Applied Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microorganisms in a variety of industries, including medicine, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. This course delves into the harnessing of microbial processes for technological innovations, such as bioremediation, fermentation, biofuel generation, and the development of antibiotics and vaccines. Students will gain an understanding of microbial physiology, genetics, and ecology, as well as hands-on experience with laboratory techniques used to manipulate and monitor microbial activity for societal benefit. Ethical, safety, and regulatory considerations pertinent to the use of microorganisms in applied settings are also discussed.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology The Human Experience 1st Edition by John W. Foster
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Chapter 1: Microbes Shape Our History
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Q1) The involvement of bacteria in ________ explains why their presence is essential to the continued existence of plants and animals.
Answer: geochemical cycling
Q2) Which key characteristic differentiates a prokaryote from a eukaryote?
A) the absence of proteins
B) the presence of DNA
C) the absence of membrane-bound organelles
D) the presence of a cell wall
Answer: C
Q3) Warts are a common skin condition caused by an organism that cannot be grown in pure culture on an agar petri dish and is small enough to pass through a tiny-pored filter.What is the causative agent of warts?
A) a bacterium
B) a virus
C) an archaea
D) a fungus
Answer: B
Q4) Bacteria and archaea are classified as ________.
Answer: prokaryotes
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Chapter 2: Basic Concepts of Infectious Disease
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Q1) During which phase of an infectious disease are immunopathologies most likely to first appear?
A) incubation
B) invasive
C) decline
D) convalescent
Answer: B
Q2) The typical signs and symptoms of a disease first appear during the ________ phase of an infectious disease.
Answer: invasive
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
A) a rash
B) swollen glands
C) jaundice (yellow tinge to the skin)
D) muscle aches
Answer: D
Q4) What distinguishes risk level III from risk level IV organisms?
Answer: While both risk level III and risk level IV pathogens can lead to lethal diseases,level IV pathogens tend to be more virulent and lack treatment options.
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Chapter 3: Observing Microbes
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Q1) What is an advantage of fluorescence microscopy?
A) It allows for the preservation of the specimen.
B) It provides the greatest resolution.
C) It has the ability to stain live specimens.
D) It has the ability to detect specific microbes.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) darkfield microscopy-uses visible light
B) fluorescence microscopy-uses a fluorescent light
C) scanning electron microscopy-produces a three-dimensional image
D) compound light microscopy-produces a light image against a dark background
Answer: B
Q3) Which microscope best allows the observation of internal cell structures in a natural state?
A) compound light microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) electron microscope
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Living Chemistry: From Atoms to Cells
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Q1) Bacteria within a phagosome may be destroyed by the fusing of the phagosome with which acidic eukaryotic organelle?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) pseudopod
C) lysosome
D) vesicle
Q2) Which of the following molecular formulas might be of an organic molecule?
A) H O
B) C H O
C) CH
D) NH
Q3) An exergonic reaction may still be slow if
A) the activation energy is high.
B) an enzyme is present.
C) product concentrations are low.
D) reactant concentrations are high.
Q4) What is a condensation reaction?
Q5) What does amphipathic mean?
Q6) Redox reactions involve the movement of ________ from one molecule or atom to another.
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Chapter 5: Cell Biology of Bacteria and Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which of the following is FALSE of teichoic acids?
A) They reinforce the cell wall.
B) They may help pathogens attach to host cells.
C) They are recognized by the host immune system.
D) They repel the Gram stain.
Q2) While most wild E.coli usually have flagella,many lab strains have lost their flagella.What is a likely cause of this loss?
A) reductive evolution due to an increased need for chemotaxis
B) reductive evolution due to an unchanging environment
C) reductive evolution due to an increased need for magnetotaxis
D) reductive evolution due to a decreased need for magnetotaxis
Q3) Which of the following structures is obligatory for all bacterial cells?
A) nucleoid
B) flagella
C) pili
D) magnetosomes
Q4) Explain how bacterial cells can divide so rapidly,some in as little as ten minutes between generations.
Q5) Compare and contrast the Gram-negative and Gram-positive cell envelopes.
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Chapter 6: Bacterial Growth, Nutrition, and Differentiation
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Q1) Fastidious organisms would be best grown on which type of media?
A) enriched
B) synthetic
C) minimal
D) selective
Q2) If an error occurred during the sporulation process and small acid-soluble proteins were not included in the spore,what would be the effect?
A) The spore would only exist for 100 years.
B) The spore will be more likely to germinate.
C) The spore will be less resistant to heat.
D) The spore will be less resistant to ultraviolet light.
