Applied Nutrition Exam Bank
Course
Introduction
Applied Nutrition explores the practical applications of nutritional science in promoting health and preventing disease. The course covers the digestion, absorption, and metabolism of nutrients, the nutritional needs across the life cycle, and the role of nutrition in managing chronic and acute health conditions. Students learn to assess dietary intake, develop meal plans, and understand current dietary guidelines and policies. Emphasis is placed on translating scientific research into actionable nutritional strategies for individuals and communities, with consideration for cultural, socioeconomic, and ethical factors influencing food choices and health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney
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20 Chapters
2299 Verified Questions
2299 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Overview of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A subclinical nutrient deficiency is defined as one that ____.
A)shows overt signs
B)is in the early stages
C)shows resistance to treatment
D)is similar to a secondary deficiency
E)is of acute onset
Answer: B
Q2) A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams?
A)5
B)50
C)100
D)150
E)200
Answer: C
Q3) Foods that provide health benefits beyond their nutrient contributions are called ____________________ foods.
Answer: functional
Q4) Foods associated with a particular culture are called ____________________ foods.
Answer: ethnic
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Planning a Healthy Diet
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Sample Questions
Q1) To calculate the nutrient density of a food item, divide the ____________________ by the ____________________.
Answer: milligrams; kcalories
Q2) Which nutrient would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread?
A)zinc
B)folate
C)riboflavin
D)thiamin
E)sodium
Answer: A
Q3) Applying the principle of variety in food planning helps ensure the benefits of ____.
A)moderation
B)vegetarianism
C)nutrient density
D)dilution of harmful substances
E)abundance
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Digestion, Absorption, and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which substance regulates the pH of the stomach?
A)Gastrin
B)Insulin
C)Secretin
D)Cholecystokinin
E)Glucagon
Answer: A
Q2) The presence of fat in the intestines stimulates cells of the intestinal wall to release
A)lipase
B)gastrin
C)secretin
D)cholecystokinin
E)glucagon
Answer: D
Q3) One of the major causes of ulcers is infection with ____________________.
Answer: Helicobacter pylori or H. pylori
Q4) ____________________ responds to fat or protein in the small intestine and stimulates both the pancreas and gallbladder.
Answer: Cholecystokinin
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Chapter 4: The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches, and Fibers
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ is a pair of two glucose molecules.
Q2) A "functional fiber" is one that ____.
A)occurs naturally in the intact plant
B)performs a specific function in the plant
C)is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect
D)is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals
E)is a manufactured food additive used in refined foods.
Q3) Identify and discuss methods for reducing the intake of added sugars.
Q4) Which statement is true of diabetes?
A)Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2.
B)Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin overload diabetes.
C)Diabetes is caused by an excessive intake of dietary carbohydrates.
D)Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake.
E)Type 2 diabetes almost invariably progresses to become Type 1.
Q5) Which statement is true of hypoglycemia?
A)It is treated with insulin injections.
B)It is aggravated by high-fiber foods.
C)It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition.
D)It rarely occurs in otherwise healthy people.
E)It is quite common in teenagers but less so in adults and older adults.
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Chapter 5: The Lipids: Triglycerides, Phospholipids, and
Sterols
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which product has the highest percentage of its fat in polyunsaturated form?
A)Butter
B)Corn oil
C)Beef tallow
D)Coconut oil
E)Palm oil
Q2) Surveys show that U.S. adults' average intake of fat as a percentage of total energy intake is ____.
A)14%
B)24%
C)34%
D)44%
E)54%
Q3) The results of blood tests that reveal a person's total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a ____.
A)lipid profile
B)circulating fat count
C)personal lipids count
D)degenerative disease assessment
E)lipid balance ratio
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Chapter 6: Protein: Amino Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is ____.
A)insulin
B)tryptophan
C)hemoglobin
D)disulfide bridges
E)valine
Q2) Which item is a nonessential amino acid in human nutrition?
A)Proline
B)Threonine
C)Methionine
D)Tryptophan
E)Phenylalanine
Q3) What is a limiting amino acid? What are the four amino acids most likely to be limiting in protein nutrition?
Q4) What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins?
A)30-50
B)50-60
C)60-70
D)70-90
E)90-99
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Chapter 7: Energy Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Cori cycle involves the interconversion of ____.
A)lactate and glucose
B)glucose and amino acids
C)pyruvate and citric acids
D)fatty acids and acetyl CoA
E)glycerol and glucose
Q2) The making of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources is called ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of the metabolism of specific macronutrients?
A)The rate of fat oxidation does not change when fat is eaten in excess.
B)The rate of protein oxidation does not change when protein is eaten in excess.
C)The rate of glucose oxidation does not change when carbohydrate is eaten in excess.
D)The conversion of dietary glucose to fat is the major pathway of carbohydrate utilization.
E)The conversion of protein to muscle is hastened when protein intake exceeds protein requirements.
