Applied Nutrition
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition focuses on the practical application of nutritional science to promote health and manage disease in individuals and communities. This course explores the role of nutrients in human physiology, dietary assessment techniques, and the development of nutrition interventions tailored to various populations and life stages. Students will analyze current dietary guidelines, evaluate the impact of sociocultural and economic factors on food choices, and gain hands-on experience in designing meal plans and nutrition education programs. Emphasis is placed on translating scientific research into actionable strategies for improving nutritional status and supporting well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Krauses Food and the Nutrition Care Process 13th Edition by L. Kathleen Mahan
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915 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Digestion, Absorption, Transport, and Excretion of Nutrients
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial genuses tend to occur the most frequently in the adult colon?
A)Bacteroides
B)Escherichia
C)Lactobacilli
D)Helicobacter
Answer: A
Q2) Which intestinal hormone is released in the presence of fat and glucose and results in delayed gastric emptying and satiety?
A)Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP)
B)Cholecystokinin (CCK)
C)Gastrin
D)Pancreatic lipase
Answer: A
Q3) What happens to cellulose and lignin as they go through the GI tract?
A)They are converted into glucose before absorption.
B)They are converted into glucose and absorbed by active transport.
C)They are excreted in the feces unchanged.
D)They are excreted in the feces as glucose.
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Energy
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT increase the thermic effect of food (TEF)?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Fat
C)Regular eating schedule
D)Spicy foods
Answer: B
Q2) What is the clinical method for measuring human energy expenditure?
A)Bomb calorimetry
B)Indirect calorimetry
C)Doubly labeled water
D)Direct calorimetry
Answer: B
Q3) In research regarding the measurement of activity-related energy expenditure, what method is used to validate uniaxial and triaxial monitors of human movement?
A)Doubly labeled water
B)Indirect calorimetry
C)Heart rate monitor
D)Physical activity questionnaire
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Nutrients and Their Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these are primary sources of trans-fatty acids?
A)Vegetable oils and butterfat
B)Milk and eggs
C)Flaxseed and canola oil
D)Margarine and commercially fried foods
Answer: D
Q2) In vitamin D metabolism, which version of vitamin D is produced by the liver and then transported to the kidney?
A)7-Dehydrocholesterol
B)Cholecalciferol
C)25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
D)Calcitriol
Answer: C
Q3) Which fall into the category of isoprenoids?
A)Glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid
B)Lycopene and carotenoid
C)Cerebrosides and gangliosides
D)Bile acid
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Intake: Analysis of the Diet
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Q1) The Geriatric Nutritional Risk Index (GNRI) relies on ____________ .
A)24-hour diet recall
B)Reliable usual body weight
C)The Lorentz formula for ideal body weight
D)Having a NIA available
Q2) The purpose of nutritional screening is to
A)identify patients at nutritional risk.
B)determine a patient's nutritional problem.
C)categorize patients as high or moderate risk.
D)assess the patient's nutritional status.
Q3) A nutrient intake analysis (NIA) or calorie count should be recorded for _____ hours.
A)48
B)72
C)24
D)36
Q4) Malnutrition was uncovered as a major problem in U.S.hospitals in the 1970s, but this is no longer a problem.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Assessment: Nutritional Genomics
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Q1) In protein synthesis, what subcomponent of DNA directs the inclusion of a specific amino acid within the protein?
A)The gene
B)The intron
C)The codon
D)The exon
Q2) In regard to nutritional assessment, which of the following will nutrition professionals need to be able to read to identify a patient's potential susceptibility to diseases?
A)Phenotype
B)Genotype
C)Karyotype
D)Genomic imprint
Q3) Within a strand of DNA, which of the following nucleotide base pairings is possible?
A)Adenine-guanine
B)Cytosine-thymine
C)Adenine-uracil
D)Cytosine-guanine
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Chapter 6: Clinical: Inflammation, Physical and Functional Assessment
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Q1) Measurement of head circumference is useful as an indicator of A)malnutrition in children younger than 3 years of age.
