Applied Microbiology
Review Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microbiological principles in various fields such as medicine, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. This course covers fundamental concepts of microbial physiology, genetics, and ecology, and emphasizes the role of microorganisms in industrial processes, biotechnology, disease prevention, and environmental sustainability. Through case studies and laboratory techniques, students gain hands-on experience in isolating, identifying, and utilizing microorganisms to address real-world challenges, fostering an understanding of how microbes can be harnessed for human benefit.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Page 2
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Q1) Which of the following explains the dramatic decrease in death rates attributed to infectious disease during the twentieth century?
A)Advances in public health
B)Chlorination of drinking water
C)Use of antibiotics
D)Effective vaccine programs
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
Q2) A rapid rise has recently occurred in the number of tuberculosis patients and in the problems of treating this disease.What factors are contributing to this?
Answer: The main problems are the increased use of injected illegal drugs,which allows the disease to spread via needles,and the increased incidence of AIDS,which destroys the immune protection against tuberculosis.Poor socioeconomic conditions and migration also play a role.
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) When a molecule only contains sets of 2 shared electrons,it must contain which bonds?
A)Hydrogen
B)Inorganic
C)Ionic
D)Covalent
Answer: D
Q2) The part of a biological molecule that participates in chemical reactions is referred to as
A)ATP
B)A covalent bond
C)Primary structure
D)An active site
E)A functional group
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) When an enzyme has bound to its substrate a(n)_____ is formed.
A)Proteolytic complex
B)Cofactor complex
C)Enzyme-substrate complex
D)Coenzyme complex
E)Carrier complex
Answer: C
Q2) Explain why anabolism is important during the replication of bacteria during an infection.
Answer: When bacteria replicate,anabolism is required to ensure that a continuous supply of large molecules is provided for the new cells generated.Anabolism is the process of biosynthesis,and it requires energy from the cell to build large molecules from small building blocks.
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Heterotrophs - CO2
B)Chemo heterotrophs - organic compounds
C)Chemoautotrophs - inorganic molecules
D)Photoautotrophs - sunlight and CO2
E)Infectious organisms - organic compounds
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) What is the function of a flagellum?
A)Resistance to antibodies
B)Motility
C)Resistance to antibiotics
D)Resistance of disinfectants
E)Endospore formation
Q2) Which bacteria lose their crystal violet when the decolorizer alcohol is added during the Gram stain procedure?
A)Gram-negative
B)Gram-positive
C)Gram-intensive
D)Gram-dormant
Q3) What is a biofilm and why are biofilms clinically problematic? Provide a specific example.
Q4) Considering the development of high performance high technology methods for detecting and differentiating organisms,justify the continued use of staining techniques.
Q5) You are teaching a class the principles of the Gram stain.Discuss which controls you will use to illustrate what happens during the decolorizing step.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Identify three types of exotoxin and indicate their effect in the host.Provide two specific examples of each type of exotoxin and the name of the organisms that produce it.
Q2) The reason for converting toxins to toxoids for vaccine use is
A)To reduce their antigenicity
B)To increase their toxicity
C)To stimulate better immune responses
D)To retain their antigenicity but destroy their toxicity
Q3) How does tooth brushing protect teeth from cavity formation?
Q4) Which of the following is not a location where mucous membranes are found?
A)Lungs
B)Esophagus
C)Urinary bladder
D)Vagina
E)Pancreas
Q5) Virulence factors fall into two main classes; defensive (protecting the pathogen from destruction by the host)and offensive (destructive to host cells or triggering dangerous host responses.)Give three examples of each type and explain how each is defensive or offensive.Can you think of a virulence factor that is both defensive and offensive?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) In 1832 Cholera was present in the Indian subcontinent,Russia,Hungary,Germany,England,France,Canada and the USA.The technical term for this situation is a(n)
A)Pandemic
B)Epidemic
C)Global outbreak
D)Prospective disease
E)International emergency
Q2) Contact transmission may occur indirectly when a nonliving intermediate,called a _____,is involved.
