Applied Microbiology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in industries such as healthcare, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. The course covers the roles of bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes in processes like fermentation, bioremediation, antibiotic production, and genetic engineering. Students will investigate microbial interactions with humans, animals, and the environment, and learn laboratory techniques essential for isolating, identifying, and utilizing microorganisms for various applications. Emphasis is placed on current challenges and innovations in applied microbiology, including the development of new microbial products and strategies to address global issues such as antimicrobial resistance and sustainable resource management.
Recommended Textbook
Living in a Microbial World 1st Edition by Bruce Hofkin
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Chapter 1: Living in a Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about a hypothesis is true?
A) A hypothesis is an explanation for a scientific phenomenon that has been repeatedly tested for many years and never disproved.
B) A hypothesis can never be disproved. It can only be proved.
C) A hypothesis is the initial observation of a natural phenomenon that leads to a question.
D) A hypothesis is the question that stems from the observation of a natural phenomenon.
E) A hypothesis is used to make a prediction about a future event that can later be observed or tested experimentally.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Most microorganisms have eukaryotic cells.
B) Most microorganisms have cells containing organelles.
C) Many microorganisms have cells in which the genetic material is not surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
D) Animals have prokaryotic cells.
E) Plant cells do not contain organelles.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) When two monosaccharides are joined together, ________ is formed through ________ synthesis.
A) a disaccharide; hydrolysis
B) a polysaccharide; hydrolysis
C) glucose; condensation
D) a disaccharide; condensation
E) starch; condensation
Answer: D
Q2) When one atom donates electrons and another atom accepts those electrons, a(n) ________ bond forms.
A) polar covalent
B) hydrogen bond
C) nonpolar covalent
D) ionic
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Cell: Where Life Begins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane phospholipids:
A) are highly hydrophobic.
B) are highly hydrophilic.
C) have hydrophobic phosphate heads and hydrophilic fatty acid tails.
D) have hydrophilic phosphate heads and hydrophobic fatty acid tails.
E) are found in prokaryotic, but not eukaryotic, cells.
Answer: D
Q2) Why is peptidoglycan such an attractive target for antibiotic drugs?
Answer: Almost all bacteria are protected from environmental hazards by a cell wall. Peptidoglycan is a key component of the cell wall, and it is especially abundant in Gram-positive bacteria. Antibiotics that interfere with peptidoglycan structure make affected cells vulnerable to various environmental hazards, such as an influx of water which can cause cell lysis. Peptidoglycan is a unique bacterial molecule, and therefore, antibiotics that interfere with peptidoglycan pose little risk to eukaryotic cells.
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Chapter 4: A Field Guide to the Microorganisms
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Q1) Which of the following is true about viral penetration?
A) All non-enveloped and enveloped viruses enter host cells via endocytosis.
B) All non-enveloped and enveloped viruses enter host cells via fusion.
C) All non-enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis. All enveloped viruses enter cells by fusion.
D) All non-enveloped viruses enter cells by fusion. All enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis.
E) Non-enveloped viruses enter cells by endocytosis. Some enveloped viruses also enter by endocytosis, while others enter by fusion.
Q2) The feeding and reproducing stage of many protozoa is known as a:
A) trophozoite.
B) cyst.
C) vector.
D) protista.
E) mastigophora.
Q3) How are rRNA genes used to deduce evolutionary relationships?
Q4) What are mycorrhizial relationships? Provide an example.
Q5) What is different about the synthesis stage in a plus- and a minus-strand RNA virus?
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Microbiology of History and the History of Microbiology
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Q1) The principle of attenuation discovered by Pasteur had important implications for:
A) antibiotic development.
B) vaccine development.
C) aseptic surgery.
D) pure culture technique.
E) the development of variolation as a defense against smallpox.
Q2) Which of the following diseases played the biggest part in defeating Napoleon in his attempt to conquer Russia?
A) typhus
B) typhoid
C) bubonic plague
D) malaria
E) smallpox
Q3) Which of the following is not a vector-borne disease?
A) bubonic plague
B) yellow fever
C) malaria
D) typhus
E) anthrax
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The uptake of naked DNA by some bacterial cells is called ________.
A) transduction
B) conjugation
C) an insertion
D) transformation
E) a point mutation
Q2) Identify and describe three distinct ways in which genetic recombination occurs in bacteria.
Q3) How does "proofreading" by DNA polymerase occur during DNA replication?
Q4) Which of the following mutations is most likely to prove beneficial to the cell experiencing the mutation?
A) samesense mutation
B) missense mutation
C) nonsense mutation
D) frameshift mutation
E) spontaneous mutation
Q5) Explain how RNA differs in structure from DNA.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Metabolism and Growth
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Q1) If the final electron acceptor is not present, which of the following still occurs?
A) the pumping of protons across a membrane
B) the production of ATP by the ATP synthase complex
C) the final oxidation of biological molecules in the Krebs cycle
D) the release of electrons to components of the electron transport chain by NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>
E) fermentation
Q2) In the presence of the final electron acceptor, what happens to the NADH that is producedin glycolysis?
A) It is further reduced in the Krebs Cycle.
B) It is oxidized in electron transport.
C) It is converted into pyruvate.
D) It is released as a metabolic waste product.
E) It is converted into FADH<sub>2</sub>.
Q3) When cells catabolize biological molecules for the purposes of ATP production, energy in the biological molecule is released in a large number of small steps, rather than in a single large step. Why is this necessary?
Q4) Describe how ATP is produced in electron transport.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Evolution: the Origin and Diversity of Life
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Q1) Which of the following is believed to be the correct sequence for the order in which the following metabolic processes evolved?
A) glycolysis » aerobic respiration » photosynthesis
B) photosynthesis » aerobic respiration » glycolysis
C) aerobic respiration » glycolysis » photosynthesis
D) photosynthesis » glycolysis » aerobic respiration
E) glycolysis » photosynthesis » aerobic respiