Applied Microbiology
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Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology focuses on the practical use of microorganisms in various industries, including healthcare, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. The course explores microbial physiology, genetics, and metabolic pathways, emphasizing the role of microbes in fermentation, biotechnology, bioremediation, and the production of pharmaceuticals. Students learn about methods for isolating, identifying, and manipulating microorganisms, as well as strategies for controlling harmful microorganisms to ensure public health and safety. Real-world case studies and laboratory experiences provide hands-on understanding of how microbiological processes are harnessed to solve practical problems and improve quality of life.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology 1st Edition by Dave Wessner
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World
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Q1) This early microbiology pioneer developed a set of criteria for linking a specific microorganism to a specific disease.
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Edward Jenner
C) Robert Koch
D) John Tyndall
E) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Answer: C
Q2) The process of glycolysis is used to produce energy from simple sugars.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In regards to metabolic diversity,which statement below is true?
A) Eukaryotic cells possess the greatest metabolic diversity.
B) Archaea and Bacteria possess greater metabolic diversity than Eukarya.
C) Animals possess greater metabolic diversity than bacteria.
D) Plants possess greater metabolic diversity than bacteria.
E) Protozoa possess greater metabolic diversity than bacteria.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacteria
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Q1) What is the function of the bacterial capsule?
A) Attachment.
B) Preventing phagocytosis by phagocytic cells.
C) Resisting desiccation.
D) All of these choices.
E) None of these choices.
Answer: D
Q2) Which compound binds the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria to the thin peptidoglycan layer?
A) lipoproteins
B) lipoteichoic acid
C) porin
D) bactoprenol
E) polysaccharide
Answer: A
Q3) The bacterial flagellum is structurally and functionally related to the eukaryotic flagellum.
Answer: periplasmic
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4
Chapter 3: Eukaryal Microbes
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Q1) Microtubules are composed of which protein?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) tubulin
D) flagellin
E) keratin
Answer: C
Q2) Aggregate formation in Dictyostelium cells is the result of a cell signaling mechanism that uses cyclic AMP as a signal molecule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Eukaryal microbes called amitochondriates lack mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) All eukaryal microbes possess cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Archaea
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Q1) Where have halophiles been isolated from?
A) hydrothermal vents
B) temperate environments
C) very cold environments
D) both b and c
E) a, b, and c are correct
Q2) Many cultured and characterized strains from the phylum Crenarchaeota were isolated from _____ .
A) the ocean
B) freshwater lakes
C) thermal hot springs
D) dry soil
E) sea ice
Q3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the chromosome found in most archaeal cells?
A) The chromosome is made of double stranded DNA.
B) Histones are associated with the chromosome.
C) The chromosome is found in a structure called the nucleoid.
D) The chromosome is found in a single copy.
E) The chromosome is linear.
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Chapter 5: Viruses
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Q1) Why is the human hepatitis delta virus similar to satellite viruses of plants?
A) It has a similar nucleic acid sequence.
B) It can also cause an infection in plants.
C) It requires a helper virus for replication in the cell.
D) It is a single-stranded DNA virus.
E) It is related to the retroviruses.
Q2) Filtration of a bacteriophage preparation replicated in E.coli will effectively separate viable cells from phage particles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enveloped viruses acquire their envelope from host cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these comprises the viral genome?
A) single-stranded DNA
B) single-stranded RNA
C) double-stranded DNA
D) double-stranded RNA
E) All of these choices are seen in viruses.
Q5) What is a prophage and how is the prophage established in a bacterial cell?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cultivating Microorganisms
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Q1) If you had an E.coli culture with a starting cell density of 1 X 10 cells/ml and it had a generation time of 40 minutes,what would be the cell density after incubation for 6 hours?
A) 3 X 10 cells/ml
B) 5.1 X 10 cell/ml
C) 6.3 X 10 cells/ml
D) 9.4 X 10 cells/ml
E) 1 X 10 cells/ml
Q2) What would you use to measure the optical density of a bacterial culture?
A) a Petroff-Hauser counting chamber
B) a flow cytometer
C) the plate count method
D) a spectrophotometer
E) a microscope
Q3) What is the most common solidifying agent used in microbiological media?
A) gelatin
B) agar
C) alginate
D) silica
E) polyacrylamide
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Chapter 7: DNA Replication and Gene Expression
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Q1) The main difference between Bacteria and Archaea chromosomal DNA when compared to Eukarya chromosomal DNA,is that the Bacteria or Archaea chromosome usually:
A) is circular while Eukarya is linear.