A)Fomite
B)Vector
C)Droplet
D) Zoonotic agent
Q3) Calculate the morbidity,mortality,and incidence rates,given the following information: in a study conducted between January 1 and January 31,80 new cases of influenza were reported in a community of 10,000 individuals,bringing the total number of active influenza cases to 100.In this same period,2 individuals died from complications of the disease.
Q4) How does morbidity rate differ from incidence rate?
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following defines an acute disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q2) Carriers of Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi,the agents of typhoid fever,can have persistent infections in the
A)Gall bladder
B)Respiratory tract
C)Nasopharynx
D)Digestive tract
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of toxic shock?
A)Granulomas form in the lungs
B)Neutrophils are inhibited
C)Phagolysosomes cannot form properly
D)The blood pressure decreases
Q4) Explain why normally harmless bacteria that comprise our microbial flora have the potential to be pathogenic.Provide examples.
Q5) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates virus particles?
Q2) Which is not a characteristic of prions?
A)Resistant to degradation by proteinases
B)Found mainly on outer membranes of nerve cells.
C)Resistant to autoclave treatment.
D)Unable to pass through the intestinal wall
E) Resistant to autoclave treatment and unable to pass through the intestinal wall
Q3) The potential for a Lyme disease outbreak is closely associated with
A)The number of deer mice residing in a particular region
B)The number of mosquitos breeding in the woods
C)The proximity of piggeries to human populations
D)Crowded housing conditions
E)The number of deer residing in a particular region
Q4) What are the three molecular processes that contribute to viral diversity? Describe each process and explain why these mechanisms are of concern.
Q5) Explain the term "incubator" as it applies to an influenza pandemic involving pigs.
Q6) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates production of edema?
Q7) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates apoptosis?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Protein synthesis requires particles called _____,which perform the process of_____.
A)Ribosomes; translation
B)Endospore; germination
C)Inclusion bodies; group translocation
D)Capsule; conjugation
E)Plasmids; DNA replication
Q2) Which of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane?
A)Secretion
B)Protection from osmotic pressure
C)Energy production
D)DNA replication
E)Transport
Q3) Some bacteria incorporate chemical entities into their cell walls that contribute to virulence.Provide three examples and explain why these molecules increase the virulence of these bacteria.
Q4) Explain why endospores are attractive agents for bioterrorism.Provide an example.
Q5) Describe the strategy used by Neisseria species for immune escape involving pili.
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Which growth characteristic best matches Escherchia coli?
A)Extreme thermophile
B)Spirochete
C)Obligate anaerobe
D)Short doubling time
E)Grows inside mucous layer
Q2) Before the widespread use of refrigerators,people often preserved their food for long-term storage by adding large amounts of salt.In the context of osmotic pressure,why is this process effective against food spoilage? Are all microorganisms inhibited by high salt?
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens of humans are chemoautotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A growth medium for which the exact chemical makeup is known and can be precisely reproduced is a _____ medium.
A)Complex
B)Selective
C)Differential
D)Chemically defined
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is not an example of how DNA damage is repaired?
A)Base excision
B)Photoreactivation
C)Alkylation
D)UV radiation
E)Alkylation and UV radiation
Q2) Which of the following binds to the lactose repressor protein and changes its shape so that it can no longer bind to the operator site of the lac operon?
A)Glucose
B)cAMP
C)CAP
D)Allolactose
Q3) A six carbon sugar is a component of
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Both DNA and RNA
D)Neither DNA or RNA
Q4) In basic terms,explain the difference between an inducible operon and a repressible operon.Provide one example of each.
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) How does a simple icosahedral virus differ from a complex icosahedral virus?
Q2) Endosomes that assist in the uncoating of non-enveloped viruses function via A)Hydrolytic enzymes
B)An acidic environment
C)Host proteases
D)Virally encoded lipases
E)Fusion pores
Q3) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the matrix protein?
