Applied Nutrition Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition is a comprehensive course that examines the practical application of nutritional science in promoting health and managing diseases across diverse populations. The curriculum explores the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients, while emphasizing nutrient requirements throughout the lifespan. Students will analyze the impact of dietary behaviors on chronic disease prevention and develop skills to assess nutritional status, plan balanced diets, and implement evidence-based interventions. Topics include food labeling, dietary guidelines, nutrition in public health, sports nutrition, and considerations for special populations, equipping students with the knowledge to translate nutritional principles into real-world practice.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 12th Edition by
Ruth A. Roth
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Chapter 1: The Relationship of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which biochemical test indicates a depleted muscle mass?
A)serum transferrin level
B)creatinine excretion
C)serum albumin level
D)serum creatinine level
Answer: B
Q2) Primary deficiencies are those an individual is born with, while secondary deficiencies are those caused by a disease condition associated with malabsorption and accelerated excretion or by the destruction of the nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The body must be provided with nutrients that are necessary for life. These nutrients are available only in food, must be obtained by the body's nutritional intake, and are known as essential nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weight loss should not exceed ____.
A)1-1 1/2 pounds per week
B)5 pounds per week
C)10 pounds per week
D)15 pounds per month
Answer: A
Q2) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is the lack of _____________. It is more prevalent among four specific population groups. List them and describe why those population groups are more at risk. Describe how their diets can be altered to prevent the deficiency.
Answer: Iron: Children under age 2 consume more milk instead of eating other food sources with iron. Adolescents lack a nutritional diet because they eat more junk food than regular meals. Pregnant women need increased iron because the developing fetus depletes their blood cells. Women with heavy menstrual flow are at risk for decreased iron levels. Diet plans may vary, but clients should be encouraged to eat foods high in iron such as lean meats, poultry, fish, enriched breads, legumes, leafy green vegetables, dried fruits, and nuts.
Q3) Use approximate measures to determine Haley's usual caloric intake for 1 day. Answer: 3,000-3,200 calories
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a hormone that triggers the release of gastric juices?
A)gastrin
B)pepsin
C)trypsin
D)secretin
Answer: A
Q2) What assessment data will be monitored to evaluate if the goals have been met?
Answer: Evaluate the symptoms, indigestion, pain, heartburn, and bloating. Evaluate weight to determine if this remains a factor in the symptoms. Monitor caffeine intake. Have client keep a food and exercise diary that can be used to document progress. Mary Moore, who is 3 months pregnant with her fourth child, comes to the clinic for her monthly prenatal visit. You are doing client education regarding her nutritional status. She is 5 4 tall and currently weighs165 pounds. She is planning on breast-feeding her baby.
Q3) To be absorbed, nutrients must be in their most complex form.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) This sugar is distinct from other sugars because it is not found in plants.
A)fructose
B)lactose
C)sucrose
D)glucose
Q2) Using the minimum carbohydrate intake, assist your friend in planning a diet with the appropriate amounts.
Q3) What is an example of a polysaccharide?
A)sucrose
B)starch
C)galactose
D)glucagon
Q4) The starch in grain kernels is found primarily in the germ.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the name of the storage form of carbohydrate?
A)glucose
B)lactic acid
C)glycogen
D)ketone
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Chapter 5: Lipids Fats
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Sample Questions
Q1) Omega-3 fatty acid is classified as a ____ fat.
A)monounsaturated
B)saturated
C)polyunsaturated
D)hydrogenated
Q2) Research has developed Olestra, a product on the market that is used as a fat alternative. What food sources contain Olestra? How does the product impact absorption of vitamins and some nutrients? What are the positive effects and the negative effects of Olestra? One concern about Olestra and other newly developed products is that they will not reduce the actual fat content, but rather would increase it. Explain the rationale for this concern.
Q3) What are the functions of fats, or lipids, in the diet?
Q4) An example of low-cholesterol food is ______.
