Applied Microbiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microorganisms in various industries, including food production, pharmaceuticals, environmental management, and biotechnology. The course covers topics such as microbial fermentation, bioremediation, industrial enzyme production, and the use of microbes in agriculture and waste treatment. Emphasis is placed on the manipulation and control of microbial processes to solve real-world problems, as well as considerations regarding biosafety, ethical issues, and emerging trends in microbial technology. Through laboratory work and case studies, students gain hands-on experience in applying microbiological principles to address challenges in health, industry, and the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 13th Edition by Patricia Tille
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Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Q1) Colonial and microscopic morphologic properties, along with the pigmentation of colonies, would belong to a microorganism group of ________ characteristics.
A) genotypic
B) taxonomic
C) phenotypic
D) subspecies
Answer: C
Q2) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is:
A) genus.
B) species.
C) class.
D) kingdom.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics, Metabolism, and Structure
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Q1) Pieces of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)that move from one genetic element to another and contain genes for movement and genes for other features are called: A) transposons.
B) insertion sequences.
C) plasmids.
D) chromatoids.
Answer: A
Q2) A DNA sequence that encodes for a specific product (ribonucleic acid [RNA] or protein)is defined as a: A) gene.
B) genome.
C) nucleotide.
D) deoxyribonucleic acid.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) IgE is the:
A) first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered.
B) antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C) antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D) second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: B
Q2) IgM is the:
A) first antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered. B) antibody that is associated with various parasitic infections.
C) antibody that is secreted in various body fluids and primarily protects those body surfaces lined with mucous membranes.
D) second antibody produced when an invading microorganism is initially encountered and the most abundant.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Standard precautions in the microbiology laboratory apply to:
A) all clinical specimens.
B) clinical specimens that contain blood or body fluids.
C) blood, body fluids, feces, sputum, saliva, urine, and vomitus.
D) only specimens that are visibly bloody.
Q2) A cleaning solution used on the venipuncture site to avoid skin contamination of the blood sample is called a(n):
A) surfactant.
B) disinfectant.
C) biocide.
D) antiseptic.
Q3) Class III biological safety cabinets:
A) sterilize the air as it passes over the material in the cabinet.
B) protect the environment from contamination by biological agents by filtering the air as it is exhausted from the cabinet.
C) are completely enclosed and have gloves that enable the worker to manipulate the material in the cabinet.
D) are often called laminar flow hoods.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) The best anticoagulant to prevent clotting of specimens, such as blood, bone marrow, and synovial fluid, which are submitted for recovery of all types of microorganisms, is:
A) sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS).
B) heparin.
C) citrate.
D) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA).
Q2) Direct examinations such as the Gram stain serve what purpose?
A) To determine the organism's genetic makeup
B) To give the physician an early indication of what may be wrong with the patient
C) To determine the type of flora in the throat and stool specimens
D) To determine the organism's colonial morphologic features
Q3) An example of a beta-hemolytic gram-positive organism is:
A) Staphylococcus aureus.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Enterococcus.
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) After which step in the Gram-stain procedure are gram-positive bacteria first distinguished from gram-negative bacteria?
A) Crystal violet
B) Iodine mordant
C) Gram's decolorizer
D) Safranin
Q2) Magnifications in excess of 100,000 ´ are achieved by ________ microscopy?
A) bright-field
B) electron
C) dark-field
D) phase-contrast
Q3) The first step in the Gram-stain sequence is the application of _______, which is the primary stain.
A) safranin
B) crystal violet
C) Gram's iodine
D) Gram's decolorizer
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8
Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) In which category of media would blood agar best fit?
A) Selective
B) Differential
C) Selective and differential
D) Supportive only
Q2) Which medium can be described as containing crystal violet dye to inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria and fungi and allows many types of gram-negative bacilli to grow?
A) Thayer-Martin agar
B) MacConkey agar
C) PEA
D) Hektoen enteric agar
Q3) A bacterial colony can be described as:
A) sufficiently large numbers of a bacterium that can be observable with the unaided eye.
B) derived from many different types of bacterial cells.
C) belonging to different genera and species.
D) having different genetic and phenotypic characteristics.
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) Nucleic acid sequencing methods are based on:
A) the ability of two nucleic acid strands that have complementary base sequences to bond specifically with each other and form a double-stranded molecule.
B) detecting phenotypic traits not detectable by conventional strategies.
C) the principles of complementary nucleic acid hybridization with those of nucleic acid replication.
D) determining the exact nucleotide sequence of a gene or gene fragment obtained from an organism.
Q2) Which type of hybridization method would be the optimal choice to use to detect a lesion infected with a particular virus?
A) Southern
B) In situ
C) Peptide nucleic acid
D) Sandwich
Q3) The optimal way to detect PCR amplicons is to use which stain?
A) Methylene blue
B) Malachite green
C) Bromothymol blue
D) Ethidium bromide
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as a(n):
A) solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B) direct fluorescent antibody test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D) radioimmunoassay.
Q2) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that:
A) extensive training is not necessary.
B) it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C) visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen is possible.
D) fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q3) The difference between latex agglutination and coagglutination is:
A) the type of particle used to carry the antibody.
B) the type of target organism involved.
C) that coagglutination is less specific but more sensitive.
D) that coagglutination, not latex agglutination, can be used for direct antigen detection.
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11
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) The precipitin test that is widely used for detecting antibodies against fungal infection is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) The immunochemical test that involves the agglutination of an artificial carrier particle with the antigen bound to its surface and an antibody present in a specimen is referred to as:
A) double immunodiffusion.
B) counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C) particle agglutination.
D) enzyme immunoassay.
Q3) The study of the diagnosis of disease by measuring antibody levels in serum is called:
A) immunology.
B) immunohematology.
C) serology.
D) immunocytology.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action and Resistance
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Q1) Klebsiella spp.were isolated from a sputum sample, and susceptibility testing was performed.The isolates were sensitive to several antibiotics; however, they were resistant to ampicillin.Which one of the following statements explains this discrepancy?
A) The ampicillin disk is most likely expired.