B)non-nutritional abnormalities in children younger than 3 years of age.
C)nutritional deficiencies in children older than 3 years of age.
D)non-nutritional abnormalities in adults.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a physical sign of overhydration?
A)Weight gain over 2 to 3 days
B)Peripheral edema
C)Decreased skin turgor
D)Ascites
Q3) What physical examination technique is being used when a doctor listens for bowel sounds?
A)Auscultation
B)Inspection
C)Palpation
D)Percussion
Q4) The Functional Nutritional Assessment includes assessment of tissue reserves of key nutrients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Water, Electrolytes, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The kidneys compensate for a loss of body water by excreting
A)additional fluid and electrolytes.
B)additional electrolytes.
C)more concentrated urine.
D)more dilute urine.
Q2) In the extracellular space, what is the primary buffer system?
A)Phosphate
B)Bicarbonate and carbonic acid
C)Hydrogen
D)Protein
Q3) Sodium is increased the most by the intake of A)fresh vegetables.
B)frozen vegetables.
C)fresh meats.
D)luncheon meats.
Q4) What is the primary disturbance when respiratory alkalosis occurs?
A)Increased bicarbonate
B)Increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide
C)Decreased bicarbonate
D)Decreased partial pressure of carbon dioxide
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Chapter 8: Clinical: Biochemical Assessment
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Q1) Which laboratory value would be added in a comprehensive metabolic panel (compared with a BMP)?
A)Albumin
B)Glucose
C)Blood urea nitrogen
D)White blood cells
Q2) In urinalysis tests, which of the following is expected to appear at some level in normal people?
A)Glucose
B)Ketones
C)Blood
D)Protein
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with a decrease in prealbumin levels?
A)Malnutrition
B)Inflammation
C)Protein-wasting disease of the gastrointestinal tract
D)Zinc deficiency
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Chapter 9: Clinical: Food-Drug Interactions
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Q1) Hypertensive patients who are taking loop diuretics for reduction of blood pressure may experience hypokalemia.Which other electrolyte does NOT need to be monitored for a potential secondary nutrient deficiency?
A)Magnesium
B)Sodium
C)Phosphorus
D)Calcium
Q2) Which of the following drugs will produced an Antabuse (disulfiram)-like reaction when taken with ethanol?
A)Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B)Captopril (Capoten)
C)Paclitaxel (Taxol)
D)Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a possible side effect of use of corticosteroids?
A)Bone loss
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Hypotension
D)Obesity
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Chapter 10: Behavioral-Environmental: The Individual in the Community
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Q1) Which of the following pathogens has been identified by the CDC as potentially usable by bioterrorists?
A)Salmonella spp.
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Bacillus cereus
D)Listeria monocytogenes
Q2) While performing a community assessment, you determine that you need information about local cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.Which of the following would be an appropriate resource for this information?
A)Census Bureau
B)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
C)Department of Health and Human Services
D)Area Office on Aging
Q3) Which of these food programs is NOT funded through the USDA Food and Nutrition Service?
A)Child and Adult Care Food Program
B)Commodity Supplemental Food Program
C)Emergency Food Assistance Program
D)Emergency Food and Shelter Program
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Chapter 11: Overview of Nutrition Diagnosis and Intervention
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Q1) In the hospital, _____ mL/day of fluid should be provided for the average healthy adult.
A)500 to 800
B)1000 to 1500
C)1800 to 2500
D)2500 to 3500
Q2) Which of the following does NOT follow the guidelines for proper documentation in a medical record?
A)Add entries in chronological order.
B)Use correction fluid to make corrections.
C)The first word of every statement should be capitalized.
D)Include the date, time, and service with each entry.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of electronic health records?
A)Easier accessibility for health care team members
B)Improved legibility of documentation
C)Easier to change and update forms used for documentation
D)Increased efficiency in documentation and providing care
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Chapter 12: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Planning the Diet With Cultural Competency
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Q1) "Low fat" on a food label means that food
A)contains 25% less fat than a reference product.
B)contains less than or equal to 3 g of fat per serving.
C)contains one-third fewer fat calories than a reference product.
D)is naturally low in fat.
Q2) Pork is prohibited in which of the following religions?
A)Jewish, Muslim, Seventh Day Adventist
B)Catholic, Muslim, Buddhist
C)Mormon, Jewish, Muslim
D)Mormon, Hindu, Seventh Day Adventist
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be required to have a nutrition label?
A)Canned corn
B)Hot dogs
C)Fresh ground turkey
D)American cheese
Q4) Nutrient intakes are most likely to be low in
A)populations living in the South.
B)preschool children.
C)those older than 65 years.
D)those living below the poverty line.
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Chapter 13: Food and Nutrient Delivery: Bioactive
Substances and Integrative Care
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Q1) What is the term that refers to the dislocation of part of the body, which is thought to interfere with normal nerve function?
A)Moxibustion
B)Subluxation
C)Meridian
D)Pharmacognosy
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that there has been an increased usage of CAM in the United States?
A)CAM is not as expensive as conventional medicine.
B)CAM is used when conventional medicine has little to offer in effective treatment.
C)CAM is used when conventional medicine has significant risks and side effects.
D)CAM has a history of efficacy in treatment of some conditions.
Q3) The most commonly used dietary supplement in the United States is a _____ supplement.
A)calcium
B)vitamin C
C)vitamin E
D)general multivitamin-mineral supplement
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Chapter 14: Food-Nutrient Delivery: Nutrition Support
Methods
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Q1) Feeding tube diameter is measured in A)French size.
B)millimeters.
C)inches.
D)centimeters.
Q2) In general, a patient's parenteral feeding can be discontinued when enteral nutrition meets _____ of the patient's need.
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)100%
Q3) Which condition would most likely require parenteral nutrition as the medical nutrition therapy?
A)Severe acute pancreatitis
B)HIV/AIDS
C)Failure to thrive
D)Oral or esophageal trauma
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Chapter 15: Interventions: Education and Counseling for Behavior Change
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Q1) Which of the following techniques is appropriate for use with a patient ready to change behavior?
A)Elicit self-motivational statements.
B)Negotiate change.
C)Establish an action plan.
D)Develop discrepancy.
Q2) If a counseling session ends with the client not ready to change, which of the following should the counselor do?
A)Establish goals for the client.
B)Arrange for follow-up contact.
C)Persuade the client to perform some change.
D)Express disappointment with the client.
Q3) What tool can be used to assess a client's readiness to change?
A)An adherence ruler
B)A food diary
C)A weight scale
D)Food models
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) For managing leg cramps in pregnancy, which of the following minerals has the most scientific support for its use?
A)Manganese
B)Potassium
C)Calcium
D)Magnesium
Q2) Which of these statements is NOT true about colostrum?
A)It is higher in fat than mature milk.
B)It is higher in immunoglobulins than mature milk.
C)It is higher in protein than mature milk.
D)It is lower in lactose than mature milk.
Q3) According to the RDA, how much additional protein above that of a nonpregnant woman should a pregnant woman consume during the second half of her pregnancy?
A)10 g
B)15 g
C)25 g
D)35 g
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Chapter 17: Nutrition During Infancy
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Q1) Which feeding practice will avoid the development of tooth decay in infants?
A)Give the infant a bottle with fruit juice at bedtime.
B)Give the infant a bottle with milk at bedtime.
C)Put the infant to bed without a bottle.
D)Give the infant a bottle at bedtime only when he or she appears fussy.
Q2) Why are infants particularly susceptible to developing dehydration?
A)Their mass-to-surface ratio is low.
B)Their insulation is poor, resulting in increased water loss.
C)Their renal concentrating ability is less than that of older children.
D)The increased liquidity of their stools results in greater fluid loss.
Q3) What would be a behavior demonstrated by a 7- to 9-month-old to indicate that she is sated and finished eating?
A)She falls asleep.
B)She pays more attention to her surroundings.
C)She plays with or throws her utensils.
