Applied Microbiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various industries, including medicine, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. This course examines how bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes are harnessed for tasks such as fermentation, antibiotic production, bioremediation, and the development of biofuels. Students will learn about microbial physiology, genetic engineering, and modern biotechnological applications, as well as methods for controlling harmful microbes and ensuring biosafety. The course blends theoretical knowledge with case studies and laboratory techniques, preparing students for careers in research, industry, and public health.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations10th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) Microbiology is the study of bacteria,algae,fungi,viruses and protozoa.Most of these are single-celled,except for which two:
A)bacteria (some of which are multicellular)and algae
B)algae and fungi (some have many cells)
C)protozoa and fungi
D)bacteria and viruses
Answer: B
Q2) Microbes have played important roles in genetics and in the discovery of DNA as the genetic material.What discoveries depended on bacteria
A)The ability of a previously harmless bacterium to change into a disease-causing bacterium was due to DNA acquisition.
B)The discovery of the intracellular reproduction of tobacco mosaic virus.
C)The development of the microscope.
D)The identification of a virus that causes yellow fever.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: The Microbiome
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Q1) Which of these is NOT a desirable trait for maintaining good health
A)possessing a Bacteroides-dominant microbiome
B)maintaining a healthy weight
C)eating fewer processed foods
D)having a balanced microbiome
E)all are undesirable traits
Answer: A
Q2) Which disease appeared reversible in mice when their microflora was changed
A)epilepsy
B)autism
C)altered growth rate
D)Crohn's disease
E)all are caused by maternal microbiome disturbances
Answer: B
Q3) Age but not sex affects the gut microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) Food consists of molecules with lots of energy stored in their chemical bonds.What is true about how microorganisms use nutrients
A)When microorganisms break the chemical bonds in nutrients,they release energy.
B)It takes microorganisms more energy to break the bonds in nutrients than are released.
C)All energy that microorganisms receive from nutrients comes from anabolism.
D)Microorganisms break down hydrogen bonds to release electrons as energy.
Answer: A
Q2) An ion is all of the following except:
A)a charged atom
B)an atom that has lost or gained one or more electrons
C)either a cation or an anion
D)an atom with the same number of protons as electrons
Answer: D
Q3) Fatty acids that are _________ have ___________ .
A)saturated; lost their secondary structure
B)unsaturated; a double bond between two carbons that have lost hydrogen atoms
C)saturated; one or more double bonds
D)denatured; all the hydrogen it can
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) The technique that involves the evaporation of water from a frozen and fractured specimen is called:
A)shadow casting
B)freeze-etching
C)heat fixation
D)freeze-fracturing
Q2) What statement about microscopy and staining techniques is false
A)Many species look identical under the microscope.
B)Staining and microscopic examination are usually all that is need to identify a microorganism.
C)Microscopes are of little use unless the specimens are prepared properly.
D)The degree of contrast is equally important as resolution and magnification.
Q3) Which of the following is not a differential stain
A)Gram stain
B)Schaeffer-Fulton
C)Acid-fast stain
D)Flagellar stain
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Chapter 5: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false
A)All bacteria are capable of forming capsules.
B)The chemical composition of each capsule is unique to a particular strain of bacteria.
C)Slime layers are usually thinner than capsules.
D)A slime layer protects bacteria against drying and helps trap nutrients near a cell.
Q2) Which bacterial genus normally lacks a cell wall
A)Mycobacterium
B)Streptococcus
C)Mycoplasma
D)Bacillus
Q3) The periplasmic space is found _____.
A)only in Gram positive organisms
B)between the nuclear area and the cell membrane
C)primarily in acid fast bacteria
D)between the innercell membrane and outer cell wall membrane
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Chapter 6: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) In photosynthesis,light energy is used to:
A)break down proteins
B)phosphorylate ADP to form ATP
C)synthesize carbohydrates
D)two of these choices
Q2) Which of the following is true about glycolysis
A)The net yield of ATP is two ATPs for each molecule of glucose.
B)It provides cells with a relatively large amount of energy.
C)Four molecules of ATP are used in the initial phosphorylation steps.
D)The ATP that is used up during glycolysis is not considered in calculating the net yield of ATP.