Q4) Enzyme helpers are called ____________________.
Q5) Compare and contrast the metabolism of alcohol in men versus women.
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Chapter 8: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among the following groups, which has the highest metabolic rate?
A)Females
B)Older individuals
C)Younger individuals
D)People with smaller surface areas
E)Sedentary people
Q2) Which measurement may be used to calculate the amount of energy expended by the body?
A)Oxygen consumed
B)Total air exchanged
C)Intestinal gas expelled
D)Carbon dioxide consumed
E)Carbon dioxide exchange rate
Q3) A person is at high risk for signs of illness and diminished work capacity when the BMI first drops below ____.
A)12
B)14
C)17
D)18.5
E)20
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Chapter 9: Weight Management: Overweight, Obesity, and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a feature of energy metabolism in formerly obese people who have lost weight?
A)Their basal metabolic rates are higher after weight loss than during the obese state.
B)Energy expenditure is the same as in people who were never obese.
C)Energy requirements are lower than expected for their current body weight.
D)Energy expenditure is the same per kg body weight as compared with the obese state.
E)Their basal metabolic rate is effectively reset to a normal range by weight loss.
Q2) Fad diets often produce weight loss, at least initially, because they
A)dictate the correct distribution of energy among the macronutrients.
B)prevent rapid spikes and declines in one's blood glucose level.
C)don't require people to count kcal, and are thus easier to stick to.
D)are designed to limit energy intake to around 1200 kcal/day.
E)are so enthusiastically followed by individuals on them.
Q3) List five strategies common to people who have been successful at maintaining their weight loss.
Q4) Why are fad diets so appealing?
Q5) Discuss differences in fat cell metabolism between males and females.
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Chapter 10: The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contains the highest concentration of thiamin?
A)Pork
B)Fish
C)Beef
D)Chicken
E)Tofu
Q2) Older adults with B deficiencies may develop ____________________, a condition that damages the cells of the stomach.
Q3) What is the primary excretory route for the water-soluble vitamins?
A)Bile
B)Kidney
C)Intestine
D)Perspiration
E)Feces
Q4) A(n) ____________________ is a molecule with one or more unpaired electrons, which makes it unstable and highly reactive.
Q5) The niacin-deficiency disease, ____________________, produces the symptoms of diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia, and eventually death
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Q6) Water-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into ____________________.
Chapter 11: The Fat-Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E, and K
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance for vitamin D in individuals around 20 years of age?
A)5 mg
B)10 mg
C)15 mg
D)20 mg
E)50 mg
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D synthesis?
A)Tanning lamps and tanning booths do not stimulate vitamin D synthesis.
B)Sunscreens with sunburn protection factors of 2 and above prevent synthesis of vitamin D.
C)The ultraviolet rays of the sun are able to easily pierce heavy clouds and smog to promote vitamin D synthesis.
D)Dark-skinned people require longer sunlight exposure than light-skinned people to synthesize equivalent amounts of vitamin D
E)The risks of skin cancer often outweigh the benefits of sun exposure for very light-skinned people.
Q3) Explain the mechanism associated with the function of vitamin A in the visual response.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Water and 123 the Major Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define calcium rigor and calcium tetany. What role does dietary intake of calcium play in these disorders?
Q2) Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution?
A)Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
B)Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
C)Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
D)Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water
E)Vigorously shake a tablespoon of corn syrup or molasses in warm water
Q3) The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent
A)dehydration.
B)constipation.
C)osteoporosis.
D)hypertension.
E)diabetes.
Q4) What is calmodulin?
A)A calcium-binding protein
B)A drug that treats osteoporosis
C)A calcium supplement with high bioavailability
D)A form of calcium used in fortifying soy products
E)A drug that increases calcium availability
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Chapter 13: The Trace Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major cause of iron deficiency?
A)Blood loss
B)Poor nutrition
C)Hereditary defect
D)Parasitic infections of the GI tract
E)Exposure to environmental toxins
Q2) Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development?
A)Tin
B)Cobalt
C)Silicon
D)Barium
E)Boron
Q3) Discuss the health benefits and food sources of flavonoids.
Q4) The iron-storage protein ____________________ captures iron from food and stores it in the cells of the small intestine.
Q5) In ____________________, copper accumulates in the liver and brain, creating a life-threatening toxicity.
Q6) What are the benefits of zinc supplementation in developing countries?
Q7) Discuss the role of copper in the disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease.
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Chapter 14: Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the risks for hyperthermia and hypothermia in physically active people. What is the role of fluid support in prevention and treatment?
Q2) In weight training, muscle strength can best be emphasized by performing a A)low number of repetitions with heavy weight.
B)low number of repetitions with lighter weight.
C)high number of repetitions with heavy weight.
D)high number of repetitions with lighter weight.
E)sufficient repetitions with any weight to induce exhaustion.