A)poached eggs
B)buttermilk biscuits
C)whole-wheat toast with jelly
D)boiled shrimp
Q5) Fats are present only in animal sources.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins may contain _____in addition to carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.
A)potassium
B)calcium
C)sulfur
D)sodium
Q2) Most animal sources are high-quality, complete proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which term indicates the protein status of a client with a severe burn?
A)nitrogen balance
B)negative nitrogen balance
C)positive nitrogen balance
D)complete protein
Q4) Essential amino acids are necessary for growth and development and must be provided in the diet. There are 20 amino acids that are considered essential.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mario has an infected foot that was injured in a rock slide. Describe the impact of protein and immunity on Mario's injury.
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Chapter 7: Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) The deficiency of vitamin D inhibits the absorption of _____ and _____ in the small intestine.
A)potassium and calcium
B)calcium and biotin
C)phosphorus and potassium
D)phosphorus and calcium
Q2) _____is the excess of one or more vitamins.
A)Hypervitaminosis
B)Toxicity
C)Hypovitaminosis
D)Avitaminosis
Q3) Describe the uses of vitamin K and its sources.
Q4) Describe the use of vitamin E in premature infants and the elderly.
Q5) Ms. Salmendos tells you that she feels that the drug companies have wrongly encouraged her to take vitamins. She wonders if the companies are truthful in their labeling.
Q6) If only selected groups of people need vitamins, why do so many people take them?
Q7) What should you tell her about vitamins in general, or the usual need for vitamins?
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Chapter 8: Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zinc is a cofactor for more than 300 enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the function of potassium.
Q3) List the best food sources of potassium.
Q4) Minerals are inorganic. This means they do not contain carbon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Where does 1% of calcium go when absorbed by the body?
A)skeleton
B)teeth
C)blood
D)liver
Q6) Only the bones and teeth require calcium intake.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Discuss the consequences of sodium toxicity.
Q8) Discuss factors that impact the absorption of iron.
Page 10
Q9) Describe the conditions that occur when blood calcium is above normal and below normal levels.
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Chapter 9: Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the functions of water in the body.
Q2) Identify nursing goals.
Q3) Low blood pressure, dry skin, and fever are all symptoms of ____.
A)sodium deficiency
B)anxiety
C)dehydration
D)hypertension
Q4) List conditions when the need for fluids is increased.
Q5) If your body needs 2,000 calories daily, then you should consume 1,000 mL of water in order to maintain hydration and fluid balance.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What hormone is excreted in response to dehydration?
A)insulin
B)antidiuretic hormone
C)aldosterone
D)testosterone
Q7) The average adult's body contains approximately 75% water.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the concerns that a pregnant teenager will have.
Q2) During lactation, approximately how many extra calories are recommended daily for the first 6 months?
A)300
B)400
C)500
D)1,000
Q3) Women with smaller-sized breasts will be unable to produce enough milk to satisfy an infant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ingestion of alcohol while pregnant can result in _____.
A)weight gain
B)hypertension
C)spontaneous abortions
D)fetal alcohol syndrome
Q5) Describe the physical characteristics of an infant born with fetal alcohol syndrome.
Q6) Identify some common nutrition-related outcomes.
Q7) "If I breastfeed, will I have to be on a special diet?"
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is an inherited disease affecting the exocrine glands.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Galactosemia
C)Diabetes
D)HIV
Q2) It is preferable to feed an infant on a schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the first year, the normal child needs half as many calories per kilogram as the adult requirement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are outcomes that ensure that the infant is receiving sufficient nutrition and calories from breastfeeding?
Q5) What are some effects of untreated galactosemia?
A)hypertension and deafness
B)anemia and constipation
C)diarrhea, vomiting, and edema
D)hypertension, diarrhea, and vomiting
Q6) Describe the type of disability called inborn errors of metabolism.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Nutrition During Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the stresses that impact Chandra's dietary intake.
Q2) List evaluation measures to determine if the nursing interventions are effective.
Q3) A child's relationship to food and basic eating habits develop early in childhood. Support this statement.