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is not a requirement of an effective vaccine?
A)The components of the vaccine should induce protective immune responses
B)The host should mount a memory response that has the capacity to respond if the pathogen is encountered at a later time
C)The vaccine should induce only mild disease
D)The vaccine should be biologically stable
E)The cost to produce and administer the vaccine should be minimized to promote effective use in target populations
Q2) Rhinovirus and influenza viruses often cause reinfection in people that have already been a host to the disease.How is this possible?
A)Antigenic variation
B)Antigenic drift
C)Antigenic shift
D)All of the above
Q3) What is virulence and what factors have an effect on the virulence of viral infections? Explain why host susceptibility is such an important consideration in viral virulence.
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) What can reach a length exceeding 10 meters while inhabiting the human jejunum?
A)Taenia saginata
B)Clonorchis sinensis
C)Schistosoma species
D)Paragonimus species
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Chitin is composed of polymers of N-acetylmuramic acid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Medically important fungi can be distinguished by transfer RNA analysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unicellular fungi are referred to as
A)Conidia
B)Molds
C)Dimorphic
D)Yeasts
E)Opportunistic
Q5) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Sample Questions
Q1) Body temperature is regulated by the A)Liver
B)Hypothalamus
C)Bone marrow
D)Thyroid
E)Thymus
Q2) During parasitic infections and allergy,the number of circulating _____ increases significantly.
A)Neutrophils
B)Monocytes
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Eosinophils
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Interleukin-6 is a cytokine that induces acute-phase protein production in the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how natural killer (NK)cells discriminate healthy cells from target cells.How do NK cells mediate target-cell killing?
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Circulating T lymphocytes that have never before encountered antigen to which they are specific are referred to as
A)Naive T cells
B)Plasma cells
C)Memory cells
D)Effector cells
E)Antigen-presenting cells
Q2) Rearrange the following cell choices to describe the sequence in which they form.Which cell is fourth?
A)Plasma cell
B)Pluripotent stem cell
C)B cell
D)Common lymphoid progenitor
Q3) The isotype of an antibody is determined by the
A)Constant and variable regions of the heavy chain
B)Variable region of the light chain
C)Variable region of the heavy chain
D)Constant region of the light chain
E)Constant region of the heavy chain
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Some people are resistant to HIV infection because of mutations in _____ on the surface of host cells.
A)CD4
B)Co-stimulatory molecules
C)Co-receptors
D)Class II MHC molecules
E)CD8
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of HIV?
A)Enveloped
B)Retrovirus
C)Single-stranded DNA
D)Sexually transmitted
E)Encodes reverse transcriptase
Q3) Some hosts are subject to numerous infections by pyogenic (pus-forming)bacteria.This is indicative of a defect in
A)The complement pathway
B)The production of interferon
C)Antigen presentation
D)Chemotactic factors
Q4) Describe the three phases of HIV infection.
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Which of the following is used to destroy endospores in a liquid medium that will subsequently be used to culture bacteria?
A)Boiling
B)Pressurized steam
C)Filtration
D)Dry heat
E)Pasteurization
Q2) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The flash method of pasteurization is preferable because it is more effective against Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Clavulanic acid is an
A)Penicillin-binding protein modifier
B) -lactamase inhibitor
C)Efflux pump inhibitor
D)Immune response stimulator
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Acyclovir (nucleoside analog): herpes simplex virus
B)Zanamivir (neuraminidase inhibitor): cytomegalovirus
C)Azidothymidine (AZT; nucleoside analog): HIV
D)Ribavirin (nucleoside analog): respiratory syncytial virus
E)Amantadine (viral un-coating inhibitor): influenza A
Q3) Penicillin resistance in bacteria is conferred by the production of
A)Lysozyme
B)Transglycosylase
C) -lactamase
D)N-acetylglucosamine
E)Penicillin-binding proteins
Q4) Why is it advantageous for bacteria such as Streptomyces species to synthesize antibiotics? Explain three ways in which antibiotic-producing microorganisms protect themselves from the effects of these compounds.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Describe six approaches being used to identify novel microbial structures or functions that may be potential new antibiotic targets.