B) Because Klebsiella spp. should be sensitive to ampicillin, a technical error is to blame.
C) Ampicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis. In addition, because Klebsiella spp. do not have a cell wall, they should not have been tested for ampicillin.
D) No discrepancy is present; Klebsiella spp. are normally resistant to ampicillin.
Q2) Vancomycin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis inhibition
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13
Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) As a result of the organism going through several doubling generations of growth before inhibition, a haze of bacterial growth occurs on the agar around the disk.This phenomenon, which should be ignored, can be observed when testing which class of antibiotics?
A) Aminoglycosides
B) Sulfonamides
C) Penicillins
D) Cephalosporins
Q2) The antibiotic nitrofurantoin is effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria.This antibiotic is effective against which type of specimen?
A) Blood
B) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
C) Urine
D) Sputum
Q3) Enterococcal high-level gentamicin resistance predicts resistance to:
A) vancomycin.
B) aminoglycoside.
C) cephalosporin.
D) amikacin.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus Micrococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control should be performed on which two organisms to determine the validity of the oxidase reagent?
A) Staphylococcus aureus and S. epidermidis
B) S. epidermidis and Enterococcus
C) Aerococcus and Enterococcus
D) Micrococcus and Aerococcus
Q2) The Staphylococcaceae staphylococcus that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women, is:
A) S. saprophyticus.
B) S. aureus.
C) S. epidermidis.
D) S. intermedius.
Q3) The most frequent agent of nosocomial bacteremia is:
A) catalase-negative micrococci.
B) coagulase-positive staphylococci.
C) catalase-negative stomatococci.
D) coagulase-negative staphylococci.
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Chapter 14: Streptococcus Enterococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Optochin, PYR, bile solubility, esculin, and 6.5% NaCl are tests most likely performed on a(n)_______ Streptococcus.
A) alpha-hemolytic
B) beta-hemolytic
C) nonhemolytic
D) gamma-hemolytic
Q2) The bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, is beta-hemolytic, is a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and is a producer of the Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen (CAMP)factor is:
A) Enterococcus faecalis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) S. pyogenes.
D) S. agalactiae.
Q3) The drugs of choice for most enterococcal infections are:
A) vancomycin and a penicillin.
B) clindamycin and vancomycin.
C) penicillin and an aminoglycoside.
D) septra.
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Induction of capsule formation by B.anthracis can be accomplished with _____ agar.
A) 5% sheep blood
B) PLET acetate
C) bicarbonate
D) urea
Q2) A patient diagnosed with Bacillus anthracis is allergic to penicillin.Which antibiotic can be given that will be therapeutically effective?
A) Ampicillin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Imipenem
D) Vancomycin
Q3) Which of the following types of anthrax occurs after ingesting the spores and affects the abdominal or oropharyngeal area? (Patients usually die from toxemia and overwhelming sepsis.)
A) Cutaneous
B) Pulmonary
C) Gastrointestinal
D) Bubonic
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Chapter 16: Listeria Corynebacterium and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)culture was performed on a newborn in distress.After overnight incubation, small gram-positive bacilli with a soft zone of beta hemolysis grew on sheep blood agar.Based on this information, what results would be expected on the following tests: hippurate; Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen (CAMP); and motility?
A) Negative hippurate, positive CAMP, and negative motility
B) Positive hippurate, negative CAMP, and positive motility
C) Positive hippurate, positive CAMP, and positive motility
D) Negative hippurate, negative CAMP, and negative motility
Q2) A gram-positive bacillus, which grew on Tinsdale agar, is esculin hydrolysis-negative, urease-positive, and nonlipophilic.The organism can be identified as:
A) C. diphtheria (subsp. gravis).
B) C. imitans.
C) C. xerosis.
D) C. ulcerans.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Erysipelothrix Lactobacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A farmer has a localized, painful skin infection.Cultures are set up, and alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative, and gram-positive bacilli are isolated.Based on this information, which of the following biochemical results are expected-urease, H S production in TSI, and nitrate reduction?
A) Positive urease, positive TSI, and positive nitrate
B) Positive urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate
C) Negative urease, positive TSI, and negative nitrate
D) Negative urease, negative TSI, and negative nitrate
Q2) The reverse Christie, Atkins, Munch-Petersen (CAMP)test is positive for these curved gram-positive bacilli.Which beta-hemolytic organism is used in conjunction with this organism in the reverse CAMP test?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) S. agalactiae
C) S. saprophyticus
D) S. aureus
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Nocardia Streptomyces Rhodococcus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Nocardia spp.cause which of the following types of infections in individuals who are immunocompromised?
A) Mycetoma
B) Lymphocutaneous infections
C) Skin abscesses or cellulites
D) Invasive pulmonary infections
Q2) Which organisms should be used to run quality control for acid-fast stains?
A) Nocardia and Rhodococcus
B) Streptomyces and Actinomadura
C) Dermatophilus and Nocardiopsis
D) Nocardia and Streptomyces
Q3) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is:
A) Rhodococcus.
B) Nocardia.
C) Gordonia.
D) Tsukamurella.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Which of correct for the description "acid slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q2) Escherichia coli would appear what color on HE agar?
A) Green
B) Green with a black center
C) Yellow
D) Yellow with a black center
Q3) Which is correct for the description "alkaline slant, acid butt, no H S"?
A) Salmonella spp.
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus spp.
D) Pseudomonas spp.
Q4) On MacConkey agar, Serratia spp.would appear:
A) red.
B) colorless.
C) green.
D) yellow.
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) The primary drug of choice for infections caused by Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is:
A) a beta-lactam agent in combination with an aminoglycoside antibiotic.
B) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
C) ticarcillin and clavulanic acid.
D) chloramphenicol.
Q2) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as the:
A) mucous membranes of animals.
B) gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C) natural environment.
D) genitourinary tract of animals.
Q3) Which organism is often isolated in the sputum of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A) Acinetobacter spp.
B) Bordetella trematum
C) Burkholderia gladioli
D) Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
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Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which best describes the source of Burkholderia cepacia infections?