B) is diploid while Eukarya is haploid.
C) consist of several chromosomes while Eukarya has a single chromosome.
D) contains the base uracil while Eukarya has thymine in place of uracil.
E) is found in a non-condensed form while Eukarya DNA is highly condensed and packaged.
Q2) What,in bacteria,is analogous to the autonomously replicating sequence (ARS)in yeast?
A) the promoter
B) a plasmid
C) a transposon
D) the oriC
E) a prophage
Q3) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?
Q4) Basic proteins that help to package the DNA in eukaryal cells are called ________.
Q5) The origin of replication site in yeast is called the _____ _______ sequence.
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Chapter 8: Viral Replication Strategies
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Q1) Antibody produced in response to a viral infection is able to neutralize viral attachment by
A) binding nucleic acid polymerases and preventing viral nucleic acid replication.
B) binding ribosomes and preventing viral protein translation.
C) activating macrophages to phagocytize the virus.
D) binding to the viral attachment proteins to prevent attachment to the host cell receptor.
E) binding to the host cell receptor molecule to prevent the attachment of the virus.
Q2) Bacteriophage T4 lyses the bacterial host cell for release of newly formed virions.The cell wall of the bacterium is broken down by this virally encoded enzyme
A) lysozyme.
B) protease.
C) -lactamase.
D) nuclease.
E) peptidase.
Q3) What are the functions of the retrovirus enzymes reverse transcriptase and integrase for the replication of the virus?
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Chapter 9: Bacterial Genetic Analysis
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Q1) Suppose a strain of Escherichia coli is identified as an Hfr strain.In a conjugational experiment between the donor Hfr strain and a recipient E.coli strain that is F ,what would you expect to result?
A) The recipient to become F .
B) The recipient to become an Hfr strain.
C) The recipient to remain F .
D) The donor to become F .
E) The donor to transfer the entire F-plasmid.
Q2) Which of these is TRUE regarding replication of a plasmid in a bacterial cell?
A) It is only replicated when the plasmid is integrated within the chromosome.
B) It requires replication of the chromosome first.
C) It requires a unique DNA polymerase.
D) It is independent of chromosome replication.
E) It occurs only after cell division.
Q3) An expression vector contains a strong promoter next to the cloning site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In order for a plasmid to replicate once it enters a cell,it must contain an ______ of replication that is recognized by the cell.
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Chapter 10: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) Metagenomics uses a culture-independent based genomic analysis of microbial communities to determine community composition.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing has been automated and uses a(n):
A) thermal-stable DNA polymerase to allow for multiple rounds of DNA synthesis.
B) trideoxynucleotides in the synthesis reactions.
C) radiolabeled nucleotides for fragment detection.
D) agarose gel electrophoresis for fragment separation.
E) chemical digestion method for fragment generation.
Q3) The Sanger method of DNA sequencing requires an oligonucleotide primer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A gene in a cell undergoes duplication.This gene may evolve a novel function while the original gene encodes for a protein with normal function.These genes would be considered ____________.
Q5) The Sanger method of sequencing used special nucleotides that are called ________ nucleotides.
Q6) Explain how % G + C analysis of a genome can detect horizontal gene transfer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) The two-component regulatory systems uses a _______ ________ and a response regulator.
Q2) Attenuation is a regulator mechanism in bacteria that relies on:
A) the inactivation of a repressor protein.
B) the activation of an activator protein.
C) transcription and translation occurring simultaneously.
D) transcription termination occurring by a rho-dependent mechanism.
E) translation termination occurring at a stop codon.
Q3) How is quorum sensing,a type of cell to cell communication,mediated?
A) By direct cell contact.
B) By transfer of genetic information.
C) By chemical signaling.
D) By two-component regulation.
E) By an induction mechanism.
Q4) The use of sigma factor by RNAP for promoter identification is a type of A) induction.
B) global regulation.
C) activation.
D) attenuation.
E) quorum sensing.
13
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Chapter 12: Microbial Biotechnology
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Q1) Which primary fraction of plant biomass is used as feedstock for biofuels production?
A) disaccharides
B) cellulose
C) pectin
D) chitin
E) protein
Q2) In industry,fermentation must be done anaerobically.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Random mutagenesis is often used in industry to produce microbial strains that have increased production ability.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why are bioplastics often preferred over conventional plastics?
A) Bioplastics are stronger.
B) Bioplastics are less dense.
C) Bioplastics are biodegradable.
