Applied Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various industries, including food production, biotechnology, agriculture, and environmental management. The course covers the fundamental concepts of microbial physiology and genetics, followed by in-depth discussions on fermentation technology, microbial enzymes, bioremediation, and industrial-scale microbial processes. Students will learn how microbes are harnessed for the development of products such as antibiotics, vaccines, fermented foods, and biofuels, as well as their roles in waste treatment and ecosystem sustainability. Emphasis is placed on both the scientific principles underlying microbial applications and the ethical, safety, and regulatory considerations involved in utilizing microorganisms in real-world settings.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology Fundamentals A Clinical Approach 3rd Edition by Marjorie Kelly Cowan
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22 Chapters
1953 Verified Questions
1953 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Microbes and Their Building
Blocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses may also be transmitted to patients,even though they differ from bacteria in that they are ________.
A)parasitic invertebrate animals
B)infectious proteins
C)metabolically active eukaryotes
D)noncellular particles
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A)Uracil
B)Adenine
C)Thymine
D)Cytosine
E)All of these are pyrimidines.
Answer: B
Q3) Current evidence indicates that bacteria and archaea existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years before eukaryotes appeared.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Tools of the Laboratory: Methods for the
Culturing and Microscopic Analysis of Microorganisms
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Q1) Resolution differs from contrast in microscopy in that ________.
A)resolution refers to the ability to distinguish two cells from one another,whereas contrast refers to the ability to distinguish a cell from its surroundings
B)contrast refers to the ability to distinguish two cells from one another,whereas resolution refers to the ability to distinguish a cell from its surroundings
C)resolution is measured by the refractive index of light whereas contrast depends on the use of oil
D)contrast is improved by adding oil to the specimen with the 100x objective lens and resolution is improved by adjusting the iris diaphragm control lever
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen?
A)Objective lens
B)Ocular lens
C)Condenser
D)Body
E)Iris diaphragm
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term diplococcus refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Pili used for conjugation are only found on gram-negative bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The organism Mycoplasma pneumoniae that causes "walking pneumonia" lacks a cell wall. In which of the following taxonomic divisions is it classified?
A)Tenericutes
B)Mendosicutes
C)Gracilicutes
D)Firmicutes
Answer: A
Q4) Cellular organisms without a true nucleus include bacteria and viruses.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Eukaryotic Cells and Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cilia are structures for motility found primarily in ________.
A)protozoa
B)algae
C)fungi
D)bacteria
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The RN suspects the patient is suffering from oral candidiasis,caused by Candida albicans,and knows that treatment may require drugs that produce toxic side effects. Which of the following statements explains why drugs used to treat this type of infection can be toxic to humans?
A)Antifungals target bacteria only seen in humans.
B)Antifungals target eukaryotic structures seen in both Candida albicans and human cells.
C)Antifungals target peptidoglycan which occurs in the cell wall of in both Candida albicans and human cells.
D)Antifungals target the process of sporulation exhibited by both Candida albicans and human cells.
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Chapter 5: Viral Structure and Multiplication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycoprotein spikes are essential for mediating the release stage of the viral life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The viral genome is carried by ________.
A)DNA only
B)RNA only
C)both RNA and DNA
D)either DNA or RNA but not both
Q4) What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors?
A)Sheath
B)Tail fibers
C)Nucleic acid
D)Capsid head
E)None of the choices are correct
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A barophile would grow best in ________.
A)acid pools
B)the deep oceans
C)hot geyser springs
D)arid,desert soil
E)salt lakes
Q2) A microaerophile ________.
A)grows best in an anaerobic jar
B)grows with or without oxygen
C)needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen
D)requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels
E)None of the choices are correct
Q3) What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?
A)Blood agar
B)Thioglycollate
C)Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine
D)Sodium chloride
E)None of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of amphibolism is when ________.
A)pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle,and is also used as a precursor for amino acid production
B)acetyl CoA enters the Krebs cycle,and is also used for fatty acid production
C)intermediates of glucose oxidation are further oxidized during glycolysis,and are also harnessed for the production of complex carbohydrates
D)All of the above are examples of amphibolism
Q2) In addition to electrons,which of the following can also be transferred,exchanging energy in the process?
A)ADP
B)Glucose
C)Carbon
D)Hydrogen
E)Carbon dioxide
Q3) ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
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9
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA,detect incorrect bases,excise them,and correctly replace them are ________.