A) Rice paddles
B) Medical devices
C) Oropharynx of animals
D) Rodents
Q2) Which species of Burkholderia is the one most commonly found in clinical specimens?
A) Burkholderia ralstonia
B) Burkholderia pseudomallei
C) Burkholderia mallei
D) Burkholderia cepacia
Q3) Which two organisms should be used to determine the validity of urea agar for quality control purposes?
A) Pseudomonas fluorescens and Burkholderia cepacia complex
B) Ralstonia mannitolilytica and Acidovorax delafieldii
C) Brevundimonas diminuta and Brevundimonas vesicularis
D) Brevundimonas vesicularis and Ralstonia pickettii
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which organism is a nonlactose-fermenter that oxidizes glucose and xylose and also morphologically resembles colonies of Enterobacteriaceae?
A) CDC group Ic
B) Ochrobactrum anthropi
C) Shewanella putrefaciens
D) Alcaligenes xylosoxidans
Q2) Although validated susceptibility testing methods do not exist for this group of organisms, in vitro data suggest that certain cephalosporins and aminoglycosides are effective against which one of the following groups of organisms?
A) Ochrobactrum anthropi
B) Shewanella putrefaciens
C) Paracoccus yeei
D) Rhizobium radiobacter
Q3) The reservoir for Ochrobactrum anthropi is:
A) environment only, not human flora.
B) animal oral and respiratory flora.
C) environment, cold climates.
D) environment and human flora.
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Q1) Which organism's virulence is due to protease and gelatinase production, which causes the destruction of host cells and tissues?
A) Bergeyella zoohelcum
B) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
C) Chryseobacterium indologenes
D) Agrobacterium spp.
Q2) Neonates and individuals who are immunocompromised are at risk for developing meningitis if they contract which organism?
A) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
B) Myroides odoratum
C) Sphingobacterium spp.
D) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group EO-3
Q3) Which organism is indole- and gelatin-positive but does not have the ability to oxidize mannitol?
A) Sphingobacterium multivorum
B) CDC group O-1
C) Empedobacter brevis
D) Elizabethkingia meningoseptica
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Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Gram-stain morphologic features, motility, and flagellar placement are important identifying characteristics of:
A) Chryseobacterium.
B) Flavobacterium.
C) Pseudomonas.
D) Bordetella.
Q2) The biochemical description of Myroides is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) urease-positive and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q3) The biochemical description of Bordetella bronchiseptica is:
A) oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B) indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C) resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar at 42° C.
D) nonmotile and both urea-positive and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Chromobacterium, and Related Organisms
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Q1) Vibrio cholera and V.alginolyticus appear what color on TCBS agar?
A) Green
B) Black
C) Yellow
D) Blue
Q2) A vibriostatic test using 0/129 (2,4-diamino-6,7-diisopropylpteridine)-impregnated disks differentiates vibrio cells, which are susceptible, and _________, which are resistant.
A) Enterobacteriaceae
B) Plesiomonas spp.
C) aeromonads
D) Chromobacterium spp.
Q3) Colonies growing on modified cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN)agar appear to be either Aeromonas spp.or Yersinia enterocolitica.Which test should be performed to differentiate between these two organisms?
A) String test
B) Sucrose fermentation
C) Glucose fermentation
D) Oxidase
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A) Habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B) Habitats are unknown.
C) Habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D) Habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q2) Although no definitive guidelines are available for the treatment of Sphingomonas paucimobilis infections, which antibiotic appears to have potential activity against this organism?
A) Penicillin
B) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination
C) Flagyl
D) Imipenem
Q3) When performing quality control on motility media, which of the following organisms should be used?
A) Acidovorax facilis and Sphingomonas spp.
B) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) group IIc and CDC group IIe
C) CDC group Iii and Sphingobacterium mizutaii
D) CDC group IIh and Acidovorax facilis
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella and Related Organisms
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Q1) Testing for differentiation of Moraxella nonliquefaciens and M.osloensis can best be performed by:
A) the ability to utilize acetate.
B) the ability to liquefy serum.
C) glucose utilization tests.
D) growth on MacConkey agar.
Q2) Which of the following tests can be performed to differentiate the two subspecies of Neisseria-elongata and glycolytica?
A) Catalase
B) Nitrate reduction
C) DNase
D) Growth in nutrient broth
Q3) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella atlantae will appear as:
A) either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B) gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C) coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D) coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
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Chapter 28: Eikenella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Quality control performed on indole reagent should be performed on which two organisms?
A) Eikenella corrodens and Methylobacterium spp.
B) Weeksella virosa and Bergeyella zoohelcum
C) Bergeyella zoohelcum and Escherichia coli
D) Eikenella corrodens and Weeksella virosa
Q2) The organism that is found in vegetation and occasionally in the hospital environment grows best at which temperature?
A) 4º C
B) 25º C
C) 35º C
D) 56º C
Q3) Which of the following organisms is negative for catalase, indole, and arginine dihydrolase tests and pits the agar on a sheep blood agar plate?
A) Eikenella corrodens
B) Weeksella virosa
C) Pseudomonas maltophilia
D) Sphingomonas paucimobilis
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which test is used to differentiate Pasteurella multocida from Mannheimia haemolytica?
A) Indole
B) Catalase
C) Nitrate
D) Sucrose
Q2) An organism that causes infection as a result of a dog or cat bite was tested for catalase, resulting in a positive reaction.What could be the possible source of the error?
A) The catalase reagent could be expired.
B) This organism is normally negative for catalase; therefore a mutation may have occurred.
C) A false-positive result occurred because of the catalase production of the red blood cells in the 5% sheep blood agar.
D) No error is present. This organism is catalase-positive.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Aggregatibacter, Kingella,
Cardiobacterium, Capnocytophaga, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following biochemical reactions identifies an organism associated with blood, bone, and joint infections in young children?
A) Positive catalase, positive nitrate reduction, and positive indole
B) Negative catalase, positive nitrate reduction, and positive indole
C) Negative catalase, negative nitrate reduction, and positive indole
D) Negative catalase, negative nitrate reduction, and negative indole
Q2) Which yellow-pigmented organism exhibits gliding motility that grows best at 35º C and in conditions with increased carbon dioxide (CO )but cannot grow in ambient air?
A) Actinobacillus
B) Capnocytophaga
C) Cardiobacterium
D) Kingella
Q3) To test the validity of catalase reagent, which two organisms should be used?
A) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and Kingella kingae
B) Cardiobacterium hominis and Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
C) Kingella denitrificans and Kingella kingae
D) Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus ureae
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) A 6-year-old boy was diagnosed with purulent conjunctivitis caused by a species of Haemophilus.What would the biochemical profile of the organism be?
A) Growth requirements require both X and V factors; the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
B) Growth requirements require both X and V factors; the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
C) Growth requirements require V factor; the organism is hemolytic on rabbit blood.
D) Growth requirements require X factor; the organism is nonhemolytic on rabbit blood.
Q2) With one exception, species of the genus Haemophilus require which of the following media ingredients for in vitro growth?
A) Vitamin K and hemin
B) Hemin and nicotine adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
C) Vitamin K and NAD
D) Hemin and cysteine
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Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatis can all be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
Q2) Although molecular methods are available, such as polymerase chain reaction (PCR)for identifying the Bartonella species, limitations exist.One limitation to testing is the specificity of:
A) probes.
B) polymerases.
C) primers.
D) restriction enzymes.
Q3) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by:
A) Afipia felis.
B) Bartonella quintana.
C) B. clarridgeiae.
D) B. henselae.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Antimicrobial therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection consists of:
A) penicillin, gentamycin, and imipenem.
B) clindamycin, ceftriazone, and carbapenem.
C) metronidazole, bismuth salt, and tetracycline.
D) azithromycin alone.
Q2) A gram-negative, spiral-shaped organism is isolated from a stool sample that was hippurate-positive, catalase-positive, susceptible to nalidixic acid, and resistant to cephalothin.The organism can be identified as:
A) Campylobacter coli.
B) C. jejuni subsp. doylei.
C) C. jejuni subsp. jejuni.
D) C. fetus subsp. fetus.
Q3) Curved, microaerophilic, gram-negative rods, with most species having strong urease activity and the majority of which colonize mammalian stomachs or intestines, describe which group of bacteria?
A) Campylobacter
B) Helicobacter
C) Arcobacter
D) Enterobacter
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) The medium or media of choice used to recover Legionella is:
A) buffered charcoal yeast extract (BCYE).
B) Regan-Lowe agar.
C) Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
D) blood and chocolate agars.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Legionella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) faintly staining, thin gram-negative bacilli.
Q3) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) L-cysteine and iron
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those that are able to:
A) be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B) exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C) be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D) be cultured only inside living organisms such as mice.
Q2) Although in vitro susceptibility testing is not reliable, which regimen of antibiotics is recommended for Brucella infections?
A) Penicillin and azithromycin
B) Ampicillin and gentamycin
C) Doxycycline and rifampin
D) Gentamycin and vancomycin
Q3) Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are:
A) gram-positive diplococci.
B) gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C) gram-negative coccobacilli.
D) gram-negative bacilli.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis, Bordetella Parapertussis, and
Related Species
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Q1) A nasopharyngeal aspirate is cultured on Bordet-Gengou agar, and growth is observed.The colonies are also subjected to a direct fluorescent antibody (DFA)stain, which is also positive.On the basis of these findings, the antimicrobial therapy that should be administered to the patient is:
A) azithromycin.
B) gentamycin.
C) streptomycin.
D) imipenem.
Q2) If real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)is performed on a Bordetella isolate, then it must be noted that this type of swab is unacceptable for collection because of the presence of which of the following inhibitory factors?
A) Dacron
B) Cotton
C) Rayon
D) Calcium alginate
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Q1) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with which of the following ingredient(s)is necessary?
A) Cysteine and cystine
B) Blood and cysteine
C) Dopa-cysteine
D) Nicotinic adenine
Q2) Tularemia, characterized by glandular, ulceroglandular, oculoglandular, oropharyngeal, systemic, and pneumonic presentations, is caused by which of the following species?
A) Brucella
B) Bordetella
C) Pasteurella
D) Francisella
Q3) Francisella philomiragia differs from F.tularensis in that it:
A) is oxidase-negative.
B) is hydrogen sulfide-positive.
C) does not hydrolyze gelatin.
D) does not grow in 6% sodium chloride.
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Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by:
A) chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B) a granulomatous lesion.
C) septic arthritis.
D) endocarditis.
Q2) Which of the following causes Sodoku, which is characterized by swollen lymph nodes, chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains, a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities, and a granulomatous lesion?
A) Streptobacillus moniliformis
B) Spirillum minus
C) Bordetella spp.
D) Pasteurella spp.
Q3) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is acquired by the ingestion of the bacterium is:
A) Sodoku.
B) Haverhill fever.
C) monillic fever.
D) monillic gastritis.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) The determination of carbohydrate utilization patterns for the differentiation of Neisseria spp.and M.catarrhalis is best performed by:
A) incubation of inoculated cysteine trypticase soy agar (CTA) with 1% dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose for 48 to 72 hours.
B) oxidative-fermentative (OF) medium with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
C) heavy inoculation of buffered, low-peptone substrate with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
D) carbohydrate testing strips.
Q2) Gram-negative diplococci are isolated from a genital specimen and yield the following results: · Glucose: positive
· Maltose: negative
· Lactose: negative
The organism can be identified as:
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) N. meningitidis.
C) N. lactamica.
D) Moraxella catarrhalis.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Cervical swab is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q2) Egg-yolk agar
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
Q3) Aspiration of peritoneal fluid using a needle and syringe is:
A) acceptable.
B) not acceptable.
Q4) CCFA
A)Isolates of Prevotella and Bacteroides spp.
