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Applied Nutrition focuses on the practical integration of nutritional science principles to promote health and manage disease across diverse populations. This course examines the role of nutrients in human physiology, dietary assessment, food selection, and menu planning, with particular attention to cultural, socioeconomic, and lifecycle factors influencing nutritional needs. Students explore strategies for nutrition education, behavior change, and the development of community-based interventions to address contemporary health challenges such as obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. Emphasis is placed on interpreting current research, applying evidence-based guidelines, and developing practical skills for assessing and improving individual and public nutritional status.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney
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Q1) How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1°C?
A)10 calories
B)100 calories
C)1 kilocalorie
D)10 kilocalories
E)100 kilocalories
Answer: C
Q2) Which nutrient is classified as a micronutrient?
A)minerals
B)proteins
C)alcohols
D)carbohydrates
E)fats
Answer: A
Q3) Although ____________________ provides energy, it is not considered a nutrient because it does not sustain life.
Answer: alcohol
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Q1) The ____________________ is the seed that grows into a wheat plant, so it is especially rich in vitamins and minerals to support new life.
Answer: germ
Q2) According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals must be listed on the package label as a percent Daily Value?
A)calcium and iron
B)zinc and phosphorus
C)fluoride and chloride
D)chromium and magnesium
E)copper and potassium
Answer: A
Q3) Meat replacements consumed by vegans are often made of ____.
A)soy
B)fish
C)eggs
D)dairy
E)poultry
Answer: A
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Q1) Chyme can best be described as ____.
A)the semisolid mass of undigested food that passes through the ileocecal valve.
B)a semiliquid mass of partially digested food released by the stomach into the small intestine.
C)the mixture of pancreatic juices containing enzymes for digestion of the macronutrients.
D)a thick, viscous material synthesized by mucosal cells for protection against digestive juices.
E)chewed food combined with saliva that has passed from the esophagus into the stomach.
Answer: B
Q2) ____________________ is an autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation of the small intestine that occurs in response to foods that contain gluten, a protein commonly found in wheat, barley, rye, and possibly oats.
Answer: Celiac disease
Q3) The medical term for the disorder that occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter allows the stomach contents to reflux into the esophagus is
Answer: gastroesophageal reflux
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Q1) Which characteristic describes the sugar replacers (sugar alcohols)?
A)They have a low glycemic index.
B)They promote constipation in children.
C)They demonstrate fewer GI side effects than the artificial sweeteners.
D)They are less effective than artificial sweeteners in inhibiting dental caries.
E)They cannot be used in products labeled as "sugar-free."
Q2) Discuss the effects of low-carbohydrate diets on short-term and long-term weight loss.
Q3) Approximately how many kcalories are provided by one teaspoon of sugar?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
E)50
Q4) Lactose intolerance is most common in ____________________ and ____________________.
Q5) Fructose has the same ____________________ as glucose but its ____________________ is different.
Q6) ____________________ is a pair of two glucose molecules.
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Q1) Triglycerides are composed of three fatty acids attached to a(n)
Q2) Which acid is an omega-3 fat?
A)Acetic acid
B)Palmitic acid
C)Linoleic acid
D)Docosahexaenoic acid
E)Arachidonic acid
Q3) What is the recommended range of daily fat consumption for an individual on a 2000 calorie diet?
A)5 to 15 grams
B)20 to 35 grams
C)45 to 75 grams
D)80 to 100 grams
E)125 to 150 grams
Q4) Discuss in detail the digestion, absorption, and transport of dietary lipids, including the sterols.
Q5) Describe the process of fat hydrogenation and discuss its advantages and disadvantages.
Q6) The best-known phospholipid is ____________________. Page 7
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Q1) What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins?
A)30-50
B)50-60
C)60-70
D)70-90
E)90-99
Q2) What is meant by nitrogen balance? How does it differ among infants, adults, and those who are injured or on weight-loss diets?
Q3) ____________________ is the process of messenger RNA being made from a template of DNA.
Q4) Which animal-derived protein is classified as a poor-quality protein?
A)Fish
B)Cheese
C)Gelatin
D)Turkey
E)Fatty fish
Q5) The supply of amino acids derived from either food proteins or body proteins that collect in the cells and circulating blood and stand ready to be incorporated in proteins and other compounds or used for energy is called the ____________________.
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Q1) What organ is the major site for gluconeogenesis?
A)Liver
B)Brain
C)Muscle
D)Small intestine
E)Pancreas
Q2) Which nutrient can be made from compounds composed of 2-carbon skeletons?
A)Glucose
B)Fructose
C)Glycogen
D)Fatty acids
E)Pyruvate
Q3) The number of ATP molecules that can be produced from a molecule of protein, fat, or carbohydrate is generally related to the number of atoms of ____.
A)carbon
B)oxygen
C)nitrogen
D)hydrogen
E)potassium
Q4) Describe the effects of excess alcohol intake on folate utilization.
