Applied Molecular Biology Practice
Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Molecular Biology explores the fundamental principles and cutting-edge techniques of molecular biology with an emphasis on their practical applications in research, medicine, and biotechnology. The course covers topics such as DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis, gene expression and regulation, genetic engineering, cloning, PCR, and CRISPR-based genome editing. Students will learn how these molecular tools are used to solve real-world problems, including the development of diagnostics, therapeutics, and innovations in agriculture and environmental science. Through a combination of lectures and laboratory exercises, students gain hands-on experience in contemporary molecular biology methods and acquire skills essential for careers in biomedical and life science fields.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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26 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cells and Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of duplicating DNA prior to cell division is called .
A)DNA replication
B)transcription
C)translation
D)gene expression
Answer: A
Q2) Membrane bound structures involved in digestion are called .
A)mitochondria
B)nuclei
C)Golgi complexes
D)lysosomes
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are eukaryotes,except .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gametes are and somatic cells are .
A)diploid;haploid
B)haploid;diploid
C)haploid;haploid
D)diploid;diploid
Answer: B
Q2) Sex-linked genes are found on .
A)the X chromosome only
B)the Y chromosome only
C)either the X or the Y chromosome
D)the autosomes
Answer: C
Q3) A triploid organism would have copies of all genes.
A)0
B)1
C)2
D)3
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: DNA, RNA, and Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The monomers building blocks)of nucleic acids such as DNA and RNA are
A)amino acids
B)monosaccharides
C)fatty acids
D)nucleotides
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not correctly paired?
A)adenine:thymine
B)guanine:cytosine
C)adenine:uracil
D)guanine:adenine
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are characteristics of RNA except .
A)double-stranded
B)uracil
C)single-stranded
D)2' hydroxyl
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes, genomes, and DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Topoisomerases .
A)are antibiotics that kill bacterial cells
B)bend DNA
C)change the level of supercoiling in DNA
D)repair DNA
Q2) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA wrapped around histones are called .
A)chromatids
B)nucleosomes
C)heterochromatin
D)300 nm fibers
Q4) Type II topoisomerases .
A)break both strands of DNA
B)include DNA gyrase,for example
C)change the linking number in steps of two
D)are all of the above
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Chapter 5: Manipulation of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) FISH allows DNA or RNA to be visualized in its natural location.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What types of labels are added to probes to enable detection during hybridization experiments?
A)fluorescence
B)chemical
C)radioactive
D)all of the above
Q3) Agarose gel electrophoresis allows the separation of DNA based upon
A)charge
B)base composition
C)size
D)pH
Q4) GC base pairs absorb more ultraviolet light than AT base pairs.
A)True
B)False
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7
Chapter 6: Polymerase Chain Reaction
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to DNA polymerase,a PCR reaction mixture contains all of the following except .
A)Buffer
B)Primers
C)Deoxynucleotide triphosphates
D)Ligase
Q2) In real time PCR,the presence of double-stranded DNA is detected by
A)fluorescence of SYBR Green
B)luminescence of SYBER Green
C)quenching of SYBR Green fluorescence
D)rapid decrease in the amount of SYBR Green fluorescence
Q3) During which step in PCR does synthesis occur?
A)Denaturation
B)Annealing
C)Elongation
D)Termination
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8
Chapter 7: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells methylate their own DNA to .
A)mark the DNA for degradation
B)prevent replication
C)protect the DNA from the cell's own restriction enzymes
D)stabilize the DNA double helix
Q2) The purpose of the centromere sequence in YACs is to .
A)provide a multiple cloning site
B)allow correct partitioning of the plasmid in yeast
C)allow the vector to replicate in the yeast
D)select for the presence of the vector in the host
Q3) Why must a shuttle vector possess two origins of replication instead of one?
A)Shuttle vectors must replicate in multiple hosts with each host requiring a different origin.
B)Shuttle vectors must be able to replicate from two different origins of replication depending upon the specific growth conditions.
C)Shuttle vectors only have one origin of replication,not two.
D)Shuttle vectors use one origin for replication and the other origin for shuttling recombinant DNA into new hosts.
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Chapter 8: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are second generation sequencing methods except .
A)454 sequencing
B)Illumina/Solexa sequencing
C)SOLiD/Applied Biosystems method
D)Pyrosequencing
Q2) Nanopore detectors contain pores that only allow to pass through.
A)hydrogen ions
B)single-stranded DNA
C)double-stranded DNA
D)dideoxy nucleotides
Q3) Which method is most useful for sequencing short DNA regions from multiple individuals?