B)Inhibits gram-negative rods
C)Is nonselective; supports the growth of facultative anaerobes and aerobes
D)Determines lecithinase and lipase production of Clostridia and Fusobacteria
E)Is selective for Clostridium difficile
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Overview of Anaerobic Organisms
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Q1) Incubation conditions for anaerobic cultures include:
A) 30° to 35° C.
B) incubation for 48 hours before exposing the culture to air.
C) incubation for at least 3 days before discarding.
D) aerobic incubation of the broth medium with the cap loose.
Q2) The most likely identification of a bile-resistant, kanamycin-resistant, colistin-resistant, and vancomycin-resistant anaerobic gram-negative bacilli is:
A) nonpigmented Prevotella.
B) Porphyromonas spp.
C) Bacteroides fragilis group.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
Q3) Characteristics that strongly indicate the presence of pigmented Prevotella or Porphyromonas in a clinical specimen include:
A) yellow-green fluorescence.
B) rhizoid margins resembling a "Medusa head" on anaerobic blood agar.
C) brick-red fluorescence under long-wavelength ultraviolet (UV) light.
D) chartreuse fluorescens.
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Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) For reliable results, the niacin test should be performed only from cultures that are at least:
A) 2 weeks old and show at least five colonies on Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
B) 3 weeks old and show at least 50 colonies on Löwenstein-Jensen medium.
C) 3 weeks old and show at least 50 colonies on Middlebrook 7H11 agar.
D) 2 weeks old and show at least five colonies on Middlebrook 7H11 agar.
Q2) What quantity of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)is considered sufficient for the detection of tuberculous meningitis?
A) 1 mL
B) 5 mL
C) 10 mL
D) 20 mL
Q3) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH), Zephiran-trisodium phosphate, N-acetyl-L-cysteine-NaOH (NALC-NaOH), and oxalic acid are associated with:
A) methods of cultivating Mycobacterium in vitro.
B) digestion and decontamination of specimens for mycobacterial studies.
C) identification of clinically significant Mycobacterium.
D) antimicrobial susceptibility testing of mycobacterial species.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Non-culturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) The drug of choice for the treatment of granuloma inguinale, which is a major cause of genital ulcers in India, New Guinea, and part of South America, is:
A) clindamycin.
B) doxycycline.
C) imipenem.
D) gentamycin.
Q2) A prokaryote that differs from most other bacteria with respect to its very small size and obligates intracellular parasitism is:
A) Rickettsia.
B) Ehrlichia.
C) Calymmatobacterium.
D) Coxiella.
Q3) Which of the following vectors transmit scrub typhus?
A) Lice
B) Ticks
C) Fleas
D) Chiggers
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Cell Walldeficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Quality control is set up to test urea agar.M.genitalium and M.hominis are used; however, both organisms are negative for urease activity.Which one of the following statements explains these findings?
A) The urea agar is most likely expired.
B) The incubation time is most likely abbreviated.
C) A technical error has occurred.
D) These two organisms are poor choices for quality control of urea agar.
Q2) The laboratory method of choice to identify Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma infections is:
A) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
B) direct fluorescent antibody (DFA).
C) latex agglutination.
D) real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q3) The definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Mycoplasma hominis
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma genitalium
Page 46
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Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Systemic symptoms, such as fever, weight loss, malaise, and a loss of appetite, along with a widespread rash, can be observed in patients suffering from _________ syphilis.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) latent
Q2) Isoluminol-antigen conjugate
A)TP-PA
B)MHA-TP
C)PaGIA
D)Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
E)Magnetic beads
Q3) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is associated with the clearance of organism from the bloodstream and the release of cytokines within hours of antibiotic treatment.With which spirochete is this condition associated?
A) Treponema
B) Borrelia
C) Leptospira
D) Brachyspira
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections: Overview
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Q1) Some strains of leishmaniae have reservoir hosts, including dogs and wild rodents.Transmission is via the bite of a:
A) tsetse fly.
B) tick.
C) sandfly.
D) triatomid bug.
Q2) A 17-year-old male with a severe eye infection admits that he does not clean his contact lenses as often as he should.His eye infection is most likely the result of which parasite?
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Isospora belli
C) Strongyloides stercoralis
D) Acanthamoeba spp.
Q3) The eggs of which of the following intestinal parasites are not commonly found in feces and must be detected by other diagnostic techniques?
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Cryptosporidium parvum
C) Clonorchis sinensis
D) Enterobius vermicularis
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Intestinal Protozoa
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Q1) The Isospora belli organism, which contains two sporocysts with four sporozoites each, is recovered from fecal specimens and has also been implicated in traveler's diarrhea.The drug of choice to treat infection caused by I.belli is:
A) trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole combination.
B) tetracycline.
C) albendazole.
D) flagyl.
Q2) A patient has amebic colitis.A microscopic examination reveals the following: 18 microns in diameter
Fine granules
Centrally located karyosome
Cytoplasm with a "ground glass" appearance
RBC inclusions
This protozoan can be identified as:
A) Entamoeba dispar.
B) E. histolytica.
C) E. hartmanni.
D) E. coli.
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Chapter 48: Blood and Tissue Protozoa
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Q1) T.brucei gambiense
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
Q2) A thick ring, large nucleus, and bands across the cell and 6 to 12 merozoites in a mature schizont are all characteristics of which Plasmodium spp.?
A) P. vivax
B) P. ovale
C) P. falciparum
D) P. malariae
Q3) T.brucei rhodesiense
A)Anopheles mosquito
B)Tsetse fly
C)Sandfly
D)Reduviid bug
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Chapter 49: Other Protozoa
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Q1) Tissues suspected of containing Acanthamoeba cysts can be observed using various stains.A cyst that stains black has most likely been stained with the __________ stain.
A) methenamine silver
B) periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
C) Giemsa
D) Wright
Q2) The Acanthamoeba organism is motile and has spinelike pseudopods, a single round nucleus in the cyst form, and a large karyosome in the nucleus of the troph.An estimated 70% of clinical cases of Acanthamoeba keratitis are misdiagnosed as __________ keratitis.