Q3) Which of the following cellular components could be found in high concentrations in a halophilic microorganism?
A) Na<sup>+</sup>/ K<sup>+</sup> ion pump
B) citric acid
C) cold-tolerant enzymes
D) asuperoxide dismutase
Q4) Explain metabolically why bacteria grow faster in complex media than in minimal media.
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Chapter 7: Bacterial Metabolism
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Q1) Oxidative phosphorylation requires
A) ATP synthase.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) NAD<sup>+</sup>.
D) pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Q2) Which of the following plants can grow without fertilizer?
A) plants with rhizobia symbionts
B) plants that do not need proteins
C) plants that do not need nucleic acids
D) plants that can carry out the Calvin cycle
Q3) Which of the following is true of energy and living cells?
A) Organisms can create their own energy.
B) Organisms do not require inputs of energy from the environment.
C) Organisms require inputs of energy from the environment to survive.
D) Only heterotrophic organisms require environmental energy inputs to survive.
Q4) Enzymes increase reaction rates by
A) increasing activation energies.
B) decreasing activation energies.
C) increasing the concentration of reactants.
D) increasing the concentration of products.
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Chapter 8: Bacterial Genetics and Biotechnology
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Q1) Except for the initiating fMet tRNA,what is the order of sites that tRNAs take through a ribosome?
A) first E, then P, and finally A
B) first A, then P, and finally E
C) first E, then A, and finally P
D) first P, then A, and finally E
Q2) Why might the insertion or deletion of three base pairs in a gene be less harmful than the insertion or deletion of only one or two base pairs?
Q3) Two common levels of regulation of protein activity are transcriptional control and posttranslational control.Please discuss the differences between the two in terms of speed of response and energy efficiency.
Q4) After translation
A) all proteins are folded and secreted.
B) some proteins are folded but all are secreted.
C) all proteins are folded and some are also secreted.
D) some proteins are folded and another subset are secreted.
Q5) If DNA polymerase misincorporates a base,leading to a mismatch,how do repair enzymes distinguish the parental and daughter DNA strands to specifically fix the daughter strand?
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genomes and Evolution
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Q1) Ancient ________ give evidence to the fact that all life originated from microorganisms.
Q2) Without selective pressure,a species is at risk of experiencing A) random mutation.
B) natural selection.
C) reductive evolution.
D) endosymbiosis.
Q3) Explain how natural selection quickly leads to antibiotic resistance.
Q4) Why can antibiotics be used to treat the nematode cause of filarial disease?
A) Antibiotics kill off Wolbachia, which is important for the embryonic development of the worm.
B) Antibiotics always kill off nematodes.
C) Antibiotics stimulate the immune system to more effectively fight off the nematodes.
D) Antibiotics are not used to treat filarial disease.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an open reading frame?
A) DNA sequence long enough to encode an amino acid sequence of at least 50.
B) It begins with a translation start codon.
C) It ends with a translation termination codon.
D) It contains a promoter sequence.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) A bacterial disease previously known to only infect dogs begins to cause respiratory infections in humans who are in close contact with infected dogs.Which of the following explanations most likely explains the emergence of this new human pathogen?
A) The genome of the bacterium changed through horizontal gene transfer within the microbiota of the dog.
B) There was a mutation in the human genome that allowed the bacterium to attack human cells more vigorously.
C) The bacterium became infected by a mutation-inducing virus transmitted through flea bites on the dog.
D) The bacterium forms dormant endospores that remain in the environment even after the infected dogs are removed.
Q2) Which of the following causative agents and diseases are correctly paired?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi; Lyme disease
B) Treponema pallidum; yaws
C) Treponema pallidum pertenue; relapsing fever
D) Borrelia recurrentis; syphilis
Q3) If all cyanobacteria were suddenly removed from our environment,how would you expect the biosphere to be affected?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microbes and Invertebrate Infectious Agents
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Q1) How do filamentous fungi grow in length?
A) Their hyphae undergo mitosis without cell division.
B) Their hyphae undergo meiosis to produce new cells.
C) They produce asci by mitosis without cell division.
D) They produce asci by meiosis without cell division.
Q2) Describe how the parasites that cause malaria are able to evade an immune response during an infection.
Q3) Cyanobacteria engulfed by an ancient proto-alga lead to the development of ________ in both algae and plants.
A) mitochondria
B) a nucleus
C) ribosomes
D) chloroplasts
Q4) Which of the following occurs during gamete formation but NOT during asexual reproduction?
A) replication of all chromosomes
B) paired chromosomes condensing into short rods
C) separation of pairs of homologs
D) formation of nuclear membranes around groups of chromosomes
Q5) Giardias and trichomonads are both examples of ________.
