Applied Microbiology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various industries and environmental settings. The course covers fundamental microbiological concepts and delves into their applications in food production, fermentation technology, pharmaceuticals, biotechnology, agriculture, and environmental management. Students learn about the role of microbes in processes such as bioremediation, antibiotic production, and waste treatment, while also examining strategies to control pathogenic microorganisms and enhance beneficial microbial activities. Through laboratory work and case studies, students gain hands-on experience in microbial techniques and develop an understanding of how microbiology contributes to solving real-world problems.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the name of the bacterium Escherichia coli O157,the 'O157' refers to its A)family.
B)strain.
C)species.
D)genus.
E)morphology.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)All bacteria are beneficial to humans.
B)All bacteria cause disease in some animal.
C)Bacteria in the human body always cause disease.
D)Bacteria in the human body may sometimes cause disease.
E)All of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Yoghurt is made by adding a culture of lactic acid bacteria to pasteurised milk.
B)Yoghurt is usually made from raw milk which is then pasteurised.
C)Yoghurt is a method of preserving milk.
D)The pH of yoghurt is acid.
E)Yoghurt contains live bacteria.
Answer: B
Q2) The energy released during glucose oxidation is stored in a molecule known as A)adenosine triphosphate.
B)glucose-6-phospate.
C)adenosine diphosphate.
D)pyruvic acid.
E)acetyl CoA.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the bacterial cell membrane?
A)To provide structural support for the bacterial cell.
B)To control the passage of nutrients into the cell.
C)The synthesis of cell wall components.
D)The secretion of proteins out of the cell.
E)To carry out metabolic reactions.
Answer: A
Q2) During the stationary phase of bacterial growth
A)the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell death.
B)the lack of nutrients means there is no cell replication.
C)the cells stop growing to produce endospores.
D)the cells are in a resting phase prior to rapid multiplication.
E)all of the above.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic engineering involves
A)the manipulation of microbial cells to produce specialised end products.
B)the use of plasmids to introduce new characteristics into a bacterial cell.
C)infection of bacteria by phage carrying specialised genes.
D)the use of restriction enzymes to isolate specific gene sequences.
E)all of the above.
Q2) A gene
A)is a piece of DNA which determines a particular characteristic of a cell.
B)directs the formation of a particular protein.
C)consists of a linear sequence of nucleotides.
D)consists of four bases called adenine,guanine,thymine and cytosine.
E)all of the above.
Q3) A codon is
A)a sequence of three nucleotide bases.
B)a sequence of four nucleotide bases.
C)a section of the ribosomal RNA.
D)the four nucleotide bases on transfer RNA.
E)the gene that directs protein synthesis.
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Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is TRUE?
A)Viruses that infect humans never infect other animals.
B)All viruses can only attack one type of cell.
C)Each virus attaches to a specific receptor site on its target cells.
D)Viruses that infect birds do not infect humans.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Hepatitis B virus can cause a carrier state in a person,which means that
A)there is a continuous,low level of virus replication.
B)the person is infected but doesn't transmit the virus.
C)the infection will only ever be mild.
D)the person's immune system is permanently damaged.
E)all of the above.
Q3) An arbovirus infection is transmitted by A)trees.
B)birds.
C)insects.
D)reptiles.
E)none of the above.
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Chapter
Multicellular Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protozoa are
A)single-celled procaryotic organisms.
B)procaryotic organisms that live in water.
C)single-celled eucaryotic organisms.
D)multi-celled eucaryotic organisms.
E)multi-celled procaryotic organisms.
Q2) Toxoplasmosis
A)is usually a mild illness in adults.
B)can be acquired by consumption of undercooked meats.
C)can be transmitted in cat faeces.
D)can cause congenital defects in an unborn baby.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which form of a parasite is harboured by the definitive host?
A)Cyst.
B)Adult.
C)Larva.
D)Spore.
E)Pupa.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes zoster virus remains in the body for many years after the symptoms of chickenpox have subsided.This is an example of a
A)latent infection.
B)chronic infection.
C)slow infection.
D)superinfection.
E)subclinical infection.
Q2) One of the ways in which the microbiota benefits the host is by
A)providing nutrients for the growth of other beneficial microorganisms.
B)inhibiting the growth of harmful microorganisms.
C)providing oxygen for the growth of other microorganisms.
D)removing wastes from the body.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is an indication of infection?
A)Inflammation.
B)Lymphadenopathy.
C)Rash.
D)Antibody formation.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases is contracted by faecal-oral transmission?
A)Salmonellosis.
B)Pneumonia.
C)Tuberculosis.
D)Measles.
E)Aspergillosis.
Q2) Which of the following is FALSE? Evidence-based practice
A)refers to the development of procedures and practices based on research.
B)involves the use of quantitative data.
C)sometimes uses retrospective data.
D)relies on qualitative and anecdotal data.
E)is important in improving clinical outcomes.
Q3) Which of the following definitions is FALSE?
A)An outbreak is an increase in the number of cases of a disease in excess of the normal.
B)The incidence of disease is the number of cases seen in a specific period.
C)Prevalence is the number of people infected with the disease at any one time.
D)Morbidity is illness caused by a disease.
E)The index case is any person who shows the characteristic signs and symptoms of a disease.
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Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an immunodeficiency condition?
A)Suppression of the bone marrow.
B)Complement deficiency.
C)Improper development of the thymus gland.
D)Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
E)Infection with HIV.
Q2) Which class of antibody is the major type found in secretions?
A)IgA.
B)IgE.
C)IgG.
D)IgM.
E)IgD.
Q3) An example of an autoimmune disease is A)hay fever.
B)asthma.
C)rheumatic fever.
D)AIDS.
E)all of the above.
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11
Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occurrence of minor mutations in the genes that code for the antigens of an organism is called
A)antigenic shift.
B)antigenic drift.
C)concealment.
D)antigenic switching.
E)crossing over.
Q2) Bacterial exotoxins are characteristically
A)lethal only in very large amounts.
B)proteins.
C)non-specific in their mode of action.
D)produced only by bacteria which deeply invade tissues.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Opportunistic pathogens
A)are able to cause disease in healthy hosts.
B)have virulence factors that overcome normal defences.
C)cause damage by releasing toxins.
D)cause disease only in hosts with weakened immune defences.
E)always cause systemic infections.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Gamma radiation can destroy all bacteria and viruses.
B)Ionising radiation kills bacteria by disrupting the structure of their DNA.
C)Gamma radiation sterilises because it can penetrate wrapped articles.
D)Gamma radiation is useful for sterilising biological solutions for injection.
E)Microwave radiation destroys all microorganisms by denaturing their proteins.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Any solution that is administered parenterally must be sterile.
B)Any equipment that penetrates the skin must be sterile before use.
C)Bedpans do not need to be sterile before use.
D)Dressings and swabs applied to damaged skin must be sterile.
E)All of the above.
Q3) The first person to use disinfectants to reduce the rate of death from infections in surgery was
A)Joseph Lister.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)Robert Koch.
D)Edward Jenner.
E)John Snow.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aminoglycosides are not usually prescribed for patients
A)who have impaired kidney function.
B)who suffer from asthma or hay fever.
C)who are immunodeficient.
D)with high blood pressure.
E)who have pneumonia.
Q2) The first antimicrobial drug used to combat infection,in particular syphilis,was
A)aspirin.
B)penicillin.
C)morphine.
D)salvarsan.
E)sulfanilamide.
Q3) Which of the following is an anti-malarial drug?
A)chloroquine.
B)mefloquine.
C)artemisinin.
D)doxycycline.
E)all of the above.
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14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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Q1) If a patient is diagnosed with tuberculosis,which infection control procedures should be observed?
A)Standard Precautions.
B)Airborne precautions.
C)Droplet precautions.
D)Standard Precautions and airborne precautions.
E)Standard Precautions and contact precautions.
Q2) The physician who demonstrated in the 19th century that hand disinfection significantly reduced infection rates in a hospital was
A)Oliver Wendell Holmes.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)James Simpson.
D)Joseph Lister.
E)Robert Koch.
Q3) A nosocomial infection is one which is
A)caused by the normal microbiota of the nose.
B)incubating in a patient at the time of their admission to hospital.
C)acquired while in a healthcare facility.
D)present in a patient at the time of hospitalisation.
E)readily treated with antibiotics.
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Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scabies is a disease that
A)is caused by fleas.
B)only occurs in tropical climates.
C)may predispose a person to streptococcal infections.
D)is not easily transmitted.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The most important components of primary healthcare that directly affect the incidence of infectious diseases in the community are
A)health education and good nutrition.
B)preventative screening programs and immunisation.
C)the provision of health education and appropriate treatment.
