Applied Microbiology
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microorganisms in various industries, including healthcare, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. Students will study the roles of bacteria, viruses, and fungi in processes such as fermentation, bioremediation, and the development of pharmaceuticals and vaccines. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques for the isolation, identification, and manipulation of microbes, as well as the implications of microbial technology for public health and sustainability. The course also addresses current challenges and advancements in microbial biotechnology and regulatory considerations in microbiological research and industry.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) Viruses were initially identified as small infectious agents that could pass through filters. How was it believed that these molecules could survive?
A) they had small compact structures that allowed for the production of metabolites and replication
B) they survived on the metabolites and poisons that pass through the filter
C) they borrowed the use of existing metabolic and replicative mechanisms of the host cells they infected
D) they are capable of capturing energy from the sun
Answer: C
Q2) A substance derived from one microorganism that kills or restricts the growth of other microorganisms is best described as a A) poison
B) antibody
C) vaccine
D) antibiotic
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) When proteins are made up of several polypeptide chains,the arrangement of these chains is referred to as:
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
Answer: D
Q2) Two or more atoms combine to form
A) a cation.
B) a molecule.
C) a protein.
D) an ion.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following pH's would indicate the weakest acid
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) Which type of staining results in a clear object being viewed against a dark background
A) simple stain
B) negative stain
C) endospore stain
D) flagellar stain
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following can be used to examine live specimens?
A) transmission electron microscope
B) scanning electron microscope
C) scanning tunneling electron microscope
D) atomic force microscope
Answer: C
Q3) Why do basic dyes attach to most bacterial surfaces?
A) most bactieral surfaces are negatively charged
B) because cells take up safranin
C) most bacterial surfaces resist taking up the stain
D) most bacterial surfaces do not have a charge
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) Which of the following is not a common bacterial shape?
A) spirochete
B) coccus
C) disc
D) bacillus
Q2) Genetic information in bacteria
A) is found in the nucleus
B) is found only in RNA
C) is found in chromatin (ie DNA condensed by histones)
D) is sometimes found in the form of plasmids
Q3) The most important component of bacterial cell walls is
A) teicoic acid
B) lipotechoic acid
C) peptidoglycan
D) glutamic acid
Q4) Extrachromosomal DNA in prokaryotic cells can be found in the form of
A) chromosomes
B) plasmids
C) mitochondria
D) chloroplasts
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements about enzyme inhibition is true?
A) most noncompetitive inhibitors bind to several different sites on an enzyme
B) enzymes become less efficient as temperatures drop because they begin to denature
C) noncompetitive inhibitors bind to a site other than the active site
D) most human enzymes have an optimum temperature below normal body temperature
Q2) Sulfa drugs bind to the active site of the enzyme which normally converts PABA to folic acid,preventing the production of folic acid and,eventually,purine synthesis. In this case,the sulfa drug is acting as a/n
A) allosteric inhibitor
B) competitive inhibitor
C) noncompetitive inhibitor
D) uncompetitive inhibitor
Q3) Factors that affect the rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions include
A) temperature
B) pH
C) concentration of enzyme
D) all of the above
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be
A) barophiles
B) fastidious
C) aerobes
D) none of the above
Q2) Acidophiles would be expected to grow best at a pH of
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
Q3) Starch would be broken down to maltose by which of the following exoenzymes?
A) gelatinase
B) amylase
C) caseinase
D) lipase
Q4) When a bacterial cell divides into two new cells,the new cells are called
A) daughter cells
B) sister cells
C) son cells
D) father cells
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Mutations
A) when occurring on a particular Okazaki fragment can lead to different loci
B) often change a person's blood from type A to type AB
C) are responsible for heritable variations seen in progeny
D) occur only when the DNA is transmitted to a daughter cell
Q2) Amino acids move from the cytoplasm to the ribosome with the help of
A) mRNA's
B) tRNA's
C) siRNA's
D) rRNA's
Q3) Which of the following properties are exclusive to tRNA?
A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C) molecules contain an anticodon
D) contains the nucleotide thymine
Q4) In the lac operon,RNA polymerase first binds to the A) promoter
B) operator
C) repressor
D) regulator
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) When genes are passed on from parent to offspring,which of the following events has taken place?