Q3) When the rate of lactate production exceeds the rate of clearance, intense activity can be maintained for only
A)10 to 60 seconds.
B)1 to 3 minutes.
C)3 to 5 minutes.
D)5 to 10 minutes.
E)10 to 15 minutes.
Q4) Describe three factors that influence fat use during physical activity.
Q5) Explain the meaning and significance of cardiorespiratory endurance.
Page 16
Q6) Describe an appropriate diet for physically active people.
Q7) Discuss the need for water in maintaining physical performance.
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Chapter 15: Life Cycle Nutrition: Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of the placenta and how does it develop?
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in pregnancy?
A)The RDA increases by over 100%.
B)Calcium absorption increases substantially.
C)Supplements are required for most women due to the increased needs.
D)Transfer of calcium from maternal stores to the fetus increases rapidly at the beginning of the second trimester and falls during the last trimester.
E)During the last trimester, about 500 mg of calcium are transferred from the mother to the fetus each day.
Q3) Discuss important concerns for vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation.
Q4) What is the recommended increase in daily energy intake, in kcal, for the third trimester of pregnancy?
A)200
B)340
C)450
D)540
E)600
Q5) The embedding of the blastocyst in the inner lining of the uterus is called
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Chapter 16: Life Cycle Nutrition: Infancy, Childhood, and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the appropriate procedure for introducing new foods to infants.
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of nutrition and behavior in children?
A)Hyperactivity responds favorably to a low-sugar diet.
B)The adverse effects from caffeine first appear only after drinking 6 cans of cola in one day.
C)Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children's food preferences.
D)Because most children are sensitive to the stimulating effects of caffeine, they are able to control their intake of cola beverages.
E)Research indicates a strong relationship between food dyes and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
Q3) At what age does the normal infant first develop the ability to swallow nonliquid food?
A)1 to 2 months
B)2 to 4 months
C)4 to 6 months
D)6 to 9 months
E)9 to 12 months
Q4) Describe the physical and mental effects of lead exposure on children.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Life Cycle Nutrition: Adulthood and the Later Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the condition known as gout and discuss dietary interventions.
Q2) Which of the following is a proposed mechanism for energy restriction and improved longevity in animals?
A)Reduced oxidative stress
B)Increased metabolic rate
C)Enhanced lipid oxidation
D)Accelerated growth and development
E)Decreased physiologic arousal to stress
Q3) What nutrient is known to interfere significantly with the utilization of the antibiotic tetracycline?
A)EPA
B)Zinc
C)Calcium
D)Vitamin B
E)Sodium
Q4) Why are the elderly especially vulnerable to adverse drug-nutrient interactions?
Q5) ____________________ are damage to the skin and underlying tissues as a result of compression and poor circulation.
Page 19
Q6) ____________________ is a person's perceived physical and mental well-being.
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Chapter 18: Diet and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A)BMI of 26
B)Low LDL-cholesterol levels
C)High HDL-cholesterol levels
D)High C-reactive protein levels
E)Low blood triglyceride (VLDL) levels
Q2) Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure?
A)People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive.
B)Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups.
C)People less 30 years of age are most likely to be salt-sensitive.
D)Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure.
E)Of all racial groups, whites tend to be most salt sensitive.
Q3) High levels of ____________________ have proved to more accurately predict future heart attack than high LDL cholesterol.
Q4) Discuss the major risk factors for coronary heart disease.
Q5) Provide examples of the interactions of herbs with conventional drugs.
Q6) Outline the recommendations for reducing the risk of coronary heart disease.
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Chapter 19: Consumer Concerns About Foods and Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the movement of mercury in the food chain. What population groups are most susceptible to mercury toxicity? What are the recommendations concerning consumption of foods containing mercury?
Q2) Government agencies that set tolerance levels for pesticides first identify those foods commonly eaten in large quantities by A)children.
B)adolescents.
C)adults.
D)elderly.
E)animals used for food.
Q3) How does genetic engineering differ from traditional selective breeding?
Q4) A feature of sulfite food additives is that they
A)are frequently used in wines.
B)inhibit growth of most microbes.
C)interact with folate to inhibit its absorption.
D)are one of the few substances to have virtually no side effects.
E)are one of the most expensive additives.
Q5) What steps can consumers take to minimize nutrient losses during food preparation?
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Chapter 20: Hunger and the Global Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A)Integrated production
B)Progressive agriculture
C)Sustainable agriculture
D)Resource management production
E)Balanced farming
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of aquaculture?
A)All farmed fish must be fed to sustain the practice.
B)It provides about 10% of the world's fish for consumption.
C)It is successful in freshwater lakes but not in ocean waters.
D)Currently available technologies cannot yet make it sustainable.
E)It provides nearly all of the world's shellfish for consumption.
Q3) Deficiency in which of the following is associated with irreversible intellectual disability?
A)iron
B)iodine
C)protein
D)vitamin A
E)zinc.
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