Applied Nutrition
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Nutrition explores the practical application of nutrition science to promote health, prevent disease, and enhance well-being across diverse populations. The course covers foundational nutritional principles, dietary assessment methods, nutrient requirements through the lifecycle, and the role of nutrition in chronic disease prevention. It emphasizes evidence-based dietary planning, intervention strategies in community and clinical settings, food labeling interpretation, and the assessment of dietary supplements. Through case studies and practical assignments, students gain skills to translate nutrition knowledge into actionable strategies for individuals and communities.
Recommended Textbook
Williams Essentials of Nutrition and Diet Therapy 11th Edition by Eleanor Schlenker
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) An observation that provides evidence that a person has good nutritional status is:
A) small muscle mass.
B) normal weight-to-height ratio.
C) smooth tongue.
D) fragile skin.
Answer: B
Q2) Macronutrients include:
A) minerals.
B) proteins.
C) vitamins.
D) enzymes.
Answer: B
Q3) Exchange Lists for Meal Planning was devised by the American Dietetic Association in collaboration with:
A) the American Cancer Society.
B) the American Diabetes Association.
C) the American Heart Association.
D) the Culinary Institute of America.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Digestion, Absorption, and Metabolism
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Q1) The valve that controls the passage of chyme from the small intestine into the cecum is called the:
A) ileocecal valve.
B) pyloric valve.
C) cardiac valve.
D) hepatic valve.
Answer: A
Q2) After ingested food is mixed and churned with gastric secretions, the resulting semifluid mass is called:
A) a bolus.
B) chyme.
C) rennin.
D) glycogen.
Answer: B
Q3) Gluconeogenesis occurs in the:
A) muscles.
B) pancreas.
C) liver.
D) spleen.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Fiber's capacity to hold water is related to its ability to decrease development of: A) kidney stones.
B) diverticula.
C) high blood cholesterol levels.
D) type 2 diabetes.
Answer: B
Q2) The process of photosynthesis is responsible for the synthesis of:
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) fats.
D) vitamins.
Answer: A
Q3) The preferred fuel of the cells lining the colon is:
A) short-chain fatty acids.
B) long-chain fatty acids.
C) amino acids.
D) glucose.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Q1) Many infant formulas now contain added arachidonic and docosahexaenoic acids because:
A) infants who drink formula rather than breast milk need more of these fatty acids.
B) these fatty acids are destroyed during processing of infant formula.
C) infants may not be able to produce enough of these for optimum development.
D) these fatty acids help preserve other nutrients in the infant formula.
Q2) The lipoprotein that carries fat from a meal just consumed to the liver is:
A) very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL).
B) low-density lipoprotein (LDL).
C) chylomicrons.
D) high-density lipoprotein (HDL).
Q3) The n-3 fatty acids are of current interest because of their relation to prevention of:
A) liver disease.
B) respiratory infections.
C) cardiovascular disease.
D) urinary tract infections.
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Chapter 5: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive intakes of dietary protein can:
A) cause vitamin deficiencies.
B) impair kidney function.
C) increase weight loss.
D) decrease production of indispensable amino acids.
Q2) The gastric enzyme present in infants that coagulates milk is:
A) casein.
B) pepsinogen.
C) trypsin.
D) rennin.
Q3) Vitamin B is found in:
A) whole grains.
B) nuts.
C) meats.
D) legumes.
Q4) The enzyme trypsin is activated by:
A) zymogen.
B) bile.
C) gastrin.
D) enterokinase.
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Chapter 6: Vitamins
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Q1) The amino acid that is a precursor to niacin is:
A) leucine.
B) phenylalanine.
C) tryptophan.
D) valine.
Q2) Vitamin E protects cellular and subcellular membranes by acting as a(n):
A) antiinflammatory agent.
B) antioxidant.
C) hemolytic agent.
D) clotting factor.
Q3) A toxic level of vitamin D can result in:
A) keratinization of the skin.
B) liver damage.
C) calcification of soft tissues.
D) blindness.
Q4) An increase in dietary carbohydrate intake increases the body's need for:
A) niacin.
B) thiamin.
C) riboflavin.
D) pantothenic acid.
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Chapter 7: Minerals and Water
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Q1) The percentage of body water in the average person is:
A) 40% to 50%.
B) 50% to 60%.
C) 60% to 70%.
D) 70% to 80%.
Q2) The most reliable dietary source of iodine is:
A) seafood.
B) legumes.
C) iodized table salt.
D) enriched cereals.
Q3) Chlorine can be found in the body as chloride ions in:
A) hemoglobin.
B) bile.
C) gastric secretions.
D) skeletal tissue.
Q4) A major benefit of fluoride is:
A) providing structural support to cells.
B) preventing anemia.
C) preventing dental caries.
D) slowing the aging process.
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Chapter 8: Energy Balance
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Q1) A person who is at high risk for underweight is:
A) a busy college student.
B) an older adult who lives alone.
C) a shift worker.
D) a mother with two young children.
Q2) BMR:
A) increases in pregnancy but not in lactation.
B) increases in lactation but not in pregnancy.
C) increases in pregnancy and lactation.
D) decreases in pregnancy and lactation.
Q3) To calculate a person's body mass index (BMI), the measurements that are needed are:
A) height and weight.
B) age and weight.
C) activity level and height.
D) gender and activity level.
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Chapter 9: Food Selection and Food Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of fish that is relatively low in mercury is:
A) shark.
B) salmon.
C) swordfish.
D) king mackerel.
Q2) According to the Nutrition Labeling Education Act, labeling is voluntary for:
A) fresh fruits, vegetables, and seafood.
B) processed meat and poultry.
C) candy and soft drinks.
D) organic and natural food products.
Q3) One of the factors influencing the development and use of food additives is the desire:
A) for more natural food products.
B) to protect the environment.
C) for foods with lower sodium content.
D) for foods with longer shelf life.
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Chapter 10: Community Nutrition: Promoting Healthy Eating
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Sample Questions
Q1) Three key concepts included in the total diet approach to improving nutrient intake are:
A) protein, fats, and carbohydrates.
B) input, output, and homeostasis.
C) freshness, safety, and portion sizes.
D) balance, variety, and moderation.
Q2) Legumes provide inexpensive sources of:
A) potassium and zinc.
B) beta carotene and vitamin E.
C) monounsaturated fatty acids and calcium.
D) protein and fiber.
Q3) Factors that increase the risk of malnutrition include:
A) time spent watching television.
B) presence of grandparents in the home.
C) sedentary occupations.
D) heavy physical labor.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition During Pregnancy and Lactation
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Q1) Pregnant women with megaloblastic anemia usually have diets that are low in:
A) iron.
B) folate.
C) iodine.
D) pyridoxine.
Q2) Normal physiologic changes occurring in pregnancy include:
A) decreased basal metabolic rate.
B) decreased cardiac output.
C) increased blood volume.
D) increased blood glucose level.
Q3) The effects of pregnancy on maternal blood volume and red cell mass during pregnancy are:
A) maternal blood volume increases and red cell mass decreases.
B) maternal blood volume decreases and red cell mass increases.
C) both maternal blood volume and red cell mass increase.
D) both maternal blood volume and red cell mass decrease.
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13
Chapter 12: Nutrition for Normal Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A food group that preschool children usually dislike is:
A) vegetables.
B) fruits.
C) meat.
D) milk.
Q2) The percentage of a 5-year-old child's daily kcalorie intake that is used for tissue growth is about:
A) 5%.
B) 12%.
C) 25%.
D) 50%.
Q3) The percentage of an infant's body weight that is composed of water is:
A) 20% to 25%.
B) 30% to 40%.
C) 50% to 60%.
D) 70% to 75%.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition for Adults: Early, Middle, and Later Years
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Sample Questions
Q1) A factor that may interfere with normal food intake of older adults is:
A) inadequate fluid intake.
B) inadequate income.
C) participation in an exercise program.
D) dependence on caffeinated beverages.
Q2) During early adulthood, men require more energy than women because they have:
A) larger body size.
B) more adipose cells.
C) smaller muscle mass.
D) greater physical activity.
Q3) The period between 19 and 40 years of age is known as:
A) late adolescence.
B) early adulthood.
C) middle adulthood.
D) later adulthood.