A)DNA ligases
B)DNA polymerases
C)DNA helicases
D)DNA gyrases
E)primases
Q2) Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Excised introns form structures called lariats.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is incorrect about purines?
A)Only found in DNA,not in RNA
B)Are nitrogenous bases
C)Always paired with a specific pyrimidine
D)Include adenine and guanine
E)Found within nucleotides
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Chapter 9: Physical and Chemical Control of Microbes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cleansing method that mechanically removes microbes and other debris to reduce contamination is ________.
A)disinfection
B)sterilization.
C)antisepsis
D)sanitization
E)degermation
Q2) Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process called ________ will remain preserved and viable for years.
A)desiccation
B)flash freeze
C)lyophilization
D)pasteurization
E)sterilization
Q3) Heavy metals work by ________.
A)rupturing the cell membrane
B)inactivating proteins
C)binding to DNA
D)dissolving the cell wall
E)mutating DNA
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Chapter 10: Antimicrobial Treatment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B,then pathogen A will have a(n)________ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.
A)smaller
B)equal
C)larger
Q2) There are fewer antifungal,antiprotozoan,and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi,protozoa,and helminths ________.
A)do not cause many human infections
B)are not affected by antimicrobials
C)are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult
D)are parasites found inside human cells
E)have cells with fewer target sites compared to bacteria
Q3) Each of the following affect cell walls except ________.
A)penicillin
B)isoniazid
C)vancomycin
D)erythromycin
E)cephalosporin
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Interactions Between Microbes and Humans
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood.
A)bacteremia
B)septicemia
C)viremia
D)toxemia
E)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) The patient's sputum culture returns a positive result for Streptococcus pneumoniae.As the RN,you are aware this capsule-forming bacterium possesses virulence factors to make it difficult to treat.In providing education to the patient regarding the disease process,which of the following statements is most appropriate?
A)"Fluid is building up in your lungs because of the body's persistent inflammatory response to the microbe."
B)"This bacterium secretes toxins that directly damage your lungs."
C)"Fragments of this bacterium's cell wall directly harm your lungs."
D)"Fluid is building up in your lungs because white blood cells are effectively lysing the encapsulated bacteria."
Q3) Septicemia means that a pathogen is present and multiplying in the blood.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Host Defenses I: Overview and Nonspecific Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) During inflammation,a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which line(s)of defense has been breached for this injury?
A)First line of defense
B)Second line of defense
C)First and second lines of defense
D)First,second and third lines of defense
Q3) The second line of defense is a series of systems that involves both cells and chemicals working together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ________.
A)lymph nodes
B)thymus
C)spleen
D)GALT
E)tonsils
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Chapter 13: Host Defenses II: Specific Immunity and Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hinge region of an antibody has a hypervariable amino acid region where the antigenic determinant fits.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n)________.
A)PAMP
B)marker
C)hapten
D)antibody
E)antigen
Q3) After his recovery from chickenpox,which lymphocytes will keep this patient from becoming infected again?
A)T helper cells
B)Natural killer cells
C)T memory cells
D)B cells
Q4) Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Disorders in Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of type III hypersensitivity?
A)Antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in the basement membrane of epithelial tissues
B)Involves production of IgG and IgE antibodies
C)Involves an immune complex reaction
D)The Arthus reaction is a local response
E)Serum sickness is a systemic response
Q2) Allergic reactions to penicillins are considered a(n)________ hypersensitivity.
A)T-cell mediated
B)antibody mediated
C)immune complex mediated
D)immediate
E)both T-cell mediated and antibody mediated
Q3) Histamine causes all of the following except ________.
A)increased sensitivity to pain
B)constriction of smooth muscle of bronchi and the intestine
C)relaxes vascular smooth muscle
D)wheal and flare reaction in skin
E)pruritus and headache
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Diagnosing Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A protein fingerprint of a patient's blood sample can be created by adding the sample to a metal plate and striking it with a laser.This causes the sample to become ionized and the ions from the sample are guided into a machine that separates them and identifies them according to their mass-to-charge ratio. This process describes
A)MALDI-TOF
B)"lab on a chip"
C)PFGE
D)PCR
E)FISH
Q2) What type of test will detect whole antigens?