D)She hands her cup or bottle to her mother.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition in Childhood
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Q1) What is the American Academy of Pediatrics' recommendation on the use of supplements for children?
A)Routine multiple vitamin and mineral supplements should be given.
B)No routine supplementation is needed except fluoride in nonfluoridated areas.
C)Maximal doses of vitamins and minerals should be given because it is uncertain that children will eat enough of the nutrients in food.
D)Supplements should not be restricted because children are growing so rapidly that overdosing is unlikely.
Q2) A child's BMI is plotted on a growth chart at the 90th percentile.How would this child's BMI be interpreted?
A)The child has a normal BMI.
B)The child is at risk for becoming overweight.
C)The child is overweight.
D)The child is obese.
Q3) What is an appropriate food serving size for a 2-year-old child?
A)2 tsp
B)2 Tbsp
C)1/2 cup
D)1 cup
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nutrition in Adolescence
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Q1) How can an adolescent plan a vegetarian diet that is in line with the DRIs and Dietary Guidelines for Americans?
A)By focusing on a vegan diet
B)By ensuring adequate legumes, nuts, and whole grains
C)By including fish
D)By including eggs and dairy foods
Q2) When does the greatest increase in height during puberty occur?
A)Over the 18- to 24-month "growth spurt" period
B)Continually over the entire time
C)During the first year of puberty
D)Primarily toward the end of puberty
Q3) An adolescent female of gynecologic age of 3 years becomes pregnant.Her prepregnancy BMI was 19.0.According to the IOM, how much weight should she try to gain during her pregnancy?
A)15 pounds
B)Up to 25 pounds
C)Up to 35 pounds
D)Up to 40 pounds
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Chapter 20: Nutrition in the Adult Years
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Q1) Which of the following is an effect of the decreased circulation of estrogen associated with menopause?
A)Increase in bone remodeling
B)Increase in HDL levels
C)Increase in LDL levels
D)Increase in energy levels
Q2) Which of the following is a comorbid diagnosis associated with obesity?
A)Osteoporosis
B)Premenstrual syndrome
C)Type 2 diabetes mellitus
D)Chronic lung disease
Q3) The leading cause of death and debilitation among adults in the United States is A)accidents
B)cancer
C)diabetes
D)Heart disease
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22
Chapter 21: Nutrition in Aging
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Q1) What is the multivitamin recommendation for patients with pressure ulcers?
A)Should be given with all stages of pressure ulcers
B)Should only be given with stage IV pressure ulcers
C)Should be given with stage III and stage IV pressure ulcers
D)There is no recommendation for multivitamins and pressure ulcers
Q2) The 2010 health care reform legislation expands Medicare to include
A)annual wellness visit.
B)education and counseling.
C)expanded coverage for reimbursement for dietitians.
D)all of the above.
Q3) In Medicare benefits, for which of the following are MNT services NOT included?
A)Preventive services
B)Cancer
C)Diabetes
D)Pre-end-stage kidney disease
Q4) Presbycusis is
A)inability to swallow.
B)loss of the sense of taste.
C)hearing loss.
D)lack of dentition.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Weight Management
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Q1) Which enzyme removes dietary triglyceride from the blood?
A)Hormone-sensitive lipase
B)Lipoprotein lipase
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Insulin
Q2) Which of the following statements is true in regard to diets that severely limit carbohydrates?
A)They result in long-term maintenance of weight loss.
B)They result in weight loss in the first 6 months but are not effective after 1 year.
C)They are not deficient in nutrients.
D)The initial weight loss is fat, not water.
Q3) What methods of weight reduction have the highest rates of success?
A)Diet combined with exercise
B)Diet combined with lifestyle modification
C)Diet, exercise, and lifestyle modification all combined
D)Exercise combined with lifestyle modification
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Chapter 23: Nutrition in Eating Disorders
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Q1) In which eating disorder might a person exercise excessively after an episode of binge eating?
A)Anorexia nervosa
B)Bulimia nervosa
C)Eating disorder not otherwise specified
D)Binge-eating disorder
Q2) Which is a typical personality characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa?
