Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology
Test Preparation
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various industries and aspects of everyday life. This course examines the roles of bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes in fields such as medicine, agriculture, food production, environmental management, and biotechnology. Students will learn about the processes involved in fermentation, waste treatment, bioremediation, and the development of antibiotics and vaccines. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques, current advances in microbial technology, and the ethical and safety considerations associated with microbiological applications.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Systems Approach 5th Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Main Themes of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All bacteria and archaea are microorganisms, but only some eukaryotes are microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow?
A)Decomposition of dead matter and wastes
B)Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets
C)Formation of greenhouse gases, CO<sub>2</sub> and methane
D)Thermal hot springs warmed by heat from earth's interior
Answer: D
Q3) In general, eukaryotic cells are about ______ times larger than bacterial or archaeal cells.
A)2
B)10
C)50
D)1000
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are lipids except ______.
A)wax
B)cholesterol
C)phospholipid
D)starch
E)triglyceride
Answer: D
Q2) Most biochemical macromolecules are polymers, which are chains of ______.
A)hydrophobic molecules
B)hydrogen bonds
C)repeating carbohydrates
D)electrolytic molecules
E)repeating monomers
Answer: E
Q3) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A)Adenine
B)Thymine
C)Cytosine
D)Uracil
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing of Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do the Gram stain, the acid-fast stain, and the endospore stain have in common?
A)They use heat to force the dye into cell structures.
B)The staining outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall.
C)They are used on a wet mount of the specimen.
D)They are differential stains.
E)They use a negative stain technique.
Answer: D
Q2) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium.Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture.What is the most likely explanation?
A)The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B)The culture medium was selective.
C)The culture medium was differential.
D)The culture was contaminated.
E)The incubation temperature was incorrect.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium and Nocardia are distinguished from other bacteria by the ______ stain.
A)endospore
B)basic
C)methylene blue
D)Gram
E)acid-fast
Q2) The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient has a serious respiratory infection.A sputum sample yielded a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan.You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ______.
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
D)Staphylococcus aureus
E)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct order of the three main types of cytoskeletal elements in increasing order of size.
A)Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, flagella
B)Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
C)Microtubules, flagella, cilia
D)Microtubules, intermediate filaments, actin filaments
E)Microtubules, cilia, flagella
Q2) Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the endosymbiotic theory.
A)The electron transport system is located in the cell membrane in bacteria, while in eukaryotes it is located in the mitochondrial cristae.
B)Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus.
C)Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids.
D)Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells.
Q3) Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: An Introduction to the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called ______.
A)viroids
B)phages
C)prions
D)oncogenic viruses
E)spikes
Q2) Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during ______.
A)replication
B)assembly
C)adsorption
D)release
E)penetration
Q3) Viruses attach to their hosts via ______.
A)host glycoproteins
B)host phospholipids
C)viral phospholipids
D)viral flagella
E)carbohydrate attachments of the viral capsid
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Chapter 7: Microbial Nutrition, Ecology, and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ______.
A)diffusion
B)osmosis
C)endocytosis
D)active transport
E)facilitated diffusion
Q2) You inoculate a bacterium into three tubes of nutrient broth medium containing added salt: 0.5% NaCl, 5% NaCl, and 15% NaCl.After incubation, you notice significant turbidity in the 15% NaCl medium and modest turbidity in the 5% NaCl medium.There is no growth in the third tube.This organism would be termed ______.
A)osmophobic
B)halophilic
C)haloduric
D)barophilic
Q3) Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inorganic nitrogen must be converted to ammonia to be used by a cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Metabolism: The Chemical Crossroads of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule, this control is called ______.
A)competitive inhibition
B)enzyme induction
C)enzyme repression
D)noncompetitive inhibition
Q2) The step involving ATP, hexokinase, and the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
A)the final step of the Krebs cycle.
B)the first redox reaction of the electron transport system.
C)an example of oxidative phosphorylation.
D)an example of substrate-level phosphorylation.
E)an example of photophosphorylation.
Q3) The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for further use in glycolysis.
A)pyruvic acid
B)ATP
C)NAD+
D)NADH
E)glucose
10
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Chapter 9: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The field of genomics refers to
A)the study of an organism's complete genome, including plasmid, mitochondrial, and chloroplast DNA.
B)the study of chromosomal DNA.
C)the study of an organism's plasmids.
D)the study of cellular, but not viral, genomes.
Q2) The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them is _______.
A)DNA ligase
B)DNA polymerase
C)DNA helicase
D)DNA gyrase
E)primase
Q3) Which of the following is not true of conjugation?
A)Involves direct contact between cells
B)Transfers genes for drug resistance
C)Transfers genes for enzymes and adherence molecules
D)Involves the action of bacteriophage
E)The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes
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Chapter 10: Genetic Engineering and Recombinant Dna
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following are features of a cloning host except
A)quick generation time.
B)minimal growth requirements.