A)Cross reaction
B)Agglutination
C)Precipitation
D)Specificity
E)Sensitivity
Q3) When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents,a false positive result can occur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Skin and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based upon the patient's symptoms,the most likely diagnosis is ________.
A)smallpox
B)chickenpox
C)shingles
D)measles
Q2) Mottled,discolored pigmentation is seen in patients with tinea versicolor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A)Fomites
B)Direct contact
C)Mechanical vectors
D)Blood
E)Body fluids
Q4) Herpesviruses are double-stranded,nonenveloped DNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by a prion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In paralytic polio,what structures are damaged?
A)Peripheral nerves
B)Diaphragm
C)Anterior horn cells
D)Sensory nerves
E)Brain stem
Q3) Which is incorrect about rabies?
A)Is a zoonotic disease
B)Wild populations of bats,skunks,raccoons,cats,and canines are primary reservoirs
C)Transmission can involve bites,scratches,and inhalation
D)Average incubation in human is 1 week
E)Symptoms include anxiety,agitation,muscle spasms,convulsions,and paralysis
Q4) Cryptococcal meningitis is highly communicable among humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the final results of the blood culture return three days later,the patient is diagnosed with S.aureus septicemia.Empiric antibiotic therapy was initiated with her initial clinical decompensation.What is the next step in the patient's treatment regimen?
A)Continue initial empiric therapy as cessation could encourage resistance
B)Change antibiotic coverage as indicated by susceptibility testing
C)Discontinue antibiotics as three days of treatment is standard
D)Continue empiric coverage until clinical symptoms improve
Q2) ________ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream.
A)Viremia
B)Fungemia
C)Hemovirus
D)Bacteremia
E)Septicemia
Q3) The reservoir for Lassa fever is the ________.
A)monkey
B)rat
C)gorilla
D)cat
E)cattle
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Chapter 19: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Respiratory Systems
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Q1) Symptoms of influenza include ________.
A)nasal discharge,mild fever,and absence of cough
B)fever,diarrhea,and vomiting
C)fever,myalgia,sore throat,cough,and nasal discharge
D)fever,sore throat,rash,and cough
E)fever and pneumonia
Q2) Extensively drug-resistant tuberculosis,while harder to treat because some antibiotics are ineffective,has a similar prognosis and recovery rate compared to nonresistant tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pertussis outbreaks still occur in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common causative agent of otitis media is ________.
A)Aspergillus fumigatus
B)Haemophilus influenzae
C)Candida albicans
D)Corynebacterium
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Chapter 20: Infectious Diseases Affecting the
Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Only feces from humans that contaminate food and water can be involved in transmission of amoebiasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Helicobacter pylori is an acidophile that causes stomach ulcers and cancer; because it is a pathogen it is not part of our stomach microbiome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diarrhea caused by E.coli O157:H7 is treated with antibiotics.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are components of the digestive tract except the ________.
A)kidneys
B)large intestine
C)mouth
D)esophagus
E)rectum
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Chapter 21: Infectious Diseases Affecting the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Prostatitis is usually caused by bacteria that are transmitted by ________.
A)endogenous transfer from the gastrointestinal tract
B)direct contact from a sexual partner
C)poor hygiene during urination
D)opportunism by the microbiota following an antibiotic regime
Q2) Even after a positive test for a microbial cause,prostatitis is unresponsive to antibiotic therapy.Why?
A)It is a viral infection
B)Drug-induced side effects are too great
C)Mixed biofilms are hard to kill
D)The infection is sporadic
E)Prostatitis is never caused by bacteria
Q3) Which group is at greatest risk for group B Streptococcus infection?
A)Pregnant women
B)Neonates
C)21-year-old females
D)21-year-old males
E)Older adults (age 65 years and older)
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Chapter 22: One Health: the Interconnected Health of the Environment,
humans, and Other Animals
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Q1) Which of the following has been chemically modified to make it biodegradable?
A)Glass
B)Aluminum foil
C)Styrofoam
D)Laundry detergent
Q2) An infectious disease typically seen among animals that may be acquired by humans is referred to as ________.
A)zoophilic
B)zoonotic
C)nosocomial
D)agronotic
Q3) Transmission of organisms that cause zoonotic diseases can only pass from animal to human,not from human to animal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The activated sludge step in wastewater treatment is an example of the ________.
A)primary phase of wastewater treatment
B)secondary phase of wastewater treatment
C)tertiary phase of wastewater treatment
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