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Chapter 12: Viruses
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Q1) ________ is an example of a virus that causes major economic losses in the agriculture industry.
A) Tobacco mosaic virus
B) Measles virus
C) HIV
D) Influenza
Q2) If 100% of the DNA contents of a transducing bacteriophage were DNA from the host chromosome,what would happen when the bacteriophage infected a new bacterial cell?
A) More bacteriophage would be synthesized, resulting in death of the new bacterial cell.
B) No more bacteriophage would be synthesized, as there is no bacteriophage genome available to direct synthesis.
C) The new bacterial cell would die.
D) The bacteriophage would be converted from a lysogenic phage to a lytic bacteriophage.
Q3) Differentiate between antigenic drift and antigenic shift.Explain how one can lead to a global pandemic.
Q4) Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome.
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Chapter 13: Sterilization, Disinfection, and Antibiotic Therapy
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Q1) Describe how the antibiotic resistance mechanism using drug efflux pumps works.How could the medical community respond to this resistance mechanism to overcome it?
Q2) Because it is an essential component for every individual,if enough vitamin C is not found in the diet,supplements may be required.Vitamin C is sensitive to heat.So that it can be safe for human consumption,how can vitamin C be sterilized before being packaged into supplements?
A) autoclave
B) pasteurization
C) filtration
D) lyophilization
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)is FALSE?
A) The MIC is the same for one drug regardless of bacterial species.
B) The MIC is the lowest concentration of a drug that will prevent the growth of an organism.
C) The MIC can be affected by how well a drug penetrates a cell.
D) The MIC can be affected by the affinity of the drug for the intracellular target.
Q4) Explain how organisms can develop resistance to chemical disinfectants.
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Chapter 14: Normal Human Microbiota: a Delicate Balance of Power
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Q1) Sequestered body sites tend to be ________.
Q2) Probiotics have been used in baby chicks to prevent colonization by ________.
Q3) Which of the following is an optimal pH for the growth of Helicobacter pylori,a common inhabitant of the human stomach?
A) pH 1
B) pH 3
C) pH 5
D) pH 7
Q4) Explain how a nonpathogenic organism like Staphylococcus epidermidis present in the lungs of an individual with cystic fibrosis can still cause problems.
Q5) What is problematic about treating bacterial infections that have spread to the brain?
A) You have to be careful not to harm the good bacteria of the brain.
B) Neurons in the brain will degrade antibiotics.
C) Many antibiotics are not capable of penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
D) Bacterial infections do not spread to the brain.
Q6) Production of indole by E.coli tells host intestinal epithelial cells to tighten tight junctions and increase production of ________.
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Chapter 15: The Immune System: Inflammation and Innate Immunity
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Q1) All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT A) extravasation.
B) release of cytokines.
C) antibody synthesis.
D) vasodilation.
Q2) The complement cascade produces all of the following outcomes EXCEPT
A) creating pores in bacterial membranes.
B) increasing phagocytosis.
C) attracting white blood cells.
D) decreasing inflammation.
Q3) Cytokines that have chemotactic properties are called ________.
Q4) All of the following are mechanisms to avoid digestion by phagocytes EXCEPT A) bacterial capsules.
B) formation of phagolysosomes.
C) escape from the phagolysosome.
D) surviving inside the phagolysosome.
Q5) Compare and contrast the innate and adaptive immune responses.
Q7) Substances that cause fever are known as ________. Page 17
Q6) A clinical that counts the total number of white blood cells and identifies their various cell types is called a ________.
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Chapter 16: The Immune System: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) Proteins that do not require antigen processing and presentation are referred to as
Q2) Which of the following statements is an example of a situation in which cross-protection will occur?
A) A vaccine is administered for one of two viruses that share epitopes.
B) A single virus triggers a response from both B cells and T cells.
C) An antigen forms a cross-link between two antibodies.
D) A combination vaccine is administered to provide protection against three viruses.
Q3) Which of the following would most directly eliminate an intracellular pathogen such as a virus?
A) production of antibody
B) activation of B cells
C) activation of cytotoxic T cells
D) activation of helper T cells
Q4) Helper T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q5) Explain the role of Class II MHC in B-cell activation.
Q6) Describe the process of affinity maturation.
Q7) Cytotoxic T cells display the surface antigen ________.
Q8) Describe how infection by a virus such as hepatitis B causes tissue damage.
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Chapter 17: Immune Disorders, Tools, and Vaccines
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Q1) Patients with primary immunodeficiencies and who are immunosuppressed are prone to developing cancers.Which is the most commonly developed cancer for these patients?
