the stomach or jejunum.
A)True
B)False
Q6) One of the major complications of tube feedings is aspiration. Define aspiration and nursing measures to prevent the occurrence.
Q7) Susan is becoming dehydrated. Her B/P is 90/46, pulse 112, and respirations 32. Her urinary output for the past 24 hours is 100 mL. She is in burn shock. Describe the pathology that has resulted in these symptoms.
Q8) Why is Rosa at high risk for pressure ulcers?
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