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Q1) What is the association between chronic inflammation and the metabolic syndrome?
Q2) List the characteristics of anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. Describe the typical personality traits of individuals with these eating disorders.
Q3) Discuss the characteristics of binge-eating disorder. What is known about its treatment?
Q4) The major cause of insulin resistance is related to ____.
A)low-protein diets
B)high-protein diets
C)excess body weight
D)prolonged excess carbohydrate intake
E)very low fat diets
Q5) Which process best describes thermogenesis?
A)Burning of fat
B)Synthesis of fat
C)Generation of heat
D)Generation of water
E)Release of oxygen
Q6) An individual with a BMI of ____________________ or more is said to be obese.
Q8) What factors may account for the decline in BMR with age? Page 11
Q7) Discuss factors that increase and decrease basal metabolic rate.
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Q1) Kirima is a Native Eskimo who lives in one of the coldest regions in the world. What type of adipose tissue is most effective at helping her to maintain warm body temperatures during the coldest parts of the year?
A)Black
B)White
C)Brown
D)Yellow
E)Red
Q2) Discuss the interactive roles of leptin and ghrelin in food intake control.
Q3) What is the primary action of orlistat, a weight-loss drug?
A)It reduces taste sensation.
B)It inhibits lipoprotein lipase.
C)It inhibits pancreatic lipase.
D)It alters circulating leptin concentrations.
E)It enhances the release of epinephrine.
Q4) Describe psychological problems encountered by obese people in their attempts to lose weight.
Q5) Explain the relationship of physical activity and appetite control.
Q6) Explain the set point theory of weight change.
Q7) Contrast the metabolic roles of white adipose tissue and brown adipose tissue. Page 13
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Q1) What type of testing is done by the U.S. Pharmacopeia to assure the quality and safety of certain vitamin and mineral supplements?
Q2) Which of the following contains the highest amount of riboflavin when expressed per kcalorie?
A)Cheddar cheese
B)Pinto beans
C)Tuna (in water)
D)Liver
E)Strawberries
Q3) Approximately what percentage of the U.S. population takes a multivitamin-mineral supplement regularly?
A)10
B)20
C)30
D)40
E)50
Q4) What are the associations between folate intake and development and progression of certain cancers?
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Q5) Prolonged thiamin deficiency can result in the disease ____________________.

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Q1) Of the following, which would most readily induce a vitamin K deficiency?
A)Achlorhydria
B)Antibiotic therapy
C)Presence of oxalic acid in food
D)Insufficient intake of green leafy vegetables
E)High-fat, high-protein diet
Q2) The innermost membrane of the eye, composed of several layers, including one that contains the rods and cones is called the ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of vitamin A nutrition?
A)Deficiency is common in both the United States and many developing countries.
B)Toxicity occurs from excess intakes of preformed vitamin A as well as beta-carotene.
C)Supplements are recommended for certain groups of infants and children infected with the measles in the United States.
D)In poor countries, supplements prevent and cure night blindness but offer little protection against malaria and lung disease.
E)The risk of toxicity is so high that most vitamin A supplements are by prescription only.
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Q1) ____________________ is the major anion of the extracellular fluids.
Q2) As much as ____________________ percent of the sodium in people's diets comes from salt added to foods by manufacturers; about ____________________ percent comes from salt added during cooking and at the table; and only ____________________ percent comes from the natural content in foods.
Q3) Among the following, which promotes constriction of blood vessels, resulting in elevation of blood pressure?
A)Phytates
B)Angiotensin
C)Aldosterone
D)Carbonic acid
E)Magnesium
Q4) Discuss the role of physical activity in reducing the risk for osteoporosis.
Q5) The outer, hard shell of bone is called
A)cortical bone.
B)dolomitic bone.
C)trabecular bone.
D)hydroxyl bone.
E)structural bone
Q6) ____________________ is the major cation of the intracellular fluids.
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Q1) Discuss the essential nature of chromium, and list good food sources of chromium. Why are chromium supplements promoted by the supplements industry?
Q2) Why are people with iron overload at increased risk for infections?
A)Excess tissue iron destroys vitamin C
B)Iron-rich blood favors growth of bacteria
C)Iron-rich blood impairs the immune system
D)Excess tissue iron interferes with antibiotic function
E)Iron binds with cells that produce T- and NK-cells, decreasing their production.
Q3) Discuss the effects of lead exposure on health and human performance.
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of the trace minerals?
A)A deficiency sign common to many trace minerals is dermatitis
B)The amounts in foods are dependent, in part, on soil composition
C)Deficiencies are more difficult to recognize in children than in adults
D)The amount of all trace minerals in the average person totals approximately 100 grams
E)Deficiencies of trace minerals are virtually unknown, although toxicities are well documented.
Q5) Discuss factors that influence the bioavailability of dietary iron.
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Q1) In the endurance athlete, the first priority of nutrient repletion should be A)fluids.
B)protein.
C)glycogen.
D)electrolytes.
E)key vitamins.
