Applied Microbiology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the utilization of microorganisms in various industries and daily life, emphasizing their roles in biotechnology, environmental management, food production, and healthcare. The course covers fundamental concepts such as microbial physiology, genetics, and metabolism, and delves into applications including fermentation technology, waste treatment, bioremediation, production of antibiotics and enzymes, and the development of biofuels. Students will also examine current advancements and ethical considerations in the field, gaining practical insights into how microbiological techniques address real-world challenges and contribute to innovation across sectors.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Principles and Explorations 7th Edition by Jacquelyn
G. Black
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Chapter 1: Scope and History of Microbiology
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Q1) While a doctor may diagnose and treat a patient who presents with a disease,an epidemiologist
A) helps in the development and use of vaccines
B) investigates what organism is responsible for a particular patient's disease
C) figures out how to use microorganisms to clean up the environment
D) studies the frequency and distribution of the disease in the community
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements about microbes is true?
A) prions are proteins without any nucleic acid
B) viroids are single-celled microscopic organisms
C) protozoa are nucleic acid without a protein coat
D) algae depend on the metabolic processes of host cells
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following diseases has been eradicated?
A) chicken pox
B) measles
C) smallpox
D) mumps
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Fundamentals of Chemistry
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Q1) When pairs of electrons are shared between two atoms,the result is a _______ bond.
A) ionic
B) covalent
C) hydrogen
D) carbonic
Answer: B
Q2) Carbohydrates
A) are relatively insoluble in water
B) have a four ring structure
C) are used primarily for energy and cellular structures
D) have primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure
Answer: C
Q3) In salt,a sodium atom loses an electron to a chlorine atom. What is true about the chloride ion found in salt?
A) it has one less electron than proton
B) it is less chemically stable than a chlorine atom
C) it is an anion
D) it is in a covalent bond
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Microscopy and Staining
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Q1) What is the Wright stain? What does it distinguish?
Answer: Gram staining is based on the ability of bacteria cell wall to take up a crystal violet dye. Bacteria cell walls are stained by the crystal violet. Iodine is subsequently added as a mordant to form the crystal violet-iodine complex so that the dye cannot be removed easily. A decolorizer is then added to dissolve the lipid layer from the gram-negative cells. Gram stain distinguishes between gram-positive cells (purple),gram-negative cells (red)and cells which are nonreactive or gram-variable.
Q2) A simple stain
A) uses only a single dye
B) requires only one step to stain a slide
C) distinguishes between two different parts of an organism
D) is composed of an equal balance of acid and basic dyes
Answer: A
Q3) Light of ________ wavelength typically will result in ________ resolution.
A) longer, better
B) shorter, better
C) any, poor
D) shorter, worse
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Characteristics of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells
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Q1) The charged,phosphate end of a membrane phospholipid is A) water-fearing
B) hydrophilic
C) hydrophobic
D) none of the above
Q2) The rough endoplasmic reticulum appears rough because of
A) sterols in its membrane
B) fats and sugars on its surface
C) multiple ribosomes on its surface
D) proteins in the lumen of the ER
Q3) Which of the following cellular structures are found only in prokaryotic cells?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) pili
C) nucleolus
D) lysosomes
Q4) The cytoskeleton consists of
A) microfilaments and sterols
B) microtubules and proteins
C) microfilaments and microtubules
D) sterols and proteins
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Chapter 5: Essential Concepts of Metabolism
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Q1) What are chemoheterotrophs and how do they obtain energy? Name and describe two other ways microorganisms obtain energy. Why do you think so many different ways of obtaining energy evolved?
Q2) The initial breakdown of glucose in a eukaryotic cell takes place in
A) cytoplasm
B) golgi
C) nucleus
D) cell membranes
Q3) Which of the following is not a carrier molecule that carries hydrogen atoms or electrons in oxidative reactions?
A) Iron
B) FAD
C) Niacin
D) NAD
Q4) Electron transport chain
A) involves transfer of O to electrons in the substrate
B) results in a net consumption of ATP
C) can be thought of as electrons acting as fish increasing in energy as they jump up a waterfall
D) none of the above
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Growth and Culturing of Bacteria
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Q1) Organisms with special nutritional needs are said to be
A) barophiles
B) fastidious
C) aerobes
D) none of the above
Q2) Exoenzymes
A) produced by gram positive rods act in the medium around the organism
B) are released by the golgi apparatus into the cytoplasm where they act
C) produced by gram negative rods act in the periplamic space
D) two of the above
Q3) Which of the following does not contribute to an endospore's resistance to unfavorable conditions?
A) dipicolinic acid and calcium ions in the core
B) cortex
C) spore coat
D) germination proper
Q4) Draw and label a standard growth curve. Describe each of the 4 phases. Why do you think bacteria don't continue to double indefinitely? You sample a culture that has reached the fourth phase after 2 days,can you think of one reason why the culture would begin to increase on day 4?
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) Which of the following properties are exclusive to mRNA?
A) combines with specific proteins to form ribosomes
B) carries information from DNA for synthesis of a protein
C) molecules contain an anticodon
D) contains the nucleotide thymine
Q2) Which nitrogenous base is not normally found in DNA?
A) guanine
B) thymine
C) uracil
D) adenine
Q3) The information carried by DNA is used to create a ________ which then moves to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
A) tRNA
B) rRNA
C) siRNA
D) mRNA
Q4) RNA plays several important roles in the processes that translate genetic information from DNA into protein products. Illustrate the events of transcription in a bacterial cell and indicate where RNA plays a role. Also indicate what role RNA plays in translation in bacterial cells.
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Chapter 8: Gene Transfer and Genetic Engineering
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Q1) Transposons are of particular significance because they A) come in pairs and often are associated with viruses
B) regulate gene transcription in bacteria
C) can be inserted using a gene gun
D) can be inserted either between genes or in genes in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Q2) DNA can be cut at specific sites by using A) ligases
B) restriction enzymes
C) antibiotics
D) plasmids
Q3) In specialized transduction the bacterial genes transduced tend to be A) those genes in greatest use by the bacteria
B) those genes that are currently not being transcribed
C) those genes that are located close to the site of the prophage
D) those genes that are small enough to fit in the viral head
Q4) Describe the experiments of Griffith that led to the discovery of transformation. How could one design an experiment to demonstrate that transformation was due to the transfer of DNA?
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Chapter 9: An Introduction to Taxonomy: the Bacteria
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Q1) All members of the Kingdom Monera are
A) cyanobacteria
B) prokaryotes
C) fungi
D) protists
Q2) A useful technique for comparing different bacterial species based on if they are susceptible to infection by the same virus is called
A) protein profile
B) virus profile
C) phage typing
D) serology
Q3) A bacterial strain contains
A) several species
B) several families
C) a subgroup of a species with some of the same characteristics
D) a subgroup of a genus which has permanent genetic differences
Q4) To classify new microbes,modern genetic techniques are employed. Why would the evolutionary relatedness of genes (genetic homology)be more useful than morphology? How are ribosomal RNAs used to study evolutionary relationships among organisms?
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Chapter 10: Viruses
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Q1) Which of the following structures do viruses use to attach themselves to the host cell and help viruses enter the host cells?
A) viral spikes
B) viral tails
C) viral particles
D) viral nucleic acid
Q2) Why did scientists initially resist the idea of an infectious,self-replicating protein?
Q3) Which of the following is used by negative strand RNA viruses such as measles and influenza during their replication cycle?
A) synthesize DNA via reverse transcriptase
B) synthesize a double stranded RNA intermediate
C) synthesize an RNA:DNA hybrid whose RNA is a (+) strand
D) synthesize an RNA:DNA hybrid whose DNA is a (-) strand
Q4) Prophages are responsible for production of the toxins found in
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Micrococcus luteus
C) Clostridium botulinum
D) Streptococcus lactis
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Chapter 11: Eukaryotic Microorganisms and Parasites
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Q1) Outline or illustrate in detail form the life cycle of the malaria parasite,naming the stages and the various host organisms involved. Describe another protozoa that causes human diseases.
Q2) A typical fungus consists of a mass called a ________ made up of many threadlike structures called ________ .
A) thallus, mycelium
B) mycelium, hyphae
C) hyphae, mycelium
D) mycelium, thallus
Q3) A host in which a parasite reproduces sexually is a
A) primary host
B) definitive host
C) intermediate host
D) reservoir host
Q4) Parasites are dependent on their hosts for survival. Which organism do you think is better adapted to a parasitic lifestyle,one that is virulent and often kills its host,or one that only causes mild chronic illness in its host? For vector-transmitted parasites there are two hosts involved in the lifecycle,how does that complicate adaptation to the human host?
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Chapter 12: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Q1) Which of the following are not examples of alkylating agents that disrupt proteins and nucleic acids?
A) glutaraldahyde
B) b-propiolactone
C) ethylene oxide
D) methylene oxide
Q2) Compare the meanings of the following paired terms: a)disinfectant and antiseptic; b)bactericidal agent and bacteriostatic agent; and c)sterilization and disinfection. When is it worthwhile to pay extra for a sanitized item?
Q3) Chemical agents that denature proteins include all of the following except
A) acids
B) alkalis
C) detergents
D) halogens
Q4) Microwave radiation
A) damages DNA by ionizing radiation.
B) destroys bacterial endospores.
C) produces peroxides, which oxidize molecules.
D) when tuned to energy levels of water releases the energy as heat.
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Chapter 13: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) Purine or pyrimidine analogs:
A) act as antimetabolites
B) inhibit ribosome function
C) disrupt cell membrane function
D) inhibit cell wall function
Q2) A microorganism that can use ready-made folic acid from its environment and no longer needs to synthesize it from the PABA precursor demonstrates an example of what type of antimicrobial resistance mechanism?
A) alteration of an enzyme
B) alteration of targets
C) development of enzymes
D) alteration of a metabolic pathway
Q3) Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase?
A) ethambutol
B) ciprofloxacin
C) tobramycin
D) neomycin
Q4) Describe three mechanisms for antibiotic resistance. If exposure to antibiotics does not induce drug-resistant mutations to occur,why do we see so many more drug-resistant strains today?
15
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Chapter 14: Host-Microbe Relationships and Disease
Processes
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Q1) Hyaluronidase
A) dissolves blood clots
B) allows the pathogens to spread to other tissues
C) or spreading factor is important for streptococci colonization
D) or adhesion is important for staphylococci to adhere to tissue
Q2) Symbiosis is an association between
A) two or more species
B) one or two species
C) two or more hosts
D) no species but all hosts
Q3) All of the following are true of most diseases caused by a fungus except
A) fungal spores enter the body through a cut or a wound
B) fungi could release enzymes that attack host cells
C) fungi can digest and invade neighboring host cells
D) fungi can use its flagellum to expel tissue fluids
Q4) Alpha-hemolysins
A) are neurotoxins
B) are exotoxins
C) are enzymes that synthesize hemoglobin
D) two of the above
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Chapter 15: Epidemiology and Nosocomial Infections
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Q1) Congenital infectious diseases
A) cause infection when present on poorly cooked meat
B) cross the placenta from infected mother to fetus
C) enter the body via contaminated water
D) effect only the mother and not the fetus
Q2) Patients in a hospital setting are typically more susceptible to infections than individuals in the general population and are considered to be
A) compromised
B) vertical
C) horizontal
D) nosocomial
Q3) Fomites are
A) involved in direct vertical contact transmission
B) a cloud of tiny water droplets suspended in air
C) nonliving objects
D) mainly transmit dried mucus
Q4) What makes a microbe a potential bioterroism weapon? Do you believe that bioterroism that targets humans or agriculture is more worrisome? Explain your answer.
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Chapter 16: Innate Host Defenses
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Q1) The lymphatic system does all of the following except A) carries plasma to tissue
B) transports digested fats to the cardiovascular system
C) drains excess fluid from space between cells
D) allows for the circulation of cellular defenses
Q2) Bacteria that resist digestion by phagocytes use all of the following mechanisms except
A) produce capsule that can resist lysosomal digestion
B) block chemokines from reaching phagocytes
C) form parasitophorous vacuoles
D) produce streptolysisin and leukocidin
Q3) Which of the following proteins activate complement,enhance inflammation and stimulate macrophages to undergo chemotaxis?