A) horizontal gene transfer
B) transduction
C) vertical gene transfer
D) retrograde gene transfer
Q2) Toxin from which of the following bacteria is used as an insecticide
A) E. coli
B) B. thuringiensis
C) P. fluorescens
D) P. mirablis
Q3) Electroporation is a technique that is used to
A) kill bacteria
B) make bacteria competent
C) increase conjugation among bacteria
D) decrease the pathogenicity of bacteria
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) The five kingdom system of classification was set up by A) Charles Darwin
B) Robert Hooke
C) Louis Pasteur
D) Robert Whittaker
Q2) All of the following are considered eukaryotes except A) Archea
B) Fungi
C) Protozoa
D) Humans
Q3) Organisms are generally classified according to A) cell size
B) evolutionary relationships
C) colony color
D) alphabetically
Q4) A bacterial strain contains
A) several species
B) several families
C) a subgroup of a species with some of the same characteristics
D) a subgroup of a genus which has permanent genetic differences
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Plaques are
A) bacterial colonies
B) another name for single viruses
C) areas where bacterial cells have been lysed
D) bacterial film
Q2) Some viruses have a lipid bilayer,also known as the viral envelope. The viral envelope most likely comes from the following source:
A) host cell plasma membrane
B) host membrane bound organelles
C) host nucleus
D) another virus
Q3) Some liver cancer patients are found to have had chronic liver infection. The most likely cause of this infection is by
A) adenoviruses
B) herpesviruses
C) hepadnaviruses
D) parvoviruses
Q4) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Bread molds are members of the phylum
A) Zygomycota
B) Ascomycota
C) Basidiomycota
D) Deuteromycota
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of a plantlike protist?
A) euglenoids
B) diatoms
C) sarcodines
D) dinoflagellates
Q3) Which of the following statements about protists is true?
A) the protozoa responsible for malaria is classified as a ciliate
B) eutrophication occurs when protists stop growing in a body of water
C) amoeba move by means of cilia
D) all protists are eukaryotic
Q4) A mechanical vector
A) lives on or in another organism at the expense of the host
B) is simply along for the ride
C) reproduces as an asexual form in this host
D) infects by mechanical insertion of a syringe
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Chemical agents that denature proteins include all of the following except A) acids
B) alkalis
C) detergents
D) halogens
Q2) Which is a good method to sterilize bandages and glassware?
A) autoclaving
B) lyophilization
C) microwave radiation
D) two of the above
Q3) Which of the following are not examples of alkylating agents that disrupt proteins and nucleic acids?
A) glutaraldahyde
B) b-propiolactone
C) ethylene oxide
D) methylene oxide
Q4) Compare the meanings of the following paired terms: a)disinfectant and antiseptic; b)bactericidal agent and bacteriostatic agent; and c)sterilization and disinfection. When is it worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item?
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Rifamicin
A) inhibits RNA synthesis
B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis
C) disrupts cell membrane function
D) acts as an antimetabolite
Q2) Clear area on agar that surrounds a filter paper disk on the disk diffusion tests and represents inhibited growth of a test microorganism is called:
A) minimum inhibitory concentration
B) minimum bactericidal concentration
C) zone of inhibition
D) serum killing power
Q3) Examples of antiviral agents include all of the following agents except A) acyclovir
B) ribavirin
C) quinine
D) zidovudine (AZT)
Q4) Describe the targets or action for 3 of the following: antifungal agents,antiviral agents,antiprotozoan agents and antihelminthic agents.
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) A disease in which the agent is acquired directly from the environment and is not transmittable is a
A) local disease
B) secondary disease
C) noncommunicable disease
D) acute disease
Q2) Diseases in which permanent damage occurs produce:
A) toxemia
B) septicemia
C) sequelae
D) syndromes
Q3) Toxoid
A) is an altered toxin that retains its antigenicity
B) is an endotoxin
C) is insoluble in host tissues
D) destroys or damages neutrophils
Q4) What are the difficulties in demonstrating Koch's postulates for human infections? Why was it difficult to demonstrate that Leprosy or HIV satisfied Koch's Postulate?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Reservoirs of infections include
A) humans
B) non-human vertebrate animals
C) water and soil
D) all of the above
Q2) A disease that breaks out in explosive proportions within a population is called
A) systemic
B) endemic
C) epidemic
D) pandemic
Q3) Why might it be worse to get an infection from someone in the hospital than from someone on a bus? Can you think of a reason why sometimes it might be better to be exposed to a microbe from a hospitalized patient than from someone on the bus?