Q2) Which of the following represents current knowledge of the role of vitamin and mineral supplements in physical performance?
A)When taken right before an event, they have been shown to benefit performance.
B)Moderate amounts have been shown to improve the performance of most elite athletes.
C)They may be beneficial for athletes who struggle to meet their energy requirements.
D)Except perhaps for iron, they are needed in high amounts to meet the needs of athletes exposed to hot and humid weather conditions.
E)While helpful for elite athletes, there is little evidence to support their use in the average, recreational athlete.
Q3) Describe at least five major benefits associated with being physically fit.
Q4) Discuss the theory and application of resistance training.
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of being overweight and pregnant?
A)Folate-related neural tube defects
B)Increased prevalence of caesarian section
C)Inability to carry twins to birth completion
D)Increased risk of birthing a small-for-gestational age infant
E)Decreased risk of gestational hypertension
Q2) For the normal-weight woman, weight gain ideally follows a pattern of ____ during the first trimester and ____ per week thereafter.
A)1 pound; 2 pounds
B)1½ pounds; 2 pounds
C)2 pounds; 1 pound
D)2½ pounds; 2 pounds
E)3½ pounds; 1 pound
Q3) Describe the condition known as preeclampsia. What are its risk factors and what is known about its prevention?
Q4) The ropelike structure through which the fetus's veins and arteries reach the placenta is called the ____________________.
Q5) Describe the risks associated with caffeine intake during pregnancy.
Q6) Define gestational diabetes and list risk factors. How is it managed?
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Q1) Approximately how many kcal per day does an average 6 year old need to obtain?
A)400
B)800
C)1600
D)2400
E)3200
Q2) Which of the following feeding practices is recommended for preterm infants?
A)They should be fed exclusively on breast milk.
B)They should be fed on breast milk enriched in a 1 to 1 ratio with cow's milk.
C)They should be fed preterm breast milk, occasionally fortified with specific nutrients.
D)They should be fed only on special formulas because the nutrient content of breast milk is too low.
E)They should be fed raw cow's milk fortified with infant vitamins.
Q3) What is the chief protein in human breast milk?
A)Casein
B)Lactose
C)Albumin
D)Alpha-lactalbumin
E)Lactoferrin

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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of alcohol use in the elderly?
A)Binge drinking is more frequent in the elderly than in younger persons.
B)The proportion of binge drinkers in greater in the elderly than any other age group.
C)In elderly individuals, unlike in younger individuals, alcohol use is not associated with other risky behavior such as illicit drug use.
D)Alcohol withdrawal is much more difficult for older persons than for younger persons.
E)Elderly individuals are rarely successfully treated for alcohol abuse and dependence.
Q2) People who persistently restrict energy intake by 30% for 30 years can expect to increase longevity by up to how many years?
A)3
B)6
C)9
D)12
E)15
Q3) ____________________ is a person's age as estimated from her or his body's health and probable life expectancy.
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Q1) Explain the defining features and significance of the metabolic syndrome.
Q2) The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(n)
A)aorta.
B)plaque.
C)aneurysm.
D)diverticula.
E)pouch.
Q3) High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol.
Q4) Insulin resistance is defined as
A)reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin.
B)impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas.
C)increased destruction of insulin-producing cells.
D)increased persistence of insulin molecules in the blood.
E)relative excess of insulin-binding proteins in muscle tissue.
Q5) Compare and contrast the two major types of diabetes and the recommended nutrition therapy for each.
Q6) The most common form of cardiovascular disease is ____________________.
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Q1) The FDA has found that the vast majority of apple juice tested contains trace amounts of ___________________.
Q2) What term defines the measure of the probability and severity of harm?
A)Risk
B)Safety
C)Hazard
D)Toxicity
E)Danger
Q3) A few years ago a foodborne illness outbreak was reported by a national restaurant chain. After dozens of people were infected, authorities determined that employees of the restaurant had used the same knife to cut raw meat products as they did for produce items such as lettuce. Which of the following terms most likely describes the employees' neglect that led to the patrons of the restaurant becoming ill?
A)Contamination
B)Cross-contamination
C)Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
D)Inappropriate monitoring of food temperatures
E)Improper cooking procedures
Q4) How does genetic engineering differ from traditional selective breeding?
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Q1) Which of the following would you expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor?
A)Edema
B)Low levels of ADH
C)Muscle wasting
D)Baggy-appearing skin
E)"Match stick" arms and legs
Q2) Approximately what percentage of all energy use in the U.S. is devoted to the food industry?
A)5
B)10
C)20
D)30
E)40
Q3) Discuss the magnitude and impact of food waste.
Q4) Discuss the advantages of obtaining foods grown locally versus globally.
Q5) Define the subcategories of food security and food insecurity.
Q6) Discuss the environmental impact of raising livestock.
Q7) List 3 ways the food industry could substantially reduce fossil fuel use and still remain sustainable.
Q8) Discuss the effects of water misuse in agricultural production.
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