A) antiviral proteins
B) exogenous pyrogens
C) leukocidins
D) acute phase proteins
Q4) You receive a cut on your foot. What are the four characteristic signs of inflammation you would expect to see? How would an inflammatory response develop against bacteria that enter the cut?
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Immunology I: Basic Principles of Adaptive
Immunity and Immunization
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Q1) Which of the following immune cells kills infected cells by releasing the lethal protein perforin?
A) NK cells
B) B cells
C) macrophages
D) TH2 cells
Q2) Which refers to the ability of a host organism to recognize and defend itself against the onslaught of pathogenic microorganisms?
A) immunity
B) passive immunity
C) susceptibility
D) innate immunology
Q3) Agglutination
A) is inactivation of bacterial toxins due to the binding of an antibody
B) leads to the ingestion of the particle by macrophages due to opsonization
C) requires complement
D) occurs when antibody-antigen complexes form large clumped particles
Q4) How do vaccines work? Can you describe 2 hazards of vaccines? In your opinion why aren't there vaccines for every disease?
19
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Chapter 18: Immunolgy Ii: Immunological Disorders and Tests
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Q1) Which matches the correct hypersensitivity reaction with its type?
A) immediate (type I) - immune complexes
B) cytotoxic (type II) -- anaphylaxis
C) immune complex (type III) - precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes
D) cell-mediated (type IX) - blood transfusion
Q2) Type IV hypersensitivity includes
A) contact dermatitis
B) granulomatous hypersensitivity
C) allergy to metals
D) all of the above
Q3) Which of the following agglutination reaction terms is matched incorrectly?
A) seroconversion-antibodies found in serum after exposure to infectious agent
B) hemagglutination inhibition test-used to diagnose measles and influenza
C) Coomb's antiglobulin test-used to detect ABO blood group antibodies
D) complement fixation test-used to diagnose syphilis, pertussis, and gonorrhea
Q4) A tuberculin skin test
A) is read by the diameter and the elevation of the induration
B) is negative if a person has received the BCG vaccine
C) is read by the redness of the induration
D) two of the above
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Chapter 19: Diseases of the Skin and Eyes; Wounds and Bites
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Q1) Measles (also known as rubeola)could be described by each of the following statements except
A) not very contagious
B) Koplik's spots seen on cheek mucosa
C) two serious complications are encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing panencephalitis
D) most common complications are upper respiratory & middle ear infections
Q2) Which pair of fungal skin infections is matched incorrectly?
A) Tinea cruris-jock itch
B) Tinea unguium-ringworm of the nails
C) Tinea capitis-scalp ringworm
D) Tinea corporis-ringworm of the face
Q3) Burn infections
A) are difficult to diagnose as early signs are often decreased appetite and fatigue
B) are difficult to treat as antibiotics are ineffective against the viruses that cause them
C) with a grapelike odor and greenish discoloration are often due to viruses
D) two of the above
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Chapter 20: Urogenital and Sexually Transmitted Diseases
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Q1) Which is the causative agent in 80% of UTIs?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Staphylococcus
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) The U.S. incidence of gonorrhea by states indicates that most cases are found in
A) mid-western states
B) Pacific southwest
C) Atlantic northeast
D) southeast
Q3) Which statement about the detection of cervical cancer is true?
A) Pap smears are far more accurate than an HPV DNA test
B) HPV DNA test can determine if there are abnormal cells present
C) vaccination against HPV will give false positives on the HPV DNA test
D) 60% of women with a positive HPV DNA test will show some abnormality in 5 years
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Chapter 21: Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Which statement about the normal microflora of the respiratory system is incorrect?
A) below the larynx the microflora is resident while above it the microflora is transient
B) healthy lungs are usually sterile
C) the pharynx has the same microflora as the mouth
D) the upper respiratory tract has a normal microflora similar to that of skin
Q2) Tubercules
A) are white patches seen on chest x-rays of TB patients
B) undergo destruction giving a cheesy, caseous appearance
C) contain live Mycobacterium
D) all of the above
Q3) Which bacterial species is responsible for Q fever?