A) bacterial
B) fungal
C) prion
D) viral
Q3) Bradyzoites
A)Crescent-shaped
B)Oocysts from cat feces
C)Tissue cysts
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Intestinal Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) A short buccal capsule, large bulb on the esophagus, and prominent genital primordium are all characteristics of which worm?
A) Trichuris trichiura
B) Capillaria philippinensis
C) Strongyloides stercoralis
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
Q2) A 36-year-old man entered the emergency department with bleeding and weight loss several weeks after returning from a trip to South America.A stool sample was taken and microscopically examined.Barrel-shaped eggs with bipolar plugs were observed.The organism can be identified as:
A) Trichuris trichiura.
B) Ancylostoma duodenale.
C) Necator americanus.
D) Strongyloides stercoralis.
Q3) Löffler syndrome is associated with which roundworm infection?
A) Strongyloides stercoralis
B) Ancylostoma duodenale
C) Trichostrongylus spp.
D) Ascaris lumbricoides
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Tissue Nematodes Roundworms
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Q1) Snails
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
Q2) A definitive diagnosis can be made in a Trichinella infection on the basis of which of the following findings?
A) Presence of adult worms in the feces
B) Identification of encysted larvae through muscle biopsy
C) Presence of cutaneous larvae migrans in the skin
D) Identification of unembryonated eggs in the feces
Q3) Copepods
A)Dracunculus medinensis
B)Parastrongylus cantonensis
C)Trichinella spp.
D)Parastrongylus costaricensis
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53
Chapter 52: Blood and Tissue Filarialnematodes
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Q1) A 36-year-old man who has been traveling through the orient is experiencing a tender region in the inguinal region.A blood film is made, and sheathed microfilariae with four to five subterminal nuclei and two terminal nuclei in the tail are identified using Giemsa stain.The organism is most likely:
A) Wuchereria bancrofti.
B) Onchocerca volvulus.
C) Loa loa.
D) Brugia malayi.
Q2) Chyluria is a result of lymphatic rupture and fluid entering the urine.Another lymphatic condition caused by Wuchereria bancrofti is:
A) calabar swelling.
B) elephantiasis.
C) river blindness.
D) pruritic rash.
Q3) The definitive host and reservoir for Wuchereria bancrofti is:
A) mosquito.
B) microfilaria.
C) humans.
D) tabanid fly.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Intestinal Cestodes
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Q1) The Taenia solium organism, which causes cysticercosis and can grow to be 1.5 to 8 meters long, contains 7 to 13 lateral uterine branches along the proglottid.The intermediate host is:
A) dogs.
B) cats.
C) pigs.
D) cattle.
Q2) A stool specimen is examined, and the following characteristics are observed: 15 to 18 lateral branches on each side
Scolex with four suckers
No hooklets
The intermediate hosts of this tapeworm are:
A) cattle.
B) humans.
C) cats.
D) swine.
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Chapter 54: Tissue Cestodes
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Q1) Epileptic seizures, headaches, and mental disturbances all result from infection with the Taenia solium organism.The definitive diagnosis is based on:
A) positive direct fluorescent antibody test.
B) observance of eggs in the stool.
C) positive India ink stain.
D) identification of cysts in tissue.
Q2) Fur trappers and veterinarians are at an increased risk for this infection by being exposed to infected animals.The intermediate hosts of the organism, Echinococcus multilocularis, are:
A) foxes.
B) coyotes.
C) rodents.
D) humans.
Q3) Hydatid disease is associated with which tapeworm?
A) Taenia solium
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Echinococcus multilocularis
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Chapter 55: Intestinal Trematodes
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Q1) The intermediate host of the Platyhelminthes is freshwater:
A) fish.
B) snails.
C) crabs.
D) crayfish.
Q2) The Heterophyes heterophyes worm, which has a genital sucker that surrounds the genital pore, has a variety of reservoir hosts including dogs, cats, and birds and a second intermediate host of freshwater:
A) snails.
B) fish.
C) crabs.
D) shrimp.
Q3) The life-cycle stages of the intestinal trematodes after the eggs are shed from the body via feces is best described as:
A) cercariae, miracidium larva, metacercariae, and redia.
B) redia, metacercariae, cercariae, and miracidium larva.
C) miracidium larva, redia, cercariae, and metacercariae.
D) metacercariae, miracidium larva, cercariae, and redia.
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57
Chapter 56: Liver and Lung Trematodes
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Q1) Which second intermediate host ingests the cercariae of Clonorchis and Opisthorchis?
A) Snail
B) Crustacean
C) Copepod
D) Freshwater fish
Q2) The adult worm of Fasciola measures 2 to 5 cm by 0.8 to 1.3 cm with a cephalic cone at the anterior end that contains the oral sucker.The drug of choice to treat Fasciola infections is:
A) praziquantel.
B) bithionol.
C) albendazole.
D) benzimidazole.
Q3) Chinese liver fluke
A)Opisthorchis viverrini
B)Fasciola spp.
C)Clonorchis (Opisthorchis) sinensis
D)Paragonimus westermani
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Chapter 57: Blood Trematodes
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Q1) A large lateral spine is characteristic of which Schistosoma egg?
A) S. mansoni
B) S. japonicum
C) S. haematobium
D) S. mekongi
Q2) The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma haematobium range from 110 to 170 microns long by 40 to 70 microns wide and have a sharp, pointed terminal spine.In which specimen is this organism most likely found?
A) Ascites fluid
B) Sputum
C) Bile
D) Urine
Q3) Rodents, marsupials, and nonhuman primates are all reservoirs for which Schistosoma species?
A) S. japonicum
B) S. haematobium
C) S. mansoni
D) S. intercalatum
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Chapter 58: Overview of Fungal Identification Methods and Strategies
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Q1) A septate hyphae is microscopically observed using lactophenol cotton blue.Which organism can be ruled out as the cause of infection on the basis of this information?
A) Aspergillus
B) Bipolaris
C) Microsporum
D) Rhizopus
Q2) A 16-year-old male teenager is diagnosed with a fungal infection of his foot, which he acquired at the gym.This infection would most likely be classified as a(n)_______ mycosis.