Q4) Pre-diabetes and type 2 diabetes mellitus, rarely seen before in children, are now being diagnosed in children as young as 10 years of age. Which of the following factors is/are related to the diagnosis?
A)premature birth
B)exercise patterns
C)lack of fiber in diet and poor bowel habits throughout childhood
D)nutrition, exercise, and weight
Q5) A good example of a nutritious snack for a child under the age of 4 would be _____. A)grapes
B)peanuts and popcorn
C)hard candy
D)cheese and crackers
Q6) Her mother asks, "Why did Chandra develop this condition? What did I do wrong?"
Q7) Discuss strategies for introducing new foods to children.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Nutrition During Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The middle period of life ranges from 40 to 65 years old. State the caloric need and the rationale for this age range.
Q2) Mary asks you why her calcium level is low. Your response should include facts and incidence about osteoporosis. Include reasons for bone loss in women.
Q3) What are the three basic components of an assessment?
Q4) Osteoporosis is becoming a common occurrence in the young to middle adulthood age groups. A healthy diet is very important in the care of this condition. A diet rich in what nutrients is thought to help prevent osteoporosis?
Q5) List adverse symptoms of dehydration for the elderly.
Q6) More than 80% of people over the age of 65 have one or more chronic diseases. Current research emphasizes the role of nutrition in preventing or relieving these conditions. Discuss the role of nutrition in the treatment of the elderly with chronic disease.
Q7) How much calcium does Mary need to take in per day?
Q8) Describe the conditions that may lead to difficulties in food selection and preparation in older persons.
Q9) Mary asks if there is anything she can do to prevent further bone mass loss.
Q10) List interventions to assist in meeting the goals or the expected outcomes.
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Chapter 14: Weight Management Across the Life Cycle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Obesity is more prevalent in _____________.
A)immigrant families
B)families in poverty
C)single-parent families
D)minority families
Q2) List assessment data to be collected.
Q3) List possible reasons for Ms. Janie's deficient nutritional status, as well as for that of other geriatric clients.
Q4) Which measurement can be used with BMI to assess disease risk?
A)wrist circumference
B)hip circumference
C)waist circumference
D)height
Q5) Which of the following behaviors does NOT contribute to one becoming overweight or obese?
A)eating breakfast
B)not eating with family
C)low intake of fruits and veggies
D)sweetened beverage intake
Q6) List nursing interventions in order of priority.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Diet and Pre-Diabetes and Diabetes
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Sample Questions
Q1) When hyperglycemia occurs in the body, cellular changes result in three classic symptoms. What are they?
A)weight loss, fatigue, vomiting
B)polydipsia, polyphagia, glucagon production
C)nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
D)polydipsia, polyuria, glycosuria
Q2) What is the goal or expected outcome for diet therapy for a diabetic client?
Q3) The method of diet therapy most commonly used for diabetic clients is that of counting carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Differentiate gestational diabetes from type 1 diabetes.
Q5) What are the goals for the treatment of diabetes?
Q6) A symptom of diabetes mellitus is polydipsia, or excessive thirst. Why does this occur?
Q7) Describe the changes that occur in the second or third trimester that result in gestational diabetes.
Q8) Describe the benefits of exercise.
Q10) What are the goals for medical nutrition therapy for diabetes? Page 18
Q9) Describe the process of ketone production and its consequences.
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Page 19
Chapter 16: Diet and Cardiovascular Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents a diet low in saturated fat?
A)whole milk and oatmeal
B)bacon, lettuce, and cheese hamburger
C)fish and chips (French fries)
D)turkey and tomato sandwich with pretzels
Q2) The sodium in tap water is consistent from one area to another.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the formation of plaque.
Q4) Discuss potential causes and risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Q5) Compile a list of foods or condiments that are high in sodium.
Q6) Rheumatic fever is a contributing factor for a myocardial infarction.
A)True
B)False
Q7) James's cholesterol level is 720. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are high and high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are low. Discuss the implications of this.