D) Bioplastics are cheaper to produce.
E) Bioplastics are more pliable.
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Chapter 13: Metabolism
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Q1) Organism that use inorganic molecules as electron sources are called ______________.
Q2) The purple sulfur bacteria produce reducing power during the light reactions of photosynthesis by what process?
A) cyclic photophosphorylation
B) the Calvin cycle
C) reverse electron flow
D) the reverse TCA cycle
E) the Parnas pathway
Q3) How do enzymes increase the rate of a biochemical reaction?
A) By lowering the activation energy.
B) By increasing the standard free energy.
C) By lowering the standard free energy.
D) By increasing the activation energy.
E) By lowering the reduction potential.
Q4) ATP molecules are the primary energy molecules for all cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The photosynthetic membranes in cyanobacteria are called __________ membranes.
Q6) Organism that use light as energy sources are called _____________.
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Chapter 14: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Methanogenesis is an anaerobic process.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chemoautotrophic process that results in the oxidation of ammonia to nitrite is called ____________.
Q3) The process of nitrification is carried out by chemoautotrophic bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The anaerobic process that results in the reduction of nitrate to dinitrogen gas is called ______________.
Q5) The burning of fossil fuels has contributed to an increase in the atmospheric gas _______ ________.
Q6) What is the oxidation state of carbon in lactic acid (C H O )?
A) 0
B) -2
C) -4
D) +2
E) +4
Q7) Methanogens are members of the Domain _______.
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Q8) An interacting community of interdependent organisms is called a/an _________.
Chapter 15: Microbial Ecosystems
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Q1) The use of living organisms to clean up chemically contaminated soils is called
Q2) How would you best classify most of the microbes from marine environments that cannot be isolated?
A) obligate anaerobes
B) obligate oligotrophs
C) obligate acidophiles
D) extreme halophiles
E) extreme thermophiles
Q3) Lignocellulose is primarily mineralized by this group of organisms during plant decomposition.
A) fungi
B) Gram positive bacteria
C) Gram negative bacteria
D) Archaea
E) slime molds
Q4) The part of the soil that immediately surrounds the plant root is called the
Q5) Sulfur emitted from hydrothermal vents is in the form of __________.
Q6) Describe how FISH is used to detect certain groups of microorganisms.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Microbiology of Food and Water
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Q1) What bacterium is used in the production of Swiss cheese to give it its characteristic flavor and also the holes from carbon dioxide production?
A) Pediococcus
B) Leuconostoc
C) Propionibacterium
D) Clostridium
E) Pseudomonas
Q2) Canning is a technique used in food preservation.The food to be canned is heated to boiling for an hour
A) in the presence of high salt.
B) under acidic conditions.
C) with a preservative added for long term storage.
D) under pressure of 10 - 15 psi.
E) and immediately chilled after boiling.
Q3) Food storage temperature is an ____________ factor that affects the rate at which a food will spoil.
Q4) One of the main reasons for wastewater treatment is to reduce the BOD.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Microbial Symbionts
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Q1) When the diet of a ruminant is drastically changed from grass to a starch rich diet,the ruminant may become very ill or die because:
A) the microbes in the rumen cannot break down starch.
B) of the production of large amounts of acid, resulting in acidosis.
C) they lack a source of protein.
D) they are unable to regurgitate the starch as cud.
E) the starch is broken down very slowly and the rumen becomes clogged.
Q2) How do termites obtain nitrogen in their diet?
A) From digestion of proteins.
B) From digestion of nucleic acids.
C) From nitrogen fixing bacteria in their gut.
D) From urea.
E) From nitrogen fixing protozoa.
Q3) The most common inhabitants of the human skin are members of which phyla?
A) Proteobacteria and Bacteroidetes
B) Proteobacteria and Firmicutes
C) Bacteroidetes and Firmicutes
D) Firmicutes and Actinobacteria
E) Actinobacteria and Proteobacteria
Q4) The heaviest colonized area of the human body is the __________.
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Infectious Diseases
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Q1) All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell EXCEPT:
A) pili.
B) lipoteichoic acid.
C) attachment proteins.
D) chitinases.
E) surface glycoproteins.
Q2) The incidence of a disease is the number of new cases of the disease in a population over a specific period of time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Term for the number of NEW cases of a disease within a population during a specific time period.
A) prevalence
B) incidence
C) occurrence
D) infectious dose 50
E) mortality rate
Q4) A(n)_____________ disease is one that is always present in a population.