A) superficial
B) subcutaneous
C) systemic
D) opportunistic
Q3) Which fungal media is ideal for the recovery of organisms such as Microsporum and Trichophyton?
A) Cornmeal agar with Tween 80
B) Niger seed agar
C) Cottonseed conversion agar
D) Mycosel agar
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Chapter 59: Hyaline Molds, Mucorales Zygomycetes,
Dermatophytes, and Opportunitistic and Systemic Mycoses
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Q1) Single bud connected to the parent cell by broad base
A)Blastomyces dermatitidis
B)Coccidioides immitis
C)Histoplasma capsulatum
D)Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E)Penicillium marneffei
F)Sporothrix schenckii
Q2) Which of the following Trichophyton spp.grows slowly (14 to 30 days)and best at 35° to 37° C? In addition, enriched media with thiamine and inositol enhance its growth.
A) T. verrucosum
B) T. tonsurans
C) T. rubrum
D) T. mentagrophytes
Q3) Which rapidly growing Aspergillus spp.(2 to 6 days)best describes a mold that produces a fluffy-to-granular, white-to-blue green colony?
A) A. niger
B) A. flavus
C) A. fumigatus
D) A. terreus
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Chapter 60: Dematiaceous Melanizedmolds
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Q1) Sinusitis
A)Exophiala jeanselmei
B)Pseudallescheria boydii
C)Piedraia hortae
D)Hortaea werneckii
E)Alternaria
Q2) Conidial heads with a sympodial arrangement of conidia exhibit primary conidia giving rise to secondary conidia.
A)Phialophora
B)Fonsecaea
C)Alternaria
D)Bipolaris
E)Cladosporium
F)Culvaria
G)Exophiala
Q3) Which dematiaceous fungus causes a condition known as chromoblastomycosis?
A) Pseudallescheria boydii
B) Hortaea werneckii
C) Phialophora spp.
D) Exophiala jeanselmei
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Chapter 61: Opportunistic Atypical Fungus: Pneumocystis
Jiroveci
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Q1) In patients who do not have HIV, which underlying condition is considered a risk factor for acquiring PCP?
A) Malaria
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Myasthenia gravis
Q2) The cell membrane of Pneumocystis jirovecii contains _______ rather than _______, which differentiates it from other fungi.
A) sterols; cholesterol
B) ergosterol; sterols
C) cholesterol; ergosterol
D) sitosterol; sterols
Q3) Which type of molecular assay has been developed to identify Pneumocystis jirovecii but is not yet available in commercial kits?
A) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
B) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Real-time polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
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Chapter 62: The Yeasts
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Q1) Creamy, white patches
A)Trichosporon spp.
B)Candida albicans
C)Malassezia furfur
D)Cryptococcus neoformans
Q2) Tinea versicolor is a skin infection characterized by superficial brownish scaly areas most often on the trunk, arms, or shoulders.Which type of replacement therapy places patients at risk for developing this type of skin infection?
A) Hormone
B) Lipid
C) Saccharide
D) Gene
Q3) A patient with leukemia is diagnosed with a Candida infection after receiving several doses of chemotherapy.The most likely yeast causing the infection is:
A) C. albicans.
B) C. parapsilosis.
C) C. tropicalis.
D) C. metapsilosis.
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64
Chapter 63: Anti-fungal Susceptibility Testing, Therapy, and Prevention
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Q1) Binds microtubular proteins
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with an invasive Aspergillosis infection.The antifungal therapy that should be administered is:
A) nystatin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) amphotericin B.
D) fluconazole.
Q3) Alters membrane permeability
A)Amphotericin B
B)Griseofulvin
C)5-Fluorocytosine
D)Echinocandin
E)Azole
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Chapter 64: Overview of the Methods and Strategies in Virology
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Q1) Nasopharyngeal
A)Varicella zoster virus
B)Enterovirus
C)Human papilloma virus (HPV)
D)Parainfluenza virus
E)CMV
Q2) The appropriate temperature in which to store specimens for viral isolation is ____º
C.
A) 4
B) 25
C) 30
D) 37
Q3) List these six steps of viral replication in order of appearance. Assembly
Uncoating
Attachment
Release
Synthesis
Penetration
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Chapter 65: Viruses in Human Disease
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Q1) This hemorrhagic fever causes disease in humans and nonhuman primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and monkeys.It is identified in the laboratory using which type of assay?
A) Immunodiffusion
B) Peptide nucleic acid fluorescence in situ hybridization (PNA-FISH)
C) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
D) Reverse-transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Q2) Kaposi sarcoma
A)Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1
B)HSV type 2
C)Zoster
D)Varicella
E)Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
F)CMV
G)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
Q3) Black vomit
A)Yellow fever
B)Dengue fever
C)West Nile virus
D)Hepatitis C
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Chapter 66: Antiviral Therapy, Susceptibility Testing, and Prevention
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Q1) Point mutations in the hemagglutination (HA)or neuraminidase (NA)genes during viral ribonucleoprotein (RNP)replication give rise to new strains.This mechanism is known as the antigenic:
A) drift.
B) shift.
C) re-assortment.
D) modification.
Q2) The recombinant virus assay (RVA)uses which type of amplification methodology?
A) Transcription-mediated amplification (TMA)
B) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
C) Strand displacement amplification (SDA)
D) Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR)
Q3) If a physician prescribes Tamiflu to a patient, the patient is most likely infected with which virus?
A) HIV
B) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
C) Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
D) Influenza
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Chapter 67: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) The possibility of an abscess should be considered if this bacterial group is isolated in the blood:
A) Clostridium septicum.
B) Bacteroides fragilis.
C) Streptococcus anginosus.
D) Aeromonas hydrophila.
Q2) The BACTEC automated blood culture system detects organisms by monitoring a rise in carbon dioxide (CO )levels using which type of sensor?
A) Fluorescence
B) Colorimetric
C) Isotopic
D) Saponin
Q3) Granulicatella spp.and Abiotrophia spp.are dependent on which nutritional additive for optimal growth?