A) Epstein-Barr
B) B-cell lymphomas
C) myelomas
D) mononucleosis
Q2) All of the following are true about B-cell neoplasms EXCEPT
A) cancers arise in B cells when genes that control cell division are dysregulated and fail to replicate.
B) follicular lymphoma occurs when the bcl-2 gene is activated and prevents apoptosis.
C) chronic lymphocytic leukemia occurs when there is a deletion in chromosome 13.
D) Burkitt's lymphoma develops when the c-myo gene moves next to expressed antibody genes.
Q3) Antigens that possess structures similar in shape to host structures are called
Q4) The process that detects and eliminates cancer cells as they arise is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 18: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) The fimbriae of E.coli is an example of a(n)
A) adhesion.
B) receptor.
C) endotoxin.
D) exotoxin.
Q2) All of the following are ways bacteria evade phagocytic digestion and survive intracellularly EXCEPT
A) escaping the phagosome.
B) toxin production within the phagosome.
C) inhibiting lysosome-phagosome fusion.
D) survival within the phagolysosome.
Q3) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)primarily targets which subset of immune cells?
A) CD8+ T cells
B) CD4+ T cells
C) macrophages
D) dendritic cells
Q4) Organisms that can survive inside or outside host cells are called ________ pathogens.
Q5) Draw and label an AB toxin.List two diseases that are caused by AB toxins.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Infections of the Skin and Eye
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Q1) A sight-threatening inflammation of the cornea is referred to as ________.
Q2) Opthalmia neonatorum is a serious eye disease of infants caused by ________.
Q3) All of the following are transmitted via the respiratory route EXCEPT A) smallpox.
B) chickenpox.
C) measles.
D) warts.
Q4) Smallpox is a deadly disease caused by the variola virus.Currently,the only stocks of smallpox are located in strategic centers across the United States.Discuss the pros and cons of destroying these remaining smallpox stocks.Explain your answer.
Q5) All of the following cause conjunctivitis EXCEPT A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes. C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
D) Haemophilus influenza.
Q6) Fungi that love human skin are called ________.
Q7) Explain the cycle of acne.What is the causative agent and why are some individuals more prone to acne than others?
Q8) Necrotizing fasciitis is often caused by ________.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Which of the following infections would affect the lower respiratory tract but NOT the upper respiratory tract?
A) acute otitis media
B) sinusitis
C) streptococcal pharyngitis
D) atypical pneumonia
Q2) Close contact with respiratory droplets from which of the following individuals is LEAST likely to cause disease?
A) an individual with histoplasmosis
B) an individual with influenza
C) an individual with pertussis
D) an individual with tuberculosis
Q3) The most likely mutation to cause an influenza pandemic would be a mutation in A) the head of hemagglutinin.
B) the stalk of hemagglutinin.
C) M2 protein inside the virion envelope.
D) influenza nucleoprotein.
Q4) Explain how the M proteins associated with some strains of Streptococcus pyogenes lead to streptococcal sequelae.
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Chapter 21: Systemic Infections
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Q1) The antibiotic most commonly used to treat the major systemic bacterial infections is
A) penicillin.
B) fluoroquinolones.
C) ceftriaxone.
D) tetracycline.
Q2) The protozoan infection that may be transmitted from mother to fetus and cause fetal infection leading to mental retardation,neurological abnormalities,and microcephaly is
A) visceral leishmaniasis.
B) toxoplasmosis.
C) schistosomiasis.
D) Chagas' disease.
Q3) What treatment is typically used for otherwise healthy individuals who contract infectious mononucleosis?
A) hospitalization
B) antiviral therapy
C) activity restriction
D) passive immunization
Q4) The large vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called ________.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) CPE is an enterotoxin produced by ________.
Q2) Which of the following organisms is NOT transmitted by direct fecal-oral contact?
A) Entamoeba
B) Giardia
C) Cyclospora
D) Cryptosporidium
Q3) Describe the life cycle of the tapeworm.
Q4) Why would a nondeadly intestinal pathogen most likely want to cause diarrhea?
A) to leave before the host is irreparably harmed
B) to leave before the host immune system becomes activated and begins attacking the pathogen
C) to escape to a different organ system
D) to flush out the competition
Q5) Individuals with ________ find eating and swallowing to be painful.
A) gingivitis
B) trench mouth
C) dental caries
D) plaque
Q6) During digestion,pepsin is secreted by ________.
25
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive
Tracts
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Q1) Reoccurring UTIs can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A) birth control pills.
B) biofilm formation.
C) improper clearance after antibiotic treatment.