A)dideoxy sequencing
B)pyrosequencing
C)primer walking
D)SMRT sequencing
Q4) Nanopore technology is speedy and handles long DNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Genomics Systems Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In some metagenomic analyses,organisms in the community do not have to be cultured.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following makes up more percentage of the human genome than the others listed in the answer choices?
A)protein coding genes
B)LINEs
C)heterochromatin
D)introns
Q3) The genomes of some plants and a few protozoa have more genes than humans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The exon trapping method for determining eukaryotic coding sequences relies on
A)flanking splice recognition sites,which are used during RNA processing
B)complementary DNA that is produced prior to exon trapping
C)both the promoter and polyA)tail recognition sequences
D)the presences of restriction enzyme recognition sequences
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Chapter 10: Cell Division and DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replication is initiated at .
A)telomeres
B)centromeres
C)the origins are replication
D)the start of every gene
Q2) During replicating,incoming nucleotides are always added to the free preceding nucleotide.
A)3' phosphate
B)5' phosphate
C)3' hydroxyl
D)5' hydroxyl
Q3) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q4) DNA is duplicated during mitosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Transcription of Genes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Constitutive genes .
A)are usually not transcribed unless they are needed
B)are only found in eukaryotes
C)are constantly transcribed
D)are only found in prokaryotes
Q2) The eukaryotic promoter recognized by RNA polymerase II contains three regions.Which of the following is not part of the trio?
A)TATA box
B)upstream elements
C)initiator box
D)Enhancer
Q3) Large ribosomal RNAs are transcribed by .
A)RNA polymerase I
B)RNA polymerase II
C)RNA polymerase III
D)None of the above
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Chapter 12: Processing of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA processing includes .
A)base modification
B)intron removal and exon splicing
C)addition of extra bases
D)all of the above
Q2) Some pre-rRNAs are processed to generate mature rRNA and tRNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Multiple messenger RNAs can be generated from the same gene by selecting
A)an alternative promoter when available
B)a different location for the addition of the polyA)tail
C)and splicing different exon cassettes
D)all of the above
Q4) PolyA)polymerase .
A)adds the polyA)tail to prokaryotic mRNAs
B)generates short RNA molecules with repeating adenine residues used in regulation of transcription
C)adds the adenine cap to processed eukaryotic mRNAs
D)generates the 3' tail on eukaryotic mRNAs
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Chapter 13: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that links the appropriate amino acid to the acceptor stem of specific tRNAs is called .
A)aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
B)ribosomes
C)ribozymes
D)ribonuclease P
Q2) Which types of RNA are never translated?
A)tRNA and rRNA
B)mRNA only
C)tRNA and mRNA
D)all types of RNA are translated
Q3) How many different types of amino acids are there in proteins?
A)1
B)3
C)20
D)50
Q4) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes the activation energy of the reaction.
A)lower
B)raise
C)inhibit
D)stabilize
Q2) In the tertiary structure of proteins,the amino acids are found in the proteins and away from water.
A)polar
B)hydrophilic
C)hydrophobic
D)charged
Q3) Regulatory sites separate from the active site on proteins are called sites.
A)binding
B)allosteric
C)inhibitory
D)competitive
Q4) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteins microarrays .
A)are used to investigate protein-protein interactions
B)are used to determine enzymatic activity
C)help determine the binding of DNA or RNA to protein
D)all of the above
Q2) Why might proteins be tagged?
A)purification
B)identification
C)anchoring
D)all of the above
Q3) Which method allows a researcher to find a gene based upon the protein that it encodes?
A)Co-immunoprecipitation
B)Phage display
C)RT-PCR
D)Intein trapping
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Transcription in Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are associated with two-component regulatory systems except
A)gratuitous inducer
B)phosphorelay
C)DNA binding regulator
D)sensor kinase
Q2) Which of the following is not an inducer of the lac operon?
A)allo-lactose
B)IPTG
C)glucose
D)lactose
Q3) Global regulators .
A)control large numbers of genes in response to a broad,general signals
B)control large numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
C)control small numbers of genes in response to broad,general signals
D)control small numbers of genes in response to a specific signal
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Regulation of Transcription in Eukaryotes
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Q1) X-inactivation .
A)only occurs in males
B)is the deactivation of both X chromosomes in all females
C)shuts down one of the two X chromosomes in females
D)occurs by the action of histone acetylation
Q2) Acetylated histones .
A)form highly condensed heterochromatin
B)are a target of proteases
C)never occurs
D)allow nucleosomes to be less aggregated
Q3) Specific transcription factors .
A)modulate gene expression in response to a specific stimulus
B)are not able to enter the nucleus of eukaryotes and instead help regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level
C)bind to target mRNAs prior to translation
D)prevent RNA polymerase II from binding to the DNA
Q4) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) RNA interference is triggered by .