A) Vitamin K
B) Vitamin B6
C) Vitamin B12
D) Vitamin D
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Chapter 68: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults, regardless of age, is:
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Q2) Evaluation of the quality of the sputum specimen sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture is best performed by:
A) measuring the amount of mucus found.
B) checking for mucus or blood.
C) microscopically examining the Gram-stained smear for leukocytes.
D) microscopically examining the Gram-stained smear for squamous epithelial cells.
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is detected as the most common agent of lower respiratory tract infection among:
A) previously healthy patients 2 months to 5 years of age.
B) adults younger than 30 years of age.
C) community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D) school-age children.
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Chapter 69: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) An inflammation of the nasal mucous membrane or lining caused mostly by viruses and characterized by fever, increased mucous secretions, inflammatory edema of the nasal mucosa, sneezing, and watery eyes is:
A) epiglottitis.
B) pharyngitis.
C) Vincent angina.
D) rhinitis.
Q2) Infection of the buccal (cheek)mucosa, tongue, or oropharynx by Candida spp.is: A) pharyngitis.
B) Vincent angina.
C) rhinitis.
D) thrush.
Q3) Most cases of pharyngitis occur during the colder months and are primarily caused by:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) viruses.
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
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Chapter 70: Meningitis, Encephalitis, and Other Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) The most common source(s)of infection in the central nervous system (CNS)is(are):
A) hematogenous spread.
B) infections at other sites such as otitis media.
C) organisms gaining access because of anatomic defects in CNS structures.
D) bacteria that are able to travel along nerves leading to the brain.
Q2) A collective term used for the three layers of membranes surrounding the brain and spinal column is the:
A) dura mater.
B) meninges.
C) arachnoid.
D) pia mater.
Q3) Specialized secretory cells centrally located in the brain in the third and fourth ventricles that produce CSF are called the:
A) choroid plexus.
B) ventricles.
C) meninges.
D) pia mater.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) Orbital cellulitis
A)Acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
Q2) Endophthalmitis
A)Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C)Staphylococcus aureus, S. pneumoniae, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E)Chlamydia
F)Actinomyces and Propionibacterium
G)S. aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Q3) The organism that can be encountered in the conjunctival sac and that exists as indigenous flora is:
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
B) Bacteroides fragilis.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Moraxella lacunata.
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Chapter 72: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Asymptomatic bacteriuria
A)Infection of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
B)Isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
C)Infection of the bladder
D)Dysuria, frequency, and urgency, but a specimen yielding fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture
E)Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
Q2) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the ______ tract.
A) digestive
B) upper respiratory
C) urinary
D) genital
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Chapter 73: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Large amounts of epithelial cells, many of which are covered by tiny gram-variable rods and coccobacilli, and the absence of inflammatory cells in vaginal discharge are signs of:
A) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B) bartholinitis.
C) cervicitis.
D) bacterial vaginosis.
Q2) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as:
A) endogenous infections.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) exogenous infections.
D) upper tract infections.
Q3) The predominant organism in vaginal secretions from normal women of reproductive age is:
A) lactobacilli.
B) Streptococcus agalactiae.
C) Enterobacteriaceae.
D) staphylococci.
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Chapter 74: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Stool received for routine culture in most clinical laboratories in the United States should be examined for the presence of at least:
A) Campylobacter, Salmonella, and Shigella spp.
B) Salmonella and Shigella spp.
C) Campylobacter and Vibrio spp.
D) Salmonella, Shigella, and Vibrio spp.
Q2) Gram-negative broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A) Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B) Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C) Inhibition of normal flora and selection of enteric pathogens
D) Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be incubated in:
A) a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C) regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D) a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
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Chapter 75: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a:
A) fistula.
B) sinus tract.
C) necrotizing fascia.
D) decubitus.
Q2) An abscess that begins as a red nodule in a hair follicle that ultimately becomes painful and full of pus is a:
A) folliculitis.
B) furuncle.
C) carbuncle.
D) erythrasma.
Q3) The most predominant anaerobe isolated in animal bites is:
A) Veillonella spp.
B) Clostridium spp.
C) Prevotella spp.
D) Fusobacterium spp.
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis accounting for approximately 70% of infections is:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) Haemophilus influenza.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus mitis.
Q2) Pericardial fluid may be inoculated in blood culture broth and processed as a blood culture, provided the broth contains which anticoagulant?
A) Heparin
B) Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)
C) Citrate
D) Coumadin
Q3) A 68-year-old man has an osteomyelitis infection as a result of bacteremia.The most common etiologic agent found in this infection is:
A) Haemophilus spp.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
D) Fusobacterium necrophorum.
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Chapter 77: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Introducing a continuous flow of events between steps of the process where continuous flow is possible
A)Value
B)Value stream
C)Flow
D)Pull
E)Continuous improvement
Q2) Examination and workup of a culture and interpretation of results by the microbiologist would pertain to which step in the quality assurance process?
A) Preanalytic
B) Analytic
C) Postanalytic
D) Analytic review
Q3) Clinicians should always be notified of "panic values," that is, potentially life-threatening results.An example of a panic value is a(n):
A) elevated thyroid level.
B) positive urine culture.
C) positive blood culture.
D) elevated sodium level.
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Chapter 78: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique that examines the ability of bacteriophages, which are viruses capable of infecting and lysing bacterial cells, to attack certain strains is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) bacteriocin typing.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q2) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is:
A) biotyping.
B) antibiograms.
C) serotyping.
D) bacteriophage typing.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when he or she entered the hospital is referred to as a(n)_____ infection.
A) autonomous
B) nosocomial
C) opportunistic
D) septic
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Chapter 79: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe the act of using:
A) horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B) microorganisms to harm the civilian population intentionally.
C) microorganisms to wage war in peacetime.
D) living beings to wage war in peacetime.
Q2) In the three-tier Laboratory Response Network, confirmed bioterrorism agents should be sent to which laboratory?
A) Clinical
B) Sentinel
C) Reference
D) National
Q3) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that a(n):
A) covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B) covert event is announced, and an overt event is not announced.
C) overt event is announced, and a covert event is not announced.
D) overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
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