D) reintroduction of the organism.
Q2) All of the following cause UTIs EXCEPT
A) E. coli.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) C. trichomatis.
Q3) Which of the following is the most difficult to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?
A) gonorrhea
B) genital herpes
C) syphilis
D) trichomoniasis
Q4) The recombinant HPV vaccine Gardasil offers protection against various serotypes of HPV;it is also known as an anticancer vaccine.Speculate as to why it is referred to as an anticancer vaccine.
Q5) Highly active antiretroviral therapy,or HAART,is used to treat ________.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Microorganisms reach the CNS by all of the following EXCEPT
A) migrating to the CNS from distal sites.
B) toxins traveling along peripheral nerves.
C) infecting bone.
D) inhalation of the organism.
Q2) Which of the following is true about CSF?
A) Inflammatory cells are found in both healthy and unhealthy CSF.
B) It helps to diagnose infections of the central nervous system.
C) The identification of PMNs in CSF indicates a viral infection.
D) CSF is collected via the placement of a shunt in the vertebral column.
Q3) Which of the following is treated with antibiotics?
A) botulism
B) tetanus
C) streptococcal pneumonia
D) polio
Q4) One of the complications of poliomyelitis is damage to the ________ nerve,which interferes with breathing.
Q5) Explain the transmission,etiologies,and diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Q6) A small proteinaceous infectious particle is known as a ________.
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Q7) Fungal infections of the central nervous system are also known as ________.
Chapter 25: Diagnostic Clinical Microbiology
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Q1) Growth of a bacterium in the presence of bile salts indicates the organism is
Q2) List two advantages of using real-time quantitative RT-PCR (qPCR)over tissue culture techniques when monitoring a patient with West Nile virus.
Q3) Mannitol salt agar (MSA)contains a high concentration of salt that restricts the growth of most bacterial species.MSA also changes from pink to yellow when mannitol is fermented by some organisms.Describe the characteristics that make MSA both selective and differential.
Q4) Identifying infectious agents is important because
A) it costs less money to run numerous tests than to treat with antibiotics empirically.
B) antibiotic-resistant bacteria are becoming a major global threat.
C) pathogens must be identified before antibiotics are effective.
D) antibiotics are only effective against viruses.
Q5) Lumbar puncture is the most common method for obtaining a sample of A) blood.
B) cerebrospinal fluid.
C) synovial fluid.
D) peritoneal fluid.
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Chapter 26: Epidemiology: Tracking Infectious Diseases
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Q1) CASE HISTORY
Stephanie was a bright seven-year-old girl who came to her rural Manitoba hospital for a tonsillectomy.She was a little scared,but her mother was with her and she liked the surgeon,Dr.Ryan,and his funny Winnie-the-Pooh ties.Sometimes she would even grab his tie while Dr.Ryan was examining her.However,she did not much like the IV catheter Dr.Ryan had to insert in her arm.It hurt a little,but she was brave and did not cry much.The surgery went well and Stephanie was recovering in her hospital room a few hours later.However,that night the nurse noted her temperature had risen to 102°F.By the next day,Stephanie's heart was racing and her breathing was labored.She was rushed to the pediatric intensive care unit and empiric antibiotic therapy was initiated.Despite this treatment,her blood pressure began to fall.Stephanie was diagnosed with postsurgical septic shock.To everyone's horror,Stephanie died two days later of MRSA sepsis.The organism recovered from her blood was a MRSA strain identical to one causing a wound infection in a 57-year-old man two floors down. Explain the process by which hospital staff may have been able to identify Stephanie's infection as nosocomial and identify the same isolate from other patients.
Q2) Describe two ways in which climate change can influence when and where diseases occur.
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Chapter 27: Environmental and Food Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although beer and wine are both produced through ethanolic fermentation,there are some differences in the pathway.Which of the following illustrates one of these differences?
A) Wine production involves the breakdown of long-chain carbohydrates.
B) Wine is produced from simple sugars.
C) Only beer production involves pyruvate as an intermediate.
D) Only wine production can lead to the production of diacetyl.
Q2) A microbe's contribution to an ecosystem's health depends on the A) microbe's genome and the physical and chemical characteristics of the environment. B) microbe's age and number of primary producers in the environment.
C) microbe's ability to cycle carbon and the number of decomposers in the ecosystem.
D) bioremediation capacity of the microbe and the number of predators in the ecosystem.
Q3) During the production of beer,fermentation produces ethanol and the gas
Q4) Describe how bacteria such as Lactobacillus species are used to produce yogurt.
Q5) What are the three factors that control the ways in which food spoils?
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