Q4) The goal of nutrition screening for older adults is to:
A) treat overt malnutrition.
B) identify those at risk for malnutrition.
C) evaluate nutritional status.
D) determine supplement needs.
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Chapter 14: Nutrition and Physical Fitness
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Q1) When the supply of muscle glycogen is exhausted, the condition is called muscle: A) spasm.
B) contraction.
C) fatigue.
D) relaxation.
Q2) A compound that provides a backup source of high-energy phosphate bonds after ATP stores are used up is:
A) glycogen.
B) fatty acids.
C) creatine phosphate.
D) lipoprotein lipase.
Q3) Exercise improves mental health via production of:
A) estrogen.
B) insulin.
C) endorphins.
D) adrenaline.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Complexity of Obesity: Beyond Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A potential side effect of gastric bypass surgery is:
A) constipation.
B) excessive weight loss.
C) hemorrhage.
D) dumping syndrome.
Q2) The prevalence of obesity is higher in:
A) children than in adults.
B) Caucasians than in African Americans.
C) older women than in younger women.
D) those with higher incomes than in those with lower incomes.
Q3) In counseling overweight clients, clinical dietitians should begin with:
A) a diet plan.
B) gathering information about dietary habits.
C) information about health risks associated with overweight.
D) plans for long-term follow-up.
Q4) If a diet plan results in weight loss, it is because it provides:
A) enough protein to spare lean body mass.
B) enough carbohydrate to spare lean body mass.
C) fewer calories than the client expends.
D) enough variety to hold the client's interest.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition Assessment and Nutrition Therapy in Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a clinical observation associated with good nutritional status is:
A) firm muscle tone.
B) pale eye membranes.
C) limited attention span.
D) heart rate of 110 beats/min.
Q2) In a man, a waist circumference of 37 inches would indicate:
A) high body mass index.
B) low body mass index.
C) high nutritional risk.
D) low nutritional risk.
Q3) One method of determining a person's usual eating habits is to collect a:
A) 24-hour food record.
B) blood sample.
C) diet history.
D) weight history.
Q4) A special therapeutic diet may be modified in:
A) consistency and tolerance.
B) frequency and portion size.
C) seasonings, nutrient density, and/or fluids.
D) nutrients, energy, and/or texture.
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Chapter 17: Metabolic Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended diet for patients with dumping syndrome is low in:
A) sugar.
B) fat.
C) protein.
D) sodium.
Q2) After extensive surgery or burns, protein needs are usually:
A) 1.0 to 1.2 g/kg body weight per day.
B) 1.2 to 1.5 g/kg body weight per day.
C) 1.5 to 2.0 g/kg body weight per day.
D) 2.0 to 3.0 g/kg body weight per day.
Q3) Food present in the gastrointestinal tract at the time of general surgery will increase the client's risk for:
A) gastrointestinal infection.
B) aspiration or vomiting.
C) postoperative constipation.
D) fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
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19
Chapter 18: Drug-Nutrient Interactions
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Q1) A type of medication that can stimulate appetite is:
A) diuretics.
B) antihistamines.
C) antipyretics.
D) antibiotics.
Q2) Research has shown that the beneficial effects of aspirin are the result of inhibition of:
A) gastrointestinal function.
B) prostaglandins.
C) liver enzymes.
D) pancreatic secretions.
Q3) Use of tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotic drugs such as amitriptyline hydrochloride (Elavil), chlorpromazine hydrochloride (Thorazine), and clozapine (Clozaril) can result in:
A) weight loss.
B) constipation.
C) weight gain.
D) fluid retention.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition Support: Enteral and Parenteral
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Q1) In enteral nutrition formulas that contain amino acids, the form of the amino acids is: A) simple.
B) complex.
C) hydrolyzed.
D) crystalline.
Q2) When an open delivery system is used for tube feeding, the maximum hang time for the formula is:
A) 2 hours.
B) 8 hours.
C) 24 hours.
D) 48 hours.
Q3) Energy needs may be 50% to 100% above basal energy expenditure in patients with: A) sepsis.
B) severe burns.
C) bone fractures.
D) cancer cachexia.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) If diverticula of the large intestine become inflamed, the condition is called:
A) diverticulosis.
