Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition
Exam Answer Key
Applied Nutrition explores the practical application of nutritional principles to promote health and manage disease in diverse populations. The course covers the fundamentals of human nutrition, dietary assessment, meal planning, and nutrient requirements at different life stages. Students learn to evaluate nutritional status, develop interventions, and understand the relationship between diet, physical activity, and chronic disease prevention. Through case studies and hands-on activities, the course emphasizes evidence-based strategies for improving dietary habits and addresses contemporary issues such as food security and nutrition policy.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
2040 Verified Questions
2040 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research confirms that a common contributor to three of the top five causes of death is:
A) undernutrition.
B) overnutrition.
C) depression.
D) vitamin deficiency.
E) alcohol consumption.
Answer: B
Q2) A set of nutrient standards designed strictly for use on food labels is called the:
A) Recommended Dietary Allowances.
B) Dietary Reference Intakes.
C) Daily Values.
D) MyPlate guidelines.
E) Nutrient claims
Answer: C
Q3) Consuming nutrient-dense foods can help control your kcalorie intake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mucus in the stomach serves to:
A) neutralize stomach acid.
B) activate pepsinogen to pepsin.
C) coat and protect stomach cells from gastric juices.
D) emulsify fats.
E) collect bacteria.
Answer: C
Q2) After the pancreatic juices have mixed with chyme in the intestine, the resulting mixture is:
A) very acidic.
B) slightly acidic.
C) strongly alkaline.
D) slightly alkaline.
E) none of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) Low-density lipoproteins, or LDL, are often referred to as "good" cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experts agree that moderate amounts of sugar in the diet may pose a number of major health risks.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A 2000-kcalorie diet that provides 175 grams of carbohydrate provides:
A) inadequate carbohydrate.
B) excessive carbohydrate.
C) an appropriate amount of carbohydrate.
D) inadequate fiber.
E) excessive protein.
Answer: A
Q3) Fructose occurs naturally in:
A) bread.
B) milk.
C) meats.
D) fruits.
E) glucose
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who live in the Mediterranean area have lower rates of heart disease. This is often attributed to:
A) the fact that food manufacturers are not allowed to use trans fats.
B) the liberal use of olive oil.
C) decreased sodium intake.
D) the liberal use of safflower oil.
E) high consumption of red meat.
Q2) Due to their roles in brain development and prevention of heart disease, Americans need to consume more:
A) omega-3 fatty acids.
B) omega-6 fatty acids.
C) monounsaturated fatty acids.
D) essential fatty acids.
E) trans fatty acids.
Q3) Trans-fatty acids contribute to heart disease by:
A) producing inflammation in the arteries.
B) contributing to high blood pressure.
C) causing blood clots.
D) causing irregular heartbeats.
E) lowering blood triglycerides.
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The body uses amino acids for energy when:
A) protein stores run low.
B) there is inadequate glucose or fatty acids.
C) an athlete performs strength training exercises.
D) the body becomes dehydrated.
E) a person is very sedentary.
Q2) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
Q3) Mary consumes approximately 1800 kcalories per day. If she wants to consume 15% of her kcalories from protein, how many grams would that be?
A) 28 g/day
B) 48 g/day
C) 58 g/day
D) 68 g/day
E) 75 g/day
Q4) Which of the following is one of the essential amino acids?
A) carnitine
B) alanine
C) tyrosine
D) hemoglobin
E) phenylalanine
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which person is at the greatest health risk?
A) a 27-year-old woman with a waist circumference of 40 inches
B) a 25-year-old athlete with a BMI of 33
C) a 50-year-old male with a BMI of 29 who works out every day
D) a 42-year-old woman with a waist circumference of 34 inches
E) a 20-year-old woman with a BMI of 18.
Q2) According to BMI criteria, a person with a BMI of 24 would be considered:
A) underweight.
B) overweight.
C) obese.
D) normal weight.
E) physically fit.
Q3) The body's adaptations to fasting are sufficient to maintain life for only a very short period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the mechanism through which excessive abdominal fat is thought to increase the risk of chronic disease.
Q5) Identify and briefly describe five factors that affect a person's basal metabolic rate.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are researching a new diet plan that everyone is talking about. Which of the following statements would cause you the least concern regarding this new diet?
A) "Read testimonials from people who lost 50 pounds in 6 weeks!"
B) "Based on complex carbohydrates and lean protein."
C) "Only $99 per month to find out more about this great weight loss plan!"
D) "Dairy-free, soy-free, gluten-free diet."
E) "De-toxifies your digestive tract and resets your metabolism."
Q2) Which of the following would be the least likely benefit of physical activity?
A) It expends energy.
B) It reduces abdominal obesity.
C) It lowers basal metabolism.
D) It may help to counteract the negative effects of excess body weight on health.
E) It reduces stress.
Q3) Describe some strategies for successful weight gain.
Q4) Genetics alone determines a person's susceptibility to obesity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe why physical activity is very important in a weight-loss program.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which vitamin is most vulnerable to interactions with alcohol and other drugs?