Q8) James is extremely thirsty. Discuss the rationale for this.
Page 20
Q9) Discuss the impact of fiber on cholesterol levels.
Q10) Discuss the implications of smoking for James.
Q11) What is the nutritional treatment for hyperlipidemia?
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Page 21
Chapter 17: Diet and Renal Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client on hemodialysis requires how much protein per kilogram of body weight?
A)1.5 g of protein
B)2 g of protein
C)1.2 g of protein
D)1.8 g of protein
Q2) Discuss the role of calcium in formation of calcium oxalate stones.
Q3) Kidneys make the final conversion of what vitamin?
A)vitamin D
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin K
D)vitamin E
Q4) Vitamin D may be added and phosphorus limited in a renal client's diet in order to prevent _____ (softening of the bones due to excessive loss of calcium).
A)osteomalacia
B)osteoporosis
C)gynecomastia
D)periodontal disease
Q5) The use of salt substitutes is not recommended for clients with renal disease. Why?
Q6) Describe the diet during dialysis.
Page 22
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Chapter 18: Diet and Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the treatment for peptic ulcers.
Q2) What is the protein diet recommendation for a client with a peptic ulcer?
A)no more than 0.8 g of low-fat protein per kilogram of body weight
B)1-1.5 g of low-fat protein per kilogram of body weight
C)no less than 0.8 g of low-fat protein per kilogram of body weight
D)2-2.5 g high-fat protein per kilogram of body weight
Q3) How is cimetidine useful in treating peptic ulcers?
A)inhibits gastric secretion
B)breaks down the cells that compose the ulcer
C)kills the bacteria
D)neutralizes any excess acid
Q4) Which of the following organs are considered primary organs of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)mouth, small intestine, large intestine
B)mouth, liver, stomach
C)pancreas, gall bladder, kidney
D)heart, lungs, stomach
Q5) What type of diet will Jessie be on?
Q6) What type of diet and lifestyle changes should be encouraged for a client with peptic ulcers?
Page 23
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Chapter 19: Diet and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of cancer on the host are determined by the _____.
A)size of the tumor
B)amount of carcinogens in the usual diet
C)location of the tumor
D)treatment of the tumor
Q2) Malnourished clients need how much protein per kilogram of bodyweight?
A) 0.8-1.0
B) 1.0-1.2
C) 1.3-2.0
D) 2.0-2.5
Q3) What type of diet is recommended for a cancer client with diarrhea?
A) liquid diet
B) soft diet
C) low-residue diet
D) high-fiber diet
Q4) Lymphomas develop from white blood cells and affect bone marrow and the spleen.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In protecting against cancer, what is the most important principle of nutrition? Explain.
Page 24
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Chapter 20: Foodborne Illness, Allergies, and Intolerances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacteria can cause hemorrhagic colitis?
A)Clostridium perfringens
B)Campylobacter jejuni
C)Clostridium botulinum
D)Escherichia coli
Q2) What is the most common microorganism found in seafood?
A) Salmonella
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Shigella
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) Which bacteria can be found in milk?
A) Salmonella
B) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Shigella
D)Staphylococcus aureus
Q4) Contaminated food always looks, smells, or tastes different from non-contaminated food.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the reason for the resistance of pathogens with spores.
25
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Chapter 21: Nutritional Care of Clients With Special Needs
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Q1) What is the name of the condition that can occur after gastric surgery and is characterized by dizziness, weakness, cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea?
A)opportunistic infection
B)dumping syndrome
C)hyperglycemia
D)hypoglycemia
Q2) Nutrition is of primary importance for a burn client. List some vitamins and minerals that have an impact on the healing process.
Q3) In general, what is the only thing given to most clients during the first 24 hours after major surgery?
A)intravenous solutions
B)high-protein foods
C)high-fat foods
D)vitamin supplements and fluids
Q4) What complication can develop in bedridden clients?
A) peptic ulcer
B) gastric ulcer
C) pressure ulcer
D) stomach ulcer
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