Q4) The study of factors and mechanisms of disease frequency and spread within a population is called:
A) endemic
B) epidemic
C) epidemiology
D) etiology
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) An accumulation of pus in a cavity formed by damaged tissue
A) occurs during chronic inflammatory process
B) represents unencapsulated areas of lymphocytes
C) accounts for redness and increased tissue temperature
D) is known as an abscess
Q2) The classical pathway of complement activation involves which of the following proteins?
A) C1, C4 and C2
B) C3 only
C) factor B
D) factor D and factor D
Q3) You receive a cut on your foot. What are the four characteristic signs of inflammation you would expect to see? How would an inflammatory response develop against bacteria that enter the cut?
Q4) Residual body
A) is the remains of parasitic worms killed extracellularly
B) consists of a thin layer of cells that secrete mucus
C) prevents adherence of a phagocyte and a bacterium
D) is material that remains in a phagolysosome after digestion of a microbe
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) What are 4 attributes of adaptive immunity? Describe how both humoral and cell-mediated responses achieve these properties.
Q2) Which of the following is false about haptens?
A) a hapten alone can not act as an antigen
B) a large protein (to which a hapten can bind) alone cannot act as an antigen
C) only the combination of a hapten and a large protein can act as an antigen
D) haptens bind to antibodies preventing them from binding to a large protein
Q3) All of the following statements about immunization are true except
A) live vaccines are potentially hazardous to pregnant females
B) passive immunization can provide immediate immunity to an exposed person
C) vaccines need to be practical in terms of stability and use
D) recombinant DNA vaccines inject the entire genomes of nonvirulent pathogens
Q4) The ability of the humoral response to produce a vast array of antibodies,each with uniqueness to a given antigen is responsible for the immune system's
A) memory
B) hyperimmune serum
C) heterogeneity
D) homogeneity
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Propensity to allergies seems
A) only to run in the family for contact allergens (type IV hypersensitivity)
B) to be determined by prior sensitization to insect venom
C) to be linked to cold air injuring cell membranes of mast cells
D) at least in part have a genetic basis
Q2) Local wheal and flare,airway restriction,and anaphylactic shock are all associated with
A) Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
B) Immune complex hypersensitivity
C) Immediate hypersensitivity
D) Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
Q3) Which of the following definitions of tissue transplants is incorrect?
A) autograft -- tissue is moved from one part of the body to another
B) allograft -- tissue is grafted between two individuals who are not genetically identical
C) xenograft -- tissue is grafted from one animal species to another
D) isograft -- tissue is grafted from parent to child
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Which viral disease is seasonal with incidence highest in March and April?
A) moluscum contagiosum
B) smallpox
C) chickenpox
D) human papillomavirus
Q2) Which is the correct matching of disease with its characteristics?
A) madura foot - itching due to schistosomes burrowing into skin
B) dracunculiasis - sudden fever followed by rose-colored rash
C) dermatomycoses - difficult to treat dry scaly lesions
D) swimmer's itch - due to guinea worm, a parasitic helminth
Q3) Epidemic karatoconjunctivitis is characterized by
A) bacterial infection
B) inflammation that spreads to cornea
C) transmitted in dust
D) two of the above
Q4) Cat scratch fever is caused by
A) Spirillum minor
B) Pasteurella multocida
C) Bartonella hensalae
D) two of the above
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) All of the following defense mechanisms are present in the urogenital system except
A) normal flora competing with opportunists
B) sphincter muscles
C) flushing action of fluids
D) high pH
Q2) Diagnosis of syphilis is confirmed by
A) immobilization tests
B) using moledular probes
C) culturing the organism
D) PCR
Q3) Which of the following is the correct match of the disease and organism?