Q2) Which of the following is not used for susceptibility testing of antibiotics?
A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)Phenol coefficient
C)E test
D)Disk diffusion method
Q3) The minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)is determined using the A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)E test
C)Disk diffusion method
D)Broth dilution test
Q4) Which of the following is a superinfection pathogen of the gastrointestinal tract associated with the overuse of broad-spectrum antibiotics?
A)Escherichia coli
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C)Clostridium difficile
D)Bacillus subtilis
E)Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which is a single-stranded RNA virus?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q2) A mild form of pneumonia called "walking pneumonia" is associated with bacterial infections caused by
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Strep throat: pyrogenic toxin
B)Scarlet fever: pseudomembrane in throat
C)Mycoplasma: walking pneumonia
D)Corynebacterium: "snapping" during cell division
E)Diphtheria: protein synthesis-inhibiting toxin
Q4) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Identify and describe the three categories used to classify gastrointestinal infections,and provide several examples of microbes responsible for each category.
Q2) Which family of viruses does Hepatitis G belong to?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q3) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
Q4) Ruffling of M cells is associated with which of the following infections?
A)Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
B)Bacillary dysentery
C)Cholera
D)Salmonella gastroenteritis
E)Cryptosporidiosis
Q5) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Saliva will protect against the establishment of many bacteria because it contains IgG.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Reactivation of latent herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2)infections is not triggered by which of the following.
A)Trauma
B)Ultraviolet radiation
C)Acyclovir
D)Fever
Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding infections of the urinary tract?
A)Urinary tract infections often present with inflammatory cells in the urine
B)Indwelling catheterizations are associated with urinary tract infections in clinical settings
C)Infections are seen in men more commonly than in women, leading to prostatitis
D)The most commonly associated pathogens include bacteria and yeast
E)Infections confined to the urethra are classified as urethritis
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement:
C. trachomatis does not express lipopolysaccharide.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is congenital syphilis and what are the physiological consequences? Can this condition be avoided?
Q5) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Compare abortive to paralytic polio.For which is the following statement true: Cases have been reported in the US after 1980.
A)Abortive
B)Paralytic
C)Both abortive and paralytic
D)Neither abortive or paralytic
Q2) Compare abortive to paralytic polio in relation to the following statement: Recovery can take six months.
A)Abortive
B)Paralytic
C)Both abortive and paralytic
D)Neither abortive or paralytic
Q3) Rabies replicates in the A)Gray matter
B)Cerebrospinal fluid
C)Dura mater
D)Arachnoid mater
E)Pia mater
Q4) Describe the three forms of botulism.
Q5) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) The movement of bacteria from _____ is the most common route linked to extravascular infections.
A)Bloodstream lymphatics tissues
B)Tissues lymphatics bloodstream
C)Lymphatics tissue bloodstream
D)Tissues bloodstream lymphatics
Q2) Primary infection of endemic typhus is from
A)Human to rodent
B)Human to human
C)Rodent to human
D)Rodent to rodent
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The cycle is different for the louse-borne form of relapsing fever because lice have only human hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the causative agent and the three types of tularemia.Compare and contrast the pathology associated with each type of tularemia.
Q5) Explain the difference between bubonic plague and pneumonic plague.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Which of the following is the best match for human papillomavirus?
A)Latency in nerve ganglia
B)MMR vaccine
C)Variola major
D)Dermal warts
E)Scarring of conjunctiva
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of dermatophytosis?
A)Known as tinea
B)Highly virulent
C)Treated with azoles such as clotrimazole
D)Itching and scaling of skin
E)Dogs and cats act as reservoirs
Q3) Blackheads associated with acne are referred to as
A)Comedos
B)Cysts
C)Comedones
D)Papules
E)Furuncles
Q4) Describe five mechanisms by which the skin provides an important first line of defense to the host.
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