A)dsDNA
B)dsRNA
C)ssDNA
D)ssRNA
Q2) The blocking of translation of an mRNA by miRNA occurs because the miRNA
A)binds to the 3'-UTR of the mRNA and prevents translation
B)targets the mRNA for degradation by Slicer
C)binds to the 5'-UTR to prevent the ribosome from binding
D)folds into alternative stem-loop structure and protects the mRNA from nuclease cleavage
Q3) In bacteria, the system destroys incoming viral DNA and RNA.
A)RISC
B)Dicer
C)Slicer
D)CRISPR
Q4) RNA interference occurs in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Analysis of Gene Expression
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Q1) DNase I protection assays or DNA footprinting is useful for .
A)determining the start of transcription
B)determining the location of a DNA binding sequence
C)preventing contamination of RNA in primer extension samples
D)none of the above
Q2) Reporter systems are most useful for .
A)monitoring gene expression
B)determining DNA-protein interactions
C)identifying the product of biochemical reactions
D)constructing large numbers of clones in bacteria
Q3) Deletion analysis allows a researcher to examine the effects of regulatory proteins on gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Primer extension is used to .
A)determine the transcriptional start site
B)locate the binding of RNA polymerase
C)determine the interaction of RNA and proteins
D)generate primers for PCR
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Chapter 20: Plasmids
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Q1) The Ti-plasmid was used as the platform for genetically engineering plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
Q3) All plasmids are circular
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which one of the following organisms does not have plasmids?
A)bacteria
B)viruses
C)yeast
D)archaea
Q5) Plasmids are self-replicating extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Viruses
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Q1) The largest virus is .
A)herpesvirus
B)poxvirus
C)mimivirus
D)HIV
Q2) Viral protein coats are called .
A)capsomeres
B)envelopes
C)capsids
D)cloaks
Q3) Which of the following is not a viral genome arrangement?
A)double-stranded DNA
B)single-stranded DNA
C)positive single-stranded RNA
D)negative double-stranded RNA
Q4) Plaques are the result of .
A)bacteria infecting viruses
B)viruses infecting bacteria
C)viruses lysing bacteria
D)lysogens
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Chapter 22: Mobile DNA
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Q1) Any DNA or RNA molecule that has an origin of replication is called a A)mobile element
B)transposon
C)replicon
D)integron
Q2) Resolvase is needed for .
A)conservative transposition
B)replicative transposition
C)simple transposons
D)retrotransposons
Q3) Defective copies of transposable elements that are found in genomes are called A)junk DNA
B)transposable elements
C)retrotransposons
D)introns
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Chapter 23: Mutations and Repair
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Q1) In some repair mechanisms,the parental DNA strand is used as a guide for repairing mistakes made in the newly synthesized DNA strand.The cell is able to distinguish the parental strand from the new strand because immediately following replication,the DNA is .
A)fully methylated
B)still single-stranded
C)hemi-methylated
D)non-methylated
Q2) Which of the following is notorious for causing covalent bonding of adjacent thymine residues in DNA?
A)X-rays
B)infrared radiation
C)nucleotide analogs
D)ultraviolet radiation
Q3) A mutation that changes the orientation of a segment of DNA is called aan)
A)inversion
B)tranversion
C)reversion
D)frameshift
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Chapter 24: Recombination
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Q1) The Holliday junction only forms during excision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following proteins is required for lambda integration in the genome of Escherichia coli?
A)transposase
B)resolvase
C)Int protein
D)Xis protein
Q3) Mutations in RAD genes cause .
A)recombination to occur randomly
B)radiation sensitivity
C)excessive recombination events during meiosis
D)a decline in gamete production
Q4) RAD genes are essential for recombination events during both mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) Hfr strains have an integrated .
A)F plasmid
B)R plasmid
C)prophage
D)lysogen
Q2) During conjugation,the entire double-stranded F-plasmid is transferred into the recipient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only the can initiate conjugation.
A)F<sup>-</sup>
B)F<sup>+</sup>
C)Hfr
D)recipient
Q4) A prophage .
A)only occurs when a viral genome is integrated into the host genome
B)is replicated along with host cell DNA
C)occurs in the lysogenic life cycle of viruses.
D)all of the above
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Chapter 26: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) Mitochondrial DNA .
A)has a high mutation rate
B)is useful for determining paternal ancestry
C)has a low mutation rate
D)is only present in animal cells
Q2) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
Q3) Gene families are .
A)groups of genes with similar function that were generated from duplication events
B)entire genomes
C)always in operons
D)have no role in evolution
Q4) Gene duplication generates new genes with novel roles.
A)True
B)False
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