A)Extroverted
B)Introverted
C)Underachiever
D)Easygoing
Q3) How do anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa commonly affect the patient's metabolic rate?
A)They increase the metabolic rate higher than normal.
B)They decrease the metabolic rate lower than normal.
C)They have no effect on metabolic rate, maintaining it at the normal level.
D)They promote an extreme increase in metabolic rate.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition in Exercise and Sports Performance
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Q1) How does intensity of the exercise affect the use of fuel sources?
A)As intensity decreases, carbohydrate is the larger fraction of the energy source.
B)As intensity increases, fatty acids are the larger fraction of the energy source.
C)As intensity increases, carbohydrate is the larger fraction of the energy source.
D)As intensity decreases, fatty acids are the larger fraction of the energy source.
Q2) Carbohydrate intake immediately after a training session is important because
A)energy stores are depleted.
B)carbohydrate is needed to reverse the feeling of fatigue.
C)hypoglycemia is a common end result of prolonged exercise.
D)the most effective glycogen replacement occurs after a training session.
Q3) Which of the following activities relies heavily on the anaerobic pathway in muscle cells?
A)Jogging
B)Sprinting
C)Hiking
D)Dancing
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Chapter 25: Nutrition and Bone Health
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Q1) What is the most beneficial type of exercise to include in an exercise program for a patient at risk for osteoporosis?
A)Swimming
B)Weight bearing
C)Non-weight bearing
D)Isometric
Q2) Calcium and phosphate ions in a ratio of ________are needed for bone mineralization.
A)2:1
B)4:1
C)1:1
D)1:2
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of type II or age-related osteoporosis?
A)Occurs after 50 years of age
B)Loss of height occurs
C)Only affects trabecular bone
D)Rarely occurs in males
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Chapter 26: Nutrition for Oral and Dental Health
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Q1) Which can reduce the cariogenicity of a meal when it follows the meal?
A)Eating dessert
B)Eating a snack of pretzels
C)Chewing sugar-free gum
D)Eating fruit
Q2) The ingestion of which of the following is most likely to promote bacterial activity that promotes dental caries?
A)Sucrose, glucose, and fructose
B)Xylitol, mannitol, and lactose
C)Aspartame, saccharin, and cyclamate
D)Xylitol, saccharin, and galactose
Q3) Under which conditions should an infant receive fluoride supplementation?
A)At 6 months if breastfed in a fluoridated community
B)At 6 months if breastfed and given water in a fluoridated community
C)At 3 months if breastfed in a fluoridated community
D)At 3 months if breastfed and given water in a fluoridated community
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Chapter 27: Mnt for Food Allergy and Food Intolerance
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Q1) Infants with a genetic predisposition to atopic disease have an increased probability of developing food allergies.Which of the following may help reduce the likelihood of the infant developing food allergies?
A)Provide only breast milk to the infant for the first 6 months.
B)Provide only breast milk and cereal for the first 6 months.
C)Provide cereal between breast milk feedings.
D)Provide diluted cereal and formula for the first 6 months.
Q2) In what types of foods are the most common food allergens found?
A)High-simple-carbohydrate foods
B)High-protein animal foods
C)High-protein plant or marine foods
D)High-saturated fat foods
Q3) The first diagnostic tool to use in diagnosing food allergy is
A)A detailed clinical history
B)Biochemical tests
C)Immunologic tests
D)Oral food challenge
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Chapter 28: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Upper
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT associated with dyspepsia?
A)Diet
B)Abnormal gastric emptying
C)Being underweight
D)Upper abdominal discomfort
Q2) Which type of gastric surgery seems to have the most post-surgical complications?
A)Billroth I
B)Billroth II
C)Vagotomy
D)Roux-en-Y procedure
Q3) What causes the hypoglycemia that occurs after meals in patients who have had a gastrectomy?