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin E
C) folate
D) biotin
E) cobalamin
Q2) Which of the following factors is least likely to limit vitamin D synthesis in the body?
A) geographic location
B) season of the year
C) sunscreens
D) use of tanning beds
E) smog
Q3) Identify the food group that is the best source of beta-carotene.
A) protein foods group
B) milk group
C) vegetable group
D) grain group
E) fats and oils group
Q4) Why is milk usually sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers?
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Potassium:
A) is directly necessary for protein synthesis in cells.
B) protects bone structure against degeneration.
C) is the body's principal electrolyte inside the cells.
D) is necessary for wound healing.
E) helps maintain gastric acidity.
Q2) Which of the following is a trace mineral?
A) iron
B) sulfur
C) calcium
D) potassium
E) magnesium
Q3) A good food source of iodine is:
A) bananas.
B) seafood.
C) broccoli.
D) pork.
E) lettuce.
Q4) Discuss the role of sodium in fluid balance and describe how it affects blood pressure.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample
Questions
Q1) What changes would most improve the adequacy of this menu?
A) including more meat and reducing the amount of grains
B) including more fruits and vegetables
C) including more dairy products
D) including more sources of unsaturated fats and oils
E) including more milk and adding 1 to 2 sweets
Q2) To meet her increased energy needs, a breastfeeding woman is advised to consume an extra _____ kcalories per day until her infant is 6 months old.
A) 170
B) 330
C) 430
D) 500
E) 625
Q3) What do experts cite as one of the most common deterrents to breastfeeding?
A) fear and social anxiety
B) the medical community's failure to encourage breastfeeding
C) the difficulty in breastfeeding for working mothers
D) post-partum depression
E) the lack of education about how to breastfeed properly
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Q4) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, lunches provided at school must contain how many 1-oz. servings of meat or meat alternatives for elementary students?
A) 1-3
B) 4-5
C) 6-7
D) 8-10
E) 11-13
Q2) The AAP supports exclusive breastfeeding for approximately six months but recognizes that infants are often developmentally ready to accept complementary foods between four and six months of age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To prevent iron deficiency, a child needs _____ mg of iron per day.
A) 2-3
B) 3-5
C) 7-10
D) 9-12
E) 13-15
Q4) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Supplements such as glucosamine and _____ may help to alleviate the pain of osteoarthritis, although additional research is needed.
A) watercress
B) inositol
C) dimethyl sulfoxide
D) burdock root
E) chondroitin
Q2) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
Q3) Lifestyle habits that can have a profound influence on health and on physiological age include _____.
A) following a meat-based eating pattern
B) engaging in physical activity weekly
C) avoiding all forms of alcohol
D) getting at least six hours of sleep each night
E) having a sense of purpose
Q4) People living in poverty are typically unable to buy sufficient amounts of nourishing foods, unless they are skilled in food shopping and can make good choices.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What food intake method is most often used to monitor a client's response to and compliance with medical nutrition therapy?
A) food record
B) food frequency checklist
C) 24-hour recall
D) usual intake record
E) nutrition data assessment
Q2) When utilizing the multiple pass technique of the 24-hour dietary recall method, the first pass is completed when _____.
A) the patient writes down all of the food he has consumed in the past 24 hours
B) the patient includes extra foods to his intake list, such as condiments
C) the patient measures the amount of liquid consumed during the last 24 hours
D) the patient provides a quick list of foods consumed without prompts
E) the patient describes how all of his foods have been prepared
Q3) protein energy malnutrition
Q4) 24-hour recall
Q5) inherited disorders
Q6) diet orders
Q7) polymorphisms
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with dysphagia has been placed on a pureed diet. What food would most likely be included as part of this diet?
A) Cottage cheese
B) Ground beef
C) Dumplings with gravy
D) Applesauce
E) Cooked fruit
Q2) Supplements of _____ are usually given to patients receiving the antituberculosis drug isoniazid.
A) iron
B) calcium
C) vitamin B12
D) folate
E) vitamin B6
Q3) Describe a mechanically altered diet and explain when it is useful.
Q4) Drug complications that reduce food intake are significant only when they continue for a long period.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
Q5) Explain the concept of diet progression.
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because Mr. Edward is starting parenteral nutrition, what actions should the team take that would best prevent liver damage?
A) Increase energy amounts in the nutrition formulation.
B) Provide a supplemental lipid infusion.
C) Decrease the amount of glucose in the infusion.
D) Administer infusions over a period of 4 to 6 weeks.
E) Provide continuous infusions instead of intermittent infusions.
Q2) Which candidate would most likely benefit from peripheral parenteral nutrition?
A) A patient who needs nutrition support for 2 to 4 weeks
B) A person who has fluid restrictions
C) A patient who does not have high nutrient needs
D) A patient with a central line
E) A person who has swallowing difficulties
Q3) The economic impact of home nutrition support is a concern for people on these programs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe characteristics of clients who are candidates for peripheral parenteral nutrition.