A) Coxiella burnetii
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Corynebacterium pseudoinfluenzae
D) Haemophilus influenzae type B
Q4) How was the great flu pandemic of 1918 different from other influenza epidemics? What is the difference between antigenic drift and antigenic shift? What virus do you believe the next deadly pandemic flu strain will come from?
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Chapter 22: Oral and Gastrointestinal Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following is not an RNA virus?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D
Q2) Which gastrointestinal bacterial diseases causes systemic symptoms without diarrhea?
A) Asiatic cholera
B) Vibriosis
C) Typhoid fever
D) Staphylococcus food poisoning
Q3) All of the following refers to typhoid fever except
A) Widal test is used to confirm the diagnosis
B) chloroamphenicol, cephalosporine and fluoroquinolones are used in the treatment
C) requires a surrogate virus infection in order to cause disease
D) internal hemorrhage and perforation of the bowel are serious complications
Q4) Describe peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis. What infectious agent causes peptic ulcers and chronic gastritis? What is known about its mode of transmission?
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular, lymphatic and Systemic Disease
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Q1) What role do antibiotics play in septic shock?
A) reduce the fever and lymphangitis symptoms
B) kills gram positive bacteria but are ineffective without gram negative bacteria
C) worsen the situation by releasing large quantities of endotoxin
D) none of the above
Q2) Group B Streptococcal disease is characterized by
A) early onset neonatal sepsis and meningitis
B) late onset neonatal meningitis
C) etiology is Streptococcus agalactiae
D) all of the above
Q3) Ehrlichiosis is characterized by all of the following except
A) symptoms include fever, headache, hepatitis, and muscle pain
B) reduction in white blood cells
C) a rash similar to Rocky Mountain Spotted fever
D) ehrlichial intracytoplasmic inclusions in WBCs suggest presence of Ehrlichia
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Chapter 24: Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Hansen's disease is diagnosed by
A) PCR
B) finding antibodies in the serum
C) lepromin skin test
D) two of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a cellular component of the immune system that protects the brain?
A) ganglia
B) microglial cells
C) blood-brain barrier
D) meninges
Q3) Polyomavirus particles can be observed in the _____ cells of the nervous system.
A) microglial
B) oligodendrocyte
C) sensory neuron
D) association neuron
Q4) What are the two vaccines developed to prevent polio? Which vaccine would be recommended for an immunocompromised child? How about in an area where it is difficult to get to and vaccine coverage is poor? Why are there still cases of polio in the United States if vaccine coverage is excellent?
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Chapter 25: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Cytophaga,found in soil,is characterized by
A) being a fungus
B) cellulose degradation
C) being strictly aerobic
D) being a protozoan decomposer
Q2) What is the meaning of biological oxygen demand (BOD)? Why is it important for pollution? What do microbes have to do with this?
Q3) What results from the biological oxygen demand (BOD)being high and the water becoming anaerobic?
A) a more efficient decomposition of wastes
B) increased need for sulfur
C) decreased need for carbon
D) accumulation of wastes
Q4) Which term has been incorrectly matched?
A) biogeochemical cycles - recycling of life-essential elements and water
B) nitrogenase - functional nitrogen-fixing enzyme
C) swarmer cells - organisms that can invade waterlogged soils
D) nitrate - form of nitrogen most usable in plant metabolism
Q5) What is the greenhouse effect? What effect might global warming have on infectious disease?
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Chapter 26: Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Wort is a precursor for
A) white wine
B) red wine
C) brandy
D) beer
Q2) All of the following statements about spices are true except
A) they have a well deserved reputation as antimicrobials
B) most microorganisms found in spices are not pathogens
C) often mask odors of putrefaction
D) while they teem with bacteria they aren't harmful as they are used in small amounts
Q3) Which bacteria are responsible for nearly half the infections associated with mishandling of poultry in restaurants?
A) Salmonella
B) Pseudomonas
C) Trichinella spiralis
D) Lactobacilli
Q4) Are food spoilage microorganisms also pathogens? Give examples to support your answer. Outline 4 methods of food preservation. How does each method limit growth of microorganisms?
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