D)the Medicare and private health insurance programs.
E)antibiotics and the provision of family planning information.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an arboviral infection endemic in Australia?
A)Ross River fever.
B)Barmah Forest fever.
C)Murray Valley encephalitis.
D)Q fever.
E)Kunjin virus encephalitis.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT important when collecting specimens for microbiological investigation?
A)Time of collection.
B)Correct labelling of the container.
C)Using a sterile container.
D)Collecting duplicate samples.
E)Using aseptic technique.
Q2) An antigen-antibody reaction that results in clumping of particles is called A)precipitation.
B)complement fixation.
C)agglutination.
D)enzyme linkage.
E)seroconversion.
Q3) A specimen collected from a patient for culture in the microbiology laboratory
A)should always be refrigerated prior to sending it to the laboratory.
B)should always be shipped in transport medium.
C)should be taken before antibiotic therapy is commenced wherever possible.
D)is rarely infectious after it has been collected.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pediculosis
A)is a worm infestation.
B)is always transmitted during sexual contact.
C)always involves the pubic area.
D)is treated with insecticidal shampoos.
E)all of the above.
Q2) A farmer presented with fever and a black necrotic ulcer on his arm.A swab of the ulcer showed Gram-positive bacilli.He is most likely to have A)a fungal infection.
B)impetigo.
C)erysipelas.
D)anthrax.
E)tinea corporis.
Q3) When the varicella zoster virus reactivates late in life,it causes A)cancer.
B)shingles.
C)autoimmune disease.
D)measles.
E)dementia.
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Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Untreated streptococcal sore throat may result in
A)scarlet fever.
B)rheumatic fever.
C)glomerulonephritis.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is responsible for scarlet fever?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Salmonella typhimurium.
D)Mycobacterium avium complex.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.
Q3) What is the most common causative agent of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A)Influenza virus.
B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
E)Streptococcus pyogenes.
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Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Which of the hepatitis viruses,for which there is no vaccine,may cause a chronic infection?
A)Hepatitis A.
B)Hepatitis C.
C)Hepatitis D.
D)Hepatitis E.
E)None of the above.
Q2) A nurse suffers a needlestick injury with a needle used on a patient with confirmed hepatitis B.If she has not previously had any hepatitis B immunisation the most important immediate treatment she should receive is
A)hepatitis B vaccine.
B)hepatitis B immunoglobulin.
C)alpha interferon.
D)HBsAg.
E)aciclovir
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Bacteraemia and septicaemia mean the same thing.
B)Once in the bloodstream most bacteria survive well and readily multiply.
C)Septic shock is a life-threatening form of septicaemia.
D)Bacteria cause bacteraemia,whereas viruses cause septicaemia.
E)Bacteraemia is diagnosed by inoculation of patient blood onto an agar plate.
Q2) Hand,foot and mouth disease
A)is acquired from infected cattle.
B)rarely occurs in developed countries.
C)can develop into a meningoencephalitis in some cases.
D)is caused by bacteria that are resistant to phagocytic cell enzymes.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Anthrax is a possible biological weapon for terrorists because
A)the disease cannot be treated with antibiotics.
B)there is no vaccine.
C)it is almost always fatal.
D)the disease can be spread by spores.
E)all of the above.
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21
Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A brain abscess can result from
A)head trauma.
B)neurosurgery.
C)middle ear infection.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is used to smooth wrinkles in facial muscles?
A)Botulinum neurotoxin A.
B)Botulinum musculospasmin.
C)Staphylococcus aureus neurotoxin.
D)Tetanospasmin toxin.
E)Tetanus neurotoxin.
Q3) The causative agent of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A)is a nucleic acid.
B)is destroyed by standard autoclaving procedures.
C)is usually transmitted via urine.
D)causes microscopic vacuoles in the brain of an infected person.
E)all of the above.
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22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following sexually transmissible infections can cause congenital defects?
A)Chlamydia.
B)Gonorrhoea.
C)Rubella.
D)Syphilis.
E)Genital warts.
Q2) Which of the following is an important innate defence of the urinary tract?
A)Normal urine flow.
B)The mucociliary escalator.
C)Urinary antibodies.
D)Mucosal lymphocytes.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Genital herpes is
A)caused by herpes simplex type 1 and 2 viruses.
B)not preventable by vaccination.
C)transmitted whether or not lesions exist.
D)not always symptomatic.
E)all of the above.
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