A)Poor dietary intake
B)Rapid digestion and absorption of sugars and elevation of insulin levels
C)Pancreatic insufficiency
D)Elevated levels of secretin and pancreozymin
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Chapter 29: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Lower
Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) What should be in the solution used for fluid replacement for acute diarrhea in infants and small children?
A)Vitamins, minerals, and electrolytes
B)Glucose and electrolytes in water
C)Chemically defined formula
D)Lactose-free formula
Q2) Which of the following should be included in the advice given to a patient regarding eating a high-fiber diet?
A)Increase polyunsaturated fat intake.
B)Make sure to get more vitamin C.
C)Drink at least 2 L of water each day.
D)Make sure to get more iron.
Q3) Blind loop syndrome is
A)an abnormal passage between two internal organs.
B)the presence of excessive amounts of gas in the GI tract.
C)a disorder of bacterial overgrowth with resulting malabsorption.
D)a malabsorptive condition resulting from massive bowel resection.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Liver, Biliary System,
and Exocrine Pancreas Disorders
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Q1) How is serum alkaline phosphatase used to diagnose liver disease
A)It is decreased in cholestasis.
B)It is increased in cholestasis.
C)It indicates prolonged bleeding time.
D)It precedes jaundice.
Q2) A deficiency of which nutrient is associated with Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A)Copper
B)Essential fatty acid
C)Tryptophan
D)Thiamin
Q3) Which of the following is used in the medical treatment of ascites?
A)Shunt placement
B)Whipple procedure
C)Paracentesis
D)Shock-wave lithotripsy
Q4) Which of the following biochemical measures is a test of the liver's excretion?
A)Serum alkaline phosphatase
B)Direct serum bilirubin
C)Alanine aminotransferase
D)Prothrombin time
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Chapter 31: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Diabetes Mellitus and
Hypoglycemia of Nondiabetic Origin
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Q1) Which of the following statements about glycemic index (GI) is TRUE?
A)Consuming low-GI meals (<70) improves overall glycemic control.
B)Specific carbohydrate foods can have a variable GI.
C)When compared with an equal amount of starch, sucrose promotes a greater glycemic response.
D)The GI of glucose is lower than the GI of white bread.
Q2) HbA c represents the
A)glycosylation or glycation of serum proteins.
B)glycosylation or glycation of hemoglobin in red blood cells.
C)glycosylation or glycation of serum-free hemoglobin.
D)formation of hemoglobin-cholesterol linkage in blood.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a potential acute complication of type 1 DM?
A)Hypoglycemia
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Ketoacidosis
D)Blood vessel damage
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Chapter 32: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Thyroid and Related Disorders
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Q1) Which of these is NOT a product of the thyroid?
A)Thyroxine (T4)
B)Calcitonin
C)Reverse T3 (rT3)
D)Triiodothyronine (T3)
Q2) Thyroid heath in some adults can be improved by increasing the conversion of T4 to T3.This can be accomplished by:
A)supplementing with tyrosine.
B)correcting zinc deficiencies with zinc glycinate or zinc citrate.
C)increasing naturally occurring flavonoids in the diet.
D)cautiously supplementing with lipoic acid.
Q3) Low energy, cold hands and feet, fatigue, hypercholesterolemia, muscle pain, depression, and a positive test result for thyroid peroxidase antibodies could all be indicative of what condition?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Graves' disease
C)Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D)Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
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Chapter 33: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Anemia
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Q1) What causes pernicious anemia?
A)Problem with vitamin B12 intake or absorption
B)A loss of blood through the gastrointestinal tract
C)A lack of iron from both heme and nonheme iron sources
D)Interference with pyridoxine metabolism
Q2) After absorption, iron is transported by A)hemoglobin.
B)serum albumin.
C)plasma transferrin.
D)Protoporphyrin.
Q3) Which of the following food groups should be limited to maximize the absorption of iron?
A)Meat, fish, and poultry
B)Ascorbic acid, tea, and vegetable fiber
C)Vegetable fiber, tea, and soybeans
D)Fish, unrefined cereals, and egg yolks
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35
Chapter 34: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Cardiovascular Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the factors used in the Framingham Point Scores for determining 10-year CHD risk?