C)mapped genome.
D)pathogenicity.
E)transformable.
Q2) Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR?
A)Target DNA removed from cells and isolated
B)Cloning host treated with calcium chloride and receives plasmid
C)Target DNA and plasmid treated with the same restriction endonuclease
D)Desired protein is produced by cloning host
E)Gene is amplified by multiplication of cloning host
Q3) Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A)Probes can be applied to intact cells.
B)Probes can locate genes on chromosomes.
C)It can be used to identify unknown bacteria without culturing.
D)It uses electrophoresis to separate the DNA.
E)It can be used to detect RNA in cells.
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Chapter 11: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding the use of osmotic pressure as an antimicrobial agent?
A)Salts and sugars external to a microbe create a hypotonic environment, which causes lysis of the cell.
B)Salt is an effective solute to create an osmotic pressure gradient outside of a cell; however, the use of sugar, such as in jams and jellies, works via a different mechanism.
C)Exposing a microbe to a hypertonic environment draws water out of the cell, causing plasmolysis.
D)Exposing organisms to the air on a benchtop so they completely dry out is an example of using osmotic pressure as a means of microbial control.
Q2) _____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them.
A)Disinfection
B)Filtration
C)Boiling
D)Radiation
E)Sterilization
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as ______.
A)prebiotics
B)probiotics
C)lantibiotics
D)phytobiotics
E)riboswitches
Q2) Which group are the key drugs used to treat Hansen's disease (leprosy)?
A)Sulfonamides
B)Sulfones
C)Fluoroquinolones
D)Polymyxins
E)Streptomyces
Q3) What antibiotic is mixed with neomycin and polymyxin to make an antibiotic ointment (Neosporin) for superficial skin infections?
A)Vancomycin
B)Bacitracin
C)Chloramphenicol
D)Streptomycin
E)Clindamycin
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Chapter 13: Microbe-Human Interactions: Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The skin's resident biota are localized to only the outermost superficial layer of the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which genus is the most common resident biota of mouth surfaces?
A)Lactobacillus
B)Streptococcus
C)Haemophilus
D)Escherichia
E)Mycobacterium
Q4) The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate.
A)morbidity
B)mortality
C)incidence
D)endemic
E)pandemic
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Chapter 14: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main function of the mononuclear phagocyte system is to provide A)surveillance cells.
B)a connection between tissues and organs.
C)filtration of extracellular fluid.
D)filtration of blood.
Q2) Genetic markers that distinguish a self cell from a foreign invader are typically ______.
A)DNA or RNA
B)lipids or lipoproteins
C)proteins or glycoproteins
D)polysaccharides
Q3) The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called ______.
A)pus
B)chemotaxis
C)edema
D)vasoactivity
E)diapedesis
Q4) Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major histocompatibility complex is
A)a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found on all body cells.
B)a set of genes that code for MHC glycoproteins.
C)found on the third chromosome.
D)located in the thymus gland.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) T cell response to T-dependent antigens requires
A)typically a protein antigen.
B)binding of the T cell to a class II MHC receptor on a macrophage.
C)binding of the T cell to a site on the antigen.
D)interleukin-1 activating the T helper cell.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgD
E)IgE
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antihistamine will
A)bind to histamine receptors on target organs.
B)reverse spasms of respiratory smooth muscles.
C)block synthesis of leukotrienes.
D)inhibit the activity of lymphocytes.
Q2) Which of the following is not a possible explanation for the origin of autoimmune diseases?
A.Sequestered antigens
B.Forbidden clones
C.Molecular mimicry
D.The gut microbiome
E.All the choices are currently being investigated as possible explanations.
Q3) Histamine causes all of the following except
A)relaxation of vascular smooth muscle.
B)pruritis and headache.
C)increased sensitivity to pain.
D)wheal and flare reaction in skin.
E)constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine.
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18
Chapter 17: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Western blot test is confirmatory for HIV because it
A)is more sensitive than the ELISA.
B)has fewer false positives than the ELISA.
C)requires electrophoresis, whereas the ELISA does not.
D)uses an indicator of some sort to visualize the antibody.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following is correct regarding the polymerse chain reaction test?
A)Sheep red blood cells are added to the gel.
B)The two strands of the DNA molecules are separated by heat.
C)Antigen and antibody are allowed to react first.
D)An enzyme-linked indicator is added.
Q3) The testing method involving the separation of serum proteins by electrophoresis, their subsequent transfer to special filters, and then probing with patient sera is called A)the Western blot.
B)immunelectrophoresis.
C)a radioimmunoassay (RIA).
D)Ouchterlony double diffusion.
E)the Quellung test.
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus.
A)variola
B)herpes simplex
C)
Human herpesvirus 6
D)smallpox
E)vaccinia
Q2) Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A)Gastrointestinal
B)Inhalational
C)Cutaneous
D)Muscular
Q4) Which of the following statements about blisters is correct?
A)Blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis.