Q5) Why is Koch's third postulate sometimes problematic?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Innate Host Defenses Against Microbial Invasion
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Q1) What are toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
A) PAMPs found in invertebrates.
B) PAMPs found in vertebrates.
C) PRRs found in vertebrates and invertebrates.
D) PRRs found only in vertebrates.
E) PAMPs found in vertebrates and invertebrates.
Q2) A component often added to vaccines to stimulate the immune response to pathogen components in the vaccine is called a/an _____________
Q3) NK cells can recognize and destroy cancer cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a natural defense barrier against infection of the small intestine?
A) large numbers of resident microbes
B) bile salts
C) peristalsis
D) mucus
E) antimicrobial peptides
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Q5) What are the visible signs of inflammation and what causes these symptoms?
Chapter 20: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) CD4 T cells can be activated by binding soluble antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) TH2 cells play an important role in the humoral immunity response.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these is NOT a function of dendritic cells?
A) Activate naïve CD4 T cells.
B) Activate naïve CD8 T cells.
C) Function as a "professional" phagocyte.
D) Activate effector CD4 T cells
E) Activate memory CD4 T cells.
Q4) Macrophages perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:
A) present antigen on MHC I type molecules.
B) present antigen on MHC II type molecules.
C) phagocytize bacteria.
D) produce antibody.
E) activate T cells.
Q5) Salts or oils commonly added to vaccines to enhance the immunogenicity of the vaccine antigens are called _________________.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Survival in the Host
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Q1) Horizontal gene transfer by bacteriophage is thought to be a very rare mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cytolysins are cytotoxins that act on the ________ membrane to lyse the cell.
Q3) The DTaP vaccine is designed to protect against which diseases?
A) diarrhea, tetanus, and polio
B) diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
C) diarrhea, tetanus, and pertussis
D) diphtheria, tetanus, and polio
E) diarrhea, measles, and polio
Q4) Pathogenicity islands are blocks of genes on the bacterial chromosome that most likely arose from this process.
A) spontaneous mutation
B) horizontal gene transfer
C) vertical gene transfer
D) chemically induced mutagenesis
E) mutation via gamma radiation
Q5) A primary pathological feature of a Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection is the appearance of ___________ in the lungs.
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Chapter 22: Viral Pathogenesis
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Q1) This type of viral infection results in the continuous production of virions over several years.
A) acute infection
B) latent infection
C) persistent infection
D) lytic infection
E) spontaneous infection
Q2) Some viruses,like the influenza virus,are able to cause disease in humans multiple times because they quickly alter their antigenic proteins through mutation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of these causes the common "cold sore"?
A) rhinovirus
B) varicella zoster virus
C) rotavirus
D) coronavirus
E) herpes simplex I virus
Q4) Warts are caused by the _______________.
Q5) A viral infection of short duration is referred to as a(n)________ infection.
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Chapter 23: Eukaryal Microbe Pathogenesis
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Q1) What is Ascaris lumbricoides,a helminth that causes ascariasis,commonly called?
A) hookworm
B) roundworm
C) tapeworm
D) pinworm
E) whipworm
Q2) Most of the clinical symptoms observed in an individual with malaria result from this activity.
A) Sporozoite infection of the liver.
B) Sporozoite infection of muscle.
C) Lysis of red blood cells by merozoites.
D) Infection of white-blood cells by merozoites.
E) Parasite infection of the brain cells.
Q3) How do trypanosomes evade host defense mechanisms to cause disease?
A) By killing phagocytic cells.
B) By avoiding phagocytosis through capsule production.
C) By replicating inside white-blood cells.
D) By binding the Fc region of immunoglobulins.
E) By an antigenic variation mechanism.
Q4) Describe the life cycle of the parasite Giardia lamblia.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Control of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Which one of the following classes of antibacterial drugs listed below does not target protein synthesis?
A) aminoglycosides
B) macrolides
C) tetracylcines
D) rifamycins
E) chloramphenicols
Q2) Control strategies that may be used to control yellow fever are _____.
A) vaccination and destruction of mosquito breeding grounds.
B) use of antibiotics and vaccination.
C) use of antibiotics and destruction of mosquito breeding grounds.
D) frequent hand washing and vaccination.
E) frequent hand washing and use of antibiotics.
Q3) The mode of action of -lactam antibiotics in bacteria is directed against _____.
A) cell membrane synthesis.
B) peptidoglycan synthesis.
C) protein synthesis.
D) transcription.
E) DNA replication.
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