A)Age
B)HDL
C)LDL
D)Smoking
Q2) Which of the following causes blood pressure to increase?
A)Vasodilation
B)Decreased cardiac output
C)Decreased vascular resistance
D)Increased peripheral resistance
Q3) Which mineral has been shown to improve (lower) blood pressure when consumed in adequate amounts?
A)Calcium
B)Magnesium
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Medical Nutrition Therapy for Pulmonary Disease
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Q1) Which vitamins are thought to be of particular importance in the prevention and treatment of bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
A)Pyridoxine, niacin, and folate
B)Vitamins A, C, and E
C)Folate, B12, and K
D)Thiamin, riboflavin, and vitamin D
Q2) Which of the following explains why nutritional wasting is commonly seen in patients with COPD?
A)Increased energy expenditure, decreased energy intake, and impaired oxygenation
B)Decreased oxygen consumption and increased energy expenditure
C)Decreased energy expenditure and decreased oxygen consumption
D)Increased oxygen consumption and increased energy intake
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of pulse oximetry?
A)It is a pulmonary function test.
B)It gives information on lung volume.
C)It uses light waves to measure oxygen saturation of arterial blood.
D)It measures the ability of the respiratory system to exchange O2 and CO2.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Renal Disorders
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Q1) During which stage of chronic kidney disease does the National Kidney Foundation (NKF) recommend that a protein intake of 0.6 g/kg/day be initiated?
A)For acute kidney injury
B)When HD is started
C)When the GFR falls below 25 mL/min
D)Protein should never be as low as 0.6 g/kg/day.
Q2) Which type of dialysis treatment is usually done at night?
A)Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
B)Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis
C)Hemodialysis
D)Intermittent dialysis
Q3) A complication of intradialytic parenteral nutrition that is NOT commonly associated with usual PN is
A)vitamin deficiency.
B)hypophosphatemia.
C)infection.
D)hypoglycemia.
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Chapter 37: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Cancer
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Q1) Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
A)should never be treated with parenteral nutrition.
B)always occurs immediately after transplant.
C)is a minor complication of chemotherapy.
D)is a major complication seen primarily after allogenic transplants.
Q2) Which dietary modification would be used when a patient has neutropenia?
A)Provide bland liquids and soft solids.
B)Avoid strong flavors, acidic, or spicy foods.
C)Provide special handling of raw meats
D)Provide sauces and gravies with foods.
Q3) For which of the following problems associated with cancer treatment should a high-calorie diet supplemented with calorically dense foods be provided?
A)Constipation
B)Xerostomia
C)Anorexia
D)Neutropenia
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Chapter 38: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for HIV and AIDS
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Q1) What period of disease progression does acute HIV infection make up?
A)The period from transmission to up to 10 years after infection
B)The period from transmission of HIV to the production of detectable antibodies
C)The period between normal and less than 500 CD4+ cells/mm3.
D)The period when CD4 decrease fall to even lower levels and the infection becomes symptomatic and progresses to AIDS
Q2) Opportunistic infections seen in patients with AIDS may increase the presence of malnutrition because of
A)further compromise of the immune system.
B)a reduction in available iron for the WBCs.
C)a reduction in RBCs, causing inadequate oxygenation of the tissues.
D)a decreased oncotic pressure in the intravascular space.
Q3) What is the primary adverse effect of some kinds of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM)?
A)Drug interactions
B)Increase in side effects and disease progression
C)Decreased adherence
D)Micronutrient malabsorption
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Chapter 39: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Metabolic
Stress: Sepsis, Trauma, Burns, and Surgery
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Q1) In what type of patient should immune modulating formulas be avoided?
A)Patients undergoing GI surgery
B)Patients with sepsis
C)Patients with diarrhea
D)Burn patients
Q2) How deep is a second-degree burn?
A)Muscle
B)Epidermis
C)Dermis
D)Subcutaneous tissue
Q3) Which of the following is a criterion in the diagnosis of SIRS?