B)Blisters originate in the subcutaneous layer.
C)Blisters are confined to the epidermis.
D)Blisters originate in the dermis.
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tetanus can be prevented with the DTaP childhood immunization and boosters with the tetanus toxoid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of cell has phagocytic capabilities in the central nervous system?
A)Macrophages
B)Neurons
C)Astrocytes
D)Schwann cells
E)Microglial cells
Q3) Up to 50% of persons who survived polio as children will suffer from post-polio syndrome later in life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cryptococcus neoformans is a ______.
A)gram-positive bacterium
B)prion
C)fungus
D)gram-negative bacterium
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anthrax is not routinely diagnosed in the U.S.because
A)it is a rare infection.
B)infections are usually asymptomatic.
C)infection is generally only seen in late-stage AIDS patients.
D)health care workers haven't been trained to detect it.
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding patients with AIDS?
A)AIDS patients get repeated, life-threatening, opportunistic infections.
B)The highest number of AIDS cases worldwide is in the United States.
C)AIDS patients have an immunodeficiency.
D)AIDS patients have a CD4 T-cell titer below 200 cells/mm<sup>3</sup> of blood.
E)AIDS patients can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders.
Q3) The causative agent of Lyme disease is ______.
A)Leptospira interrogans
B)Ixodes pacificus
C)Borrelia burgdorferi
D)Borrelia hermsii
E)Ixodes scapularis
Q4) The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A)produces several virulence factor enzymes and an exotoxin.
B)integrates its genome into host cell DNA.
C)can survive for 8 months in fine aerosol particles.
D)has a capsule.
E)lives in the soil.
Q2) Respiratory syncytial virus
A)causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger.
B)uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site.
C)can be treated with the antiviral aerosol ribavirin.
D)has symptoms of dyspnea and rales.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The most common causative agent of otitis media is ______.
A)Aspergillus fumigatus
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Candida albicans
D)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Chapter 22: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding schistosomiasis is incorrect?
A)There is only a single drug available to treat Schistosoma infection, praziquantel, and drug-resistant strains are beginning to arise.
B)Once a person has recovered from an infection with Schistosoma mansoni, they are protected with lifelong immunity.
C)Efficacy of treatment is assess by observing fecal samples placed in water for whether eggs can hatch to release live miracidia.
D)Schistosomiasis is transmitted by exposing the skin to a water source that has been contaminated with sewage.
Q2) All of the following are true of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) except that it
A)is common in AIDS patients.
B)is associated with severe pain, bleeding, pseudomembranes, and necrosis.
C)involves Treponema vincentii, Prevotella intermedia, and Fusobacterium.
D)is due to poor oral hygiene, altered host defenses, or prior gum disease.
E)is highly contagious.
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Chapter 23: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gardasil prevents infection by group B Streptococcus types 6, 11, 16, and 18.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following ways are Chlamydia and viruses the same?
A)Both can remain dormant in the cell nucleus for long periods of time.
B)Both are best treated with antiviral chemotherapy.
C)Both have surface proteins that cannot be recognized by the immune system.
D)Both are able to reproduce only within a eukaryotic cell.
Q3) Lymphogranuloma venereum is a complication of ______.
A)Chlamydia infection
B)genital herpes
C)syphilis
D)gonorrhea
E)HIV infection
Q4) The chancre of syphilis
A)occurs due to small hemorrhaging of capillaries.
B)develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater.
C)is very painful.
D)occurs during the tertiary stage.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Microbes and the Environment
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding biogeochemical cycles is incorrect?
A)Recycling keeps nutrients in balance.
B)All elements originate from a nonliving, long-term reservoir.
C)All organisms directly participate in recycling.
D) Cycles are simple systems between living and nonliving components.
E)Elements cycle through biotic and abiotic environments.
Q2) Scientists have learned the full extent of viral abundance on earth because
A)the final step of the viral life cycle, release of mature viruses and cell lysis, releases millions of viruses.
B)metagenomic sequencing has identified viruses in a broad variety of environments.
C)a wide variety of microbes is available to act as hosts for these viruses.
D)viruses are known to grow on all life forms: animal, plant, fungi, and bacteria.
Q3) A group of organisms of the same genus within a community is called a ______.
A)biome
B)community
C)habitat
D)niche
E)population
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Chapter 25: Applied Microbiology and Food and Water Safety
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Q1) Irradiated food becomes radioactive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacteriophages sprayed on cold cuts are effective against ______.
A)coliforms
B)Clostridium
C)Listeria
D)S.aureus
E)Mycobacterium
Q3) You have to determine what method is best to prevent the growth of microorganisms in your company's food, ham roasts.This method should be efficient, have a high kill rate, not change the food integrity or taste for the most part, and not add much in the way of chemicals.What would you choose?
A)Food preservatives
B)Filtration
C)Freezing
D) Gamma radiation
E) Pasteurization
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