Q5) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with lung disease would most likely prevent or reverse loss of muscle mass by decreasing activity levels and incorporating more rest.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the inflammatory response, mast cells release _____, which causes vasodilation and capillary permeability.
A) erythropoietin
B) cortisol
C) anti-diuretic hormone
D) cytokine
E) histamine
Q3) The most common risk factor associated with development of COPD is _____.
A) alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency
B) environmental exposure to pollutants
C) lung cancer
D) cigarette smoking
E) cystic fibrosis
Q4) Describe the symptoms and complications associated with SIRS.
Q5) Explain the metabolic effects of corticosteroid drugs.
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Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Repeated bouts of pneumonia may be associated with which condition affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract?
A) Dysphagia
B) Xerostomia.
C) Xerostomia,
D) Gastritis
E) Peptic ulcer disease
Q2) The nurse is reviewing a patient's chart and notices that the patient has a history of Sjögren's syndrome. The nurse recognizes that the patient may have nutritional problems due to _____.
A) low blood sugar
B) low blood sugar.
C) impaired digestion
D) malabsorption,
E) acid reflux
Q3) In the dietary treatment of gastritis, it is important to eliminate irritating foods and beverages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the characteristic differences between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.
Q2) The absorption of vitamins and minerals begins in the _____.
A) stomach
B) duodenum
C) jejunum
D) ileum
E) colon
Q3) For which of the following people might heavy probiotics consumption be unsafe?
A) Teresa, who has IBS
B) Bobbie, who is lactose intolerant
C) Tim, who has AIDS
D) Bill, who drinks alcohol daily
E) Katie, who suffers from constipation
Q4) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Q5) Psyllium may be helpful in the treatment of diarrhea because it reduces the liquidity of the stool.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify the possible causes of diarrhea and describe its appropriate treatment.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The beneficial effects of moderate alcohol intake are mainly seen in _____.
A) women who have type 2 diabetes
B) people with risk factors for liver disease
C) older people with risk factors for heart disease
D) men who work in the petrochemical industry
E) people who are overweight
Q2) A client with cirrhosis who develops changes in personality and motor function may be exhibiting early symptoms of _____.
A) fatigue
B) hepatic regression
C) hepatitis
D) malnutrition
E) hepatic encephalopathy
Q3) Brian asks if he can take acetaminophen to relieve his muscle aches. The doctor replies _____.
A) "Yes, but you should double the dose if you drink alcohol that day"
B) "No; you should take a sedative"
C) "Yes; that drug doesn't interact with alcohol"
D) "Yes, if you abstain from drinking alcohol that day"
E) "No; the acetaminophen will worsen gastritis if you drink alcohol"
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic syndrome consists of a cluster of disorders that increases the risk of developing _____.
A) diabetes
B) cardiovascular disease
C) gout
D) renal failure
E) COPD
Q2) Diabetic ketoacidosis is most likely manifested as _____.
A) blood pH over 7.45
B) ketonuria
C) blood glucose levels less than 80 mg/dL
D) heart rate over 110 bpm
E) musty breath odor
Q3) A patient with diabetes is allowed 60 grams of carbohydrate for lunch. This equals _____ portions of carbohydrate foods.
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) What level of risk would Mrs. Winslow's HDL level be classified as?
A) no risk
B) desirable
C) borderline risk
D) high risk
E) very high risk
Q2) Because of diuretic use and reduced physical activity, patients with heart failure are at higher risk of _____.
A) diarrhea
B) pressure sores
C) infection
D) constipation
E) delayed wound healing
Q3) Several of the major risk factors for CHD can be modified by diet and activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the risk factors for the development of hypertension.
Q5) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Q7) Describe how disabilities can impair a person's ability to eat. Page 23
Q6) Explain the medical nutrition therapy for hypertriglyceridemia.
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Q1) Solutes are less likely to crystallize and form kidney stones in concentrated urine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Furosemide (Lasix) is a drug used to _____.
A) mobilize fluids
B) lower cholesterol
C) prevent PEM
D) activate vitamin D
E) stimulate appetite
Q3) A glomerular filtration rate <15 mL/min per 1.73 m2 indicates which stage of chronic kidney disease?
A) Stage 2: Mildly decreased
B) Stage 3a: Mild to moderately decreased
C) Stage 3b: Moderate to severely decreased
D) Stage 4: Severely decreased
E) Stage 5: Kidney failure
Q4) Adults with chronic kidney disease frequently develop wasting and PEM.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Q1) In order to increase Ms. Arther's energy intake, she should include _____ freely in her diet.
A) cut-up fruits
B) mayonnaise
C) steamed vegetables
D) salt
E) low-fat dairy
Q2) Clinical features of neurological complications associated with HIV infection include mild to severe dementia and ____.
A) seizures
B) facial twitching
C) gait disturbances
D) headaches
E) loss of sense of smell
Q3) Nutrition-related factors may increase or decrease the risk of developing cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about foodborne illnesses?
Q5) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
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