B) diverticulitis.
C) irritable bowel syndrome.
D) Crohn's disease.
Q2) A good meal for someone with xerostomia would be:
A) stew, mashed potatoes, and pudding.
B) sandwich, pretzels, and an apple.
C) tacos and cookies.
D) baked chicken, broccoli, and rice.
Q3) The gallbladder is stimulated to contract and release bile by:
A) glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide.
B) the cholecystokinin mechanism.
C) high serum triglyceride levels.
D) secretion of pancreatic enzymes.
Q4) A key component in the etiology of hepatic encephalopathy is:
A) fatty infiltration of the liver.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) high ammonia levels in the systemic circulation.
D) reduced blood flow to the brain.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Heart, Blood Vessels, and Lungs
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Q1) Elevated blood levels of C-reactive protein indicate:
A) infection.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) inflammation.
D) malnutrition.
Q2) An important feature of the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) eating plan is:
A) reducing intake of saturated fat, trans fat, and cholesterol.
B) eating a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy products.
C) reducing respiratory quotient (RQ) by increasing fat and decreasing carbohydrate.
D) increasing soluble fiber and omega-3 fatty acids.
Q3) The food that would be lowest in sodium is:
A) frozen green beans.
B) canned green beans.
C) frozen green bean casserole.
D) canned bean salad.
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23
Chapter 22: Diabetes Mellitus
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Q1) People who have diabetes are at particular risk for:
A) hepatitis.
B) gallbladder disease.
C) coronary artery disease.
D) bronchitis.
Q2) Infants born to mothers with GDM may experience:
A) hyperglycemia.
B) hypoglycemia.
C) low birth weight.
D) ketosis.
Q3) Metabolic syndrome includes:
A) hypertension and obesity.
B) renal disease and proteinuria.
C) neurologic changes and weight loss.
D) autoimmune and hormonal diseases.
Q4) The underlying cause of type 1 diabetes is:
A) atherosclerotic damage.
B) enzyme deficiencies that impair digestion.
C) obesity and lack of exercise.
D) an autoimmune attack on insulin-producing cells.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Renal Disease
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Q1) The main cause of cystine stones is:
A) cystine intake.
B) immobility.
C) heredity.
D) oxalate intake.
Q2) Patients with CKD who have excessive sodium intakes may experience:
A) nausea and vomiting.
B) excessive thirst and oliguria.
C) lethargy and exhaustion.
D) edema and hypertension.
Q3) A dietary component that may help protect against CKD is:
A) omega-3 fatty acids.
B) dietary fiber.
C) phytochemicals.
D) high biologic value protein.
Q4) The major clinical symptom of acute renal failure is:
A) hematuria.
B) proteinuria.
C) oliguria.
D) dialysis.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome Aids
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Q1) Once initiated, antiretroviral therapy (ART) should be continued:
A) until opportunistic infections are resolved.
B) usually for periods of 3 to 6 months.
C) until CD4 T-cell count improves.
D) for the lifetime of the infected individual.
Q2) If someone becomes infected with HIV/AIDS by sexual transmission, antibodies usually appear within:
A) 4 to 7 weeks.
B) 6 to 14 weeks.
C) 4 to 7 months.
D) 6 to 14 months.
Q3) HIV blocks the body's immune response by:
A) overwhelming the immune system.
B) causing malnutrition and wasting.
C) infecting and destroying helper B cells.
D) infecting and destroying helper T cells.
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26
Chapter 25: Cancer
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Q1) The primary goal of nutrition care for clients who have cancer is:
A) maintaining nutritional status.
B) keeping the client comfortable.
C) preventing further tumor growth.
D) reducing intake of nutrients that nourish the tumor.
Q2) Dry foods may be helpful to a patient who has:
A) nausea.
B) anorexia.
C) diarrhea.
D) sore mouth.
Q3) An example of someone with alcohol intake that meets the American Cancer Society recommendations to help reduce risk of cancer is:
A) a woman who drinks two glasses of wine every day.
B) a woman who drinks heavily at parties, but otherwise does not drink.
C) a man who drinks one or two beers 3 nights each week.
D) a man who drinks 4 or 5 drinks once a week.
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