A) Trichomonas vaginalis - bacterial vaginitis
B) Gardnerella vaginitis - toxic shock syndrome
C) Trichomonas vaginalis - itching and white discharge
D) Escherichia coli -- glomerulonephritis
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Whooping cough treatment includes
A) administration of antitoxin
B) erythromycin
C) supportive treatment for symptoms
D) all of the above
Q2) Treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes
A) azithromycin
B) fluroquinolone
C) penicillin
D) two of the above
Q3) Sinusitis can be caused by
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) all of the above
Q4) Tubercules
A) are white patches seen on chest x-rays of TB patients
B) undergo destruction giving a cheesy, caseous appearance
C) contain live Mycobacterium
D) all of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Helicobacter pylori survives in the stomach due to A) a thick capsular layer
B) endospore formation
C) a teichoic acid receptor
D) the production of urease
Q2) Which term refers to severe diarrhea that often contains large quantities of mucus and sometimes blood?
A) enteritis
B) hepatitis
C) dysentery
D) enterotoxicosis
Q3) Which Escherichia coli strains can cause serious and fatal infections and is found in small numbers in healthy cattle's intestines?
A) enteropathogenic
B) pathogenic
C) enterotoxigenic
D) enterohemorrhagic 0157:H7
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) All of the following occur in shistosomiasis except
A) allergic reactions to eggs and cirrhosis of liver from eggs
B) flukes lodge in heart and brain causing disease
C) cercariae penetrate skin when humans wade in snail-infested waters
D) dermatitis from cercarcia
Q2) Which fever causes severe bone and joint pain along with other symptoms (headache,nausea,weakness,rash),its main vector is Aedes aegypti and vaccines are only available for two strains?
A) Yellow fever
B) Colorado Tick fever
C) Dengue fever
D) Ehrlichiosis
Q3) What role do antibiotics play in septic shock?
A) reduce the fever and lymphangitis symptoms
B) kills gram positive bacteria but are ineffective without gram negative bacteria
C) worsen the situation by releasing large quantities of endotoxin
D) none of the above
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Who is affected by the transmissible spongiform encephalopathy called chronic wasting disease?
A) sheep and cattle
B) elk and deer
C) women in Papua New Guinea
D) Alzheimer's patients
Q2) Tetanus is treated by
A) antibiotic therapy
B) antiviral therapy
C) antitoxin therapy
D) two of the above
Q3) The central nervous system includes all of the following except
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) nerves that reach the tissues in limbs
D) microglial cells
Q4) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area where it is difficult to get to and vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Eutrophication leads to
A) a decrease in oxygen
B) plants become very dense
C) abundant nutrient enrichment
D) all of the above
Q2) Which term is matched with its definition?
A) biotic factors - interaction of organisms with other organisms
B) ecology - all organisms in a given area with abiotic and biotic factors
C) ecosystem - organisms that are always found in a given environment
D) niche - recycling of life-essential elements and water
Q3) Phytoplankton include
A) cyanobacterteria
B) diatoms
C) dinoflagellates
D) all of the above
Q4) Which bacteria is found in the desert and is an oil eating bacteria?
A) Halobacterium
B) Desulfurovibrio
C) Thiobacillus
D) Arthrobacter
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Which statement about contamination of eggs is incorrect?
A) Cracked eggs cannot be sold.
B) Lysozymes in the whites protect the yolk.
C) Trace metals in the whites are tightly bonded with proteins.
D) Eggs should be stored small side up
Q2) Which cut of meat would you expect to have the largest number of contaminating microbes per gram?
A) a beef steak wrapped at the grocery
B) a side of beef aging in the slaughter house
C) a package of ground beef
D) a pork chop wrapped at the grocery
Q3) Out of the list below,which worm infection can be transmitted via fruits and vegetables?
A) Pseudomonas fluorescens
B) Entamoeba histolytica
C) Salmonella
D) Ascaris
Q4) Why is salmonella so often responsible for foodborne illnesses? Through what routes can it enter eggs? What are the safeguards one can take to protect against Salmonella-contaminated poultry,eggs and meats?
Page 28
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