A)Shock
B)Ileus
C)Bandemia
D)Multiple trauma
Q4) Low albumin in a critically ill patient is caused by
A)inadequate protein intake.
B)illness, injury, and inflammation.
C)inadequate calorie intake.
D)inadequate fluid intake.
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Chapter 40: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Rheumatic Disease
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Q1) With what do the plasma copper levels seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis correlate?
A)Dietary intake of copper
B)Type of medication
C)Degree of joint inflammation
D)Degree of malabsorption and diarrhea
Q2) What is the role of prostacyclin or PGI ?
A)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE1
B)Converts arachidonic acid into PGE2
C)Promotes platelet aggregation
D)Inhibits platelet aggregation
Q3) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
A)include the drug Tylenol.
B)work by inhibiting the COX-1 enzyme.
C)work by blocking interleukin.
D)have significant catabolic effects.
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42
Chapter 41: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Neurologic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following foods is easiest to swallow for patients experiencing difficulty swallowing?
A)Thin liquids
B)Room temperature cream soups
C)Lukewarm cooked cereals diluted with milk
D)Cool, soft textured foods with sauce or gravy
Q2) Which of the following is characterized by a cholesterol plaque within an artery that ruptures and promotes platelet aggregation to clog an already narrowed artery?
A)Intracranial hemorrhage
B)Embolic stroke
C)Thrombotic stroke
D)Transient ischemic attack
Q3) For which condition might a ketogenic diet be used in treatment?
A)Myasthenia gravis
B)Migraine headache
C)Epilepsy
D)Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Psychiatric Conditions
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Q1) What mental health disorder is characterized by the development of anxiety or dissociation within 1 month after a traumatic event?
A)Acute stress disorder
B)Adjustment disorder
C)Anxiety disorder
D)Dissociative disorder
Q2) Which of the following groups is at high risk for deficiency of DHA?
A)Formula-fed infants
B)Pregnant women
C)Elderly women
D)Adolescent girls
Q3) Which of the following may NOT be an adequate source of omega-3 fatty acids?
A)Fish oil-supplemented margarine
B)Omega-3 eggs
C)Foods supplemented with flax
D)Foods supplemented with menhaden
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Chapter 43: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for
Low-Birth-Weight
Infants
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Q1) How much fluid should be provided to an LBW infant during the first day of life?
A)40 to 85 mL/kg
B)50 to 100 mL/kg
C)80 to 105 mL/kg
D)1000 mL total
Q2) The metabolic rate of the premature newborn is _____ kcal/kg/day.
A)30
B)50
C)90
D)105
Q3) An infant has a birth weight below the 10th percentile, but her linear and head growths are between the 10th and 00th percentiles.This infant would be classified as A)AGA.
B)SGA with asymmetric IUGR.
C)SGA with symmetric IUGR.
D)only SGA.
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Chapter 44: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Genetic
Metabolic Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the enzyme deficiencies associated with urea cycle disorders?
A)Ornithine transcarbamylase
B)HMG-CoA reductase
C)Carbamyl-phosphate synthetase
D)Arginase
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the possible infant outcomes of PKU mothers with elevated phenylalanine levels?
A)Liver dysfunction
B)Microcephaly
C)Congenital heart disease
D)Low birth weight
Q3) For infants and children younger than 10 years of age with PKU, which amino acid has to be supplemented in the diet?
A)Cysteine
B)Methionine
C)Phenylalanine
D)Tyrosine
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Chapter 45: Medical and Nutrition Therapy for Developmental Disabilities
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Q1) An obturator is a
A)feeding device.
B)cover for a cleft palate.
C)measuring device useful for children with scoliosis or contractures.
D)surgical device used to restore and hold the spinal cord within the spinal column.
Q2) Which developmental disorder is characterized by the child having an insatiable appetite?
A)Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
B)Spina bifida
C)Down syndrome
D)Prader-Willi syndrome
Q3) Children with which developmental disorder are most likely to experience oral motor problems?
A)Prader-Willi syndrome
B)Spina bifida
C)Autism
D)Cerebral palsy
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