Q3) All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration,except:
A)carbon dioxide
B)oxygen
C)nitrate ions
D)sulfate ions
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Chapter 7: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Starch would be broken down to maltose by which of the following exoenzymes
A)gelatinase
B)amylase
C)caseinase
D)lipase
Q2) A bacterial culture can be kept in the log phase of growth indefinitely with the help of a/an:
A)incubator
B)chemostat
C)spectrophotometer
D)colony counter
Q3) A decrease in the amount of nitrogen to a culture of Clostridium botulinum would induce _____.
A)activation
B)germination
C)sporulation
D)outgrowth
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Genes with different information at the same locus are called _____.
A)chromosomes
B)homologs
C)plasmids
D)alleles
Q2) Replication results in the formation of what type of new molecule
A)DNA
B)RNA
C)Protein
D)Lipid
Q3) The tryptophan (trp)operon is turned on (i.e.gene expression occurs)when:
A)there is a great deal of tryptophan in the cell
B)there is a lack of tryptophan in the cell
C)the trp operon is always turned on
D)the trp operon is always turned off
Q4) Which of the following properties are exclusive to rRNA
A)Combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B)Carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C)Molecules contain an anticodon
D)Contains the nucleotide thymine
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) When cells conjugate for longer periods of time,which of the following will occur
A)Fewer genes will be transferred.
B)More genes will be transferred.
C)The same number of genes will be transferred.
D)It is impossible to tell.Conjugation time and number of genes transferred are not related.
Q2) F' (prime)plasmids:
A)are responsible for high frequency recombination
B)carry some chromosomal genes
C)are those plasmids that have never been incorporated into a bacterial chromosome
D)none of these
Q3) A virus which incorporates its DNA into the DNA of its host organism is existing as a
A)virulent phage
B)prophage
C)lytic phage
D)none of these
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Chapter 10: An Introduction to Taxonomy: The Bacteria
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Q1) In a bacterial species with multiple chromosomes,_____.
A)having one or two chromosomes has no evolutionary impact
B)it is very simple to distinguish between a chromosome and plasmid purely based on size
C)scientists postulate the use of a microfilament structure to ensure partition of both chromosomes to each daughter cell
D)duplicate genes that differ by mutations classify the organism as diploid
Q2) Within the Kingdom Monera,the group of most interest to medical microbiologists is the:
A)cyanobacteria
B)eubacteria
C)archaeobacteria
D)prokaryotic bacteria
Q3) The science of classification is generally known as _____.
A)nomenclature
B)taxonomy
C)morphology
D)dichotomy
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Chapter 11: Viruses
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Q1) Viruses are referred to as obligate intracellular parasites because:
A)viral DNA inserts itself into host DNA.
B)they reproduce and then exit the cell.
C)they use the host's energy to live.
D)they must use the host's machinery to synthesize components required for assembly into new virus particles.
Q2) Growth of a bacterium which contains a prophage represents a:
A)lytic cycle
B)temperate cycle
C)lysogenic cycle
D)induction
Q3) Bacteriophages contain the enzyme lysozyme,which is used to:
A)replicate viral DNA.
B)shut down bacterial cell metabolism.
C)weaken bacterial cell walls.
D)help recognize the proper bacterial host.
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Chapter 12: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Protists may be described according to whether they resemble organisms in each of the following kingdoms except:
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Animals
D)Plants
Q2) Cells walls in fungi are often made of _____.
A)cellulose
B)peptidoglycan
C)chitin
D)calcium carbonate
Q3) Helminths:
A)are all obligate parasites
B)have left and right halves that are mirror images
C)are a type of protozoa
D)are all hermaphroditic
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14
Chapter 13: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Disinfection is the _____.
A)killing of certain microorganisms while only inhibiting others.
B)killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or an object.
C)same as sterilization.
D)reduction of the number of pathogenic vegetative microorganisms to pose no threat of disease.
Q2) Which of the following do NOT affect viruses
A)Alkylating agents
B)Detergents
C)Alcohols
D)Heavy Metals
Q3) All of the following pertain to sonic or ultrasonic waves and their properties,EXCEPT:
A)are sound waves in the audible range
B)may cause cavitation - partial vacuum in a liquid
C)are a practical means of sterilization
D)are a useful means of fragmenting cells to study membranes,ribosomes or enzymes
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Chapter 14: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) The sulfonamide antibiotics kill bacteria by _____.
A)interfering with cell wall synthesis
B)disrupting folic acid metabolism
C)reacting with bacterial cell membranes
D)inhibiting bacterial motility
Q2) Rifampin:
A)inhibits RNA synthesis
B)inhibits all nucleic acid synthesis
C)disrupts of cell membrane function
D)acts as an antimetabolite
Q3) A special group of chemical substances that are used to treat diseases caused by microbes are called _____.
A)antibiotics
B)synthetic drugs
C)semi-synthetic drugs
D)antimicrobial agents
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Chapter 15: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Botulinum toxin:
A)when used for cosmetic purposes is called Botox
B)relieves muscle spasms in dystonia
C)is produced by Clostridium botulinum
D)all of these
Q2) Iatrogenic diseases:
A)include nosocomial infections
B)have no known causes
C)can be caused by chemicals,physical agents or viruses
D)are present at birth
Q3) Diseases in which permanent damage occurs produce:
A)toxemia
B)septicemia
C)sequelae
D)syndromes
Q4) Attenuation:
A)is the increase in the pathogenicity of a microbe
B)is the process that weakens the disease-producing ability of a pathogen
C)does not affect the capacity to produce disease
D)is the process that decreases the number of organisms that enter the body
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Chapter 16: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) A retrospective analytical study:
A)enrolls study participants before an epidemic occurs
B)considers factors that occur as an epidemic spread
C)compares study participants that receive a drug with those that received an infection
D)may determine which factors are causal after the epidemic occurs
Q2) All of the following are important when considering a descriptive epidemiological study except the:
A)locations of disease cases
B)number of cases of a disease
C)time periods of disease development
D)cause-and-effect relationships of disease cases
Q3) A non-medicinal substance that has no effect on an individual,but the individual believes is a real treatment is known as a/an:
A)index case
B)human reservoir
C)zoonosis
D)placebo
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Chapter 17: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) Tissue debris,remains of digested microorganisms,injured cells and dead phagocytes is the content of:
A)pus
B)plasma
C)opsonin
D)tonsils
Q2) What is the fragile,reddish,grainy tissue that is typically observed in cut tissue and consists of capillaries and fibroblasts
A)Gut-associated lymphoid tissue
B)Granulation tissue
C)Granuloma
D)Granulocytes
Q3) A phagocytic cell:
A)contains phagolysosomes that fuses with a phagosome to produce a lysosome
B)must first adhere to an infectious agent before it can find it
C)in the blood would include monocytes and neutrophils
D)refers to the oxidative chemicals that kill internalized microorganisms
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19
Chapter 18: Basic Principles of Adaptive Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Adaptive immunity is _____.
A)the ability of a host to mount a defense against a specific inherited agent
B)only acquired artificially
C)only acquired naturally
D)immunity obtained in some manner other than by heredity
Q2) All of the following are types of vaccines except:
A)killed whole bacteria
B)purified active toxin
C)toxoid
D)live virus
Q3) Both humoral and cellular immunity share the following attributes except:
A)distinguishes self from non-self
B)specificity
C)memory
D)first-line of defense
Q4) All are hallmarks of an effective vaccine except:
A)safe and stable
B)no adverse side effects
C)sustained protection
D)should generate antibodies but not T cells
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Chapter 19: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Immunodeficiency refers to the immune system responding _____.
A)in an exaggerated way to a foreign substance
B)so that there is too much of a good thing
C)inadequately to an antigen
D)to its own tissues as if they were foreign
Q2) Which of the following statements about immunological disorder is correct
A)Bottle-fed infants are less likely to develop food allergies than are breast-fed infants.
B)Primary immunodeficiences include malnutrition and AIDS.
C)Autoimmune disorders are hypersensitivity reactions against self-antigens.
D)Secondary immunodeficiences are genetic or developmental defects.
Q3) Type II hypersensitivities appear to be responsible for the tissue damage in all of the following EXCEPT:
A)rheumatic fever following strep throat infections
B)transfusion reactions
C)hemolytic disease of the newborn
D)lupus erythematosus
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Chapter 20: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Subcutaneous fungal infections are caused by:
A)Sporothrix schenckii
B)Candida
C)Microsporum
D)two of these
Q2) Which viral disease is seasonal with an incidence highest in March and April
A)molluscum contagiosum
B)smallpox
C)chickenpox
D)human papillomavirus
Q3) Genital warts are caused by:
A)molluscum contagiosum
B)human papilloma virus
C)cowpox
D)herpes zoster virus
Q4) Which pair of fungal skin infections is matched incorrectly
A)Tinea cruris - jock itch
B)Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails
C)Tinea capitis - scalp ringworm
D)Tinea corporis - ringworm of the face
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Chapter 21: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) The routes of infection in prostatitis include all of the following except:
A)by ascent through the urethra
B)from bloodborne organisms
C)by back-flow of contaminated urine
D)by descent from the seminal vesicles
Q2) Prostatitis is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A)urgent and frequent urination
B)blood in urine
C)low fever
D)back pain
Q3) Which of the following groups has the most problem with UTIs
A)females,infants
B)males,infants
C)females,over 60 years
D)males,adults
Q4) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by _____.
A)immobilization tests
B)using molecular probes
C)culturing the organism
D)PCR
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Chapter 22: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) The major etiology of lobar pneumonia is:
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae
D)Two of these choices
Q2) Lung fluke infection is associated with _____.
A)Paragonimus westermani
B)larvae maturing in bronchioles
C)chronic cough,bloody sputum and difficulty breathing
D)all of these choices
Q3) Which of the following can evade the killing power of macrophages and replicate in them
A)Mycobacterium
B)Streptococcus
C)Coccidioides immitis
D)Two of these choices
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Chapter 23: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which Hepatitis virus only causes severe disease when there is a coinfection with Hepatitis B
A)Hepatitis A
B)Hepatitis D
C)Hepatitis C
D)Hepatitis G
Q2) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is characterized by all of the following except:
A)causes outbreaks of bloody diarrhea
B)produces Shiga toxins 1 and 2
C)leads to kidney failure called hemorrhagic uremic syndrome (HUS)
D)produces aflatoxin
Q3) Rachael's mother won't let her children play outside their South Carolina home without shoes on to protect her children from:
A)Ascaris
B)Necator
C)Trichinella
D)Taenia saginata
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25
Chapter 24: Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) Rickettsia are characterized by all of the following except:
A)gram-negative coccobacilli
B)obligate intracellular parasites
C)embryonated eggs are often used for cultivation
D)treatment with amoxicillin is usually effective
Q2) Which of the following diseases was first seen in New York City about 60 years ago,associated with the mites of house mice and often misdiagnosed as chickenpox
A)Ehrlichiosis
B)Turkeypox
C)Rickettsialpox
D)Shingles
Q3) Which term refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood stream
A)bacteremia
B)septic shock
C)septicemia
D)lymphangitis
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Chapter 25: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to special thick-walled capillaries without pores in their walls
A)ganglia
B)meninges
C)blood-brain barrier
D)two of these choices
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a viral or bacterial cause of meningitis
A)Naegleria fowleri
B)Haemophilus influenzae type F
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) Polyomavirus particles can be observed in the _____ cells of the nervous system.
A)microglial
B)oligodendrocyte
C)sensory neuron
D)association neuron
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Chapter 26: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Which is a primary symbiotic nitrogen fixer
A)Azotobacter
B)Rhizobium
C)Cyanobacteria
D)Clostridium
Q2) Which bacteria are found in the desert and are oil eating
A)Halobacterium
B)Desulfurovibrio
C)Thiobacillus
D)Arthrobacter
Q3) The sulfur cycle is of special importance to:
A)terrestrial life
B)pseudomonas
C)proteolytic bacteria
D)aquatic life
Q4) Which of the following is used to control the of microbes in the air
A)UV light
B)triethylene glycol
C)cellulose acetate filters
D)all of these choices
28
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Chapter 27: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Canned goods will _____.
A)not spoil unless they are dented or improperly canned at the factory
B)not spoil because of the high salt content
C)will remain edible for years if not contaminated
D)have been subjected to dry heat under very low pressure but high oxygen treatment
Q2) Aflatoxins are produced by _____.
A)Claviceps purpurea
B)Staphylococcus
C)Aspergillus
D)Bacillus
Q3) Which of the following contamination is incorrectly matched with the food it affects
A)Fusarium fungus- tomatoes infected from fruit flies
B)Leuconostoc and Lactitrous bacteria - fresh fruit juice acts as a high sugar media
C)Monilia fructicola - brown rot in peaches
D)Erwinia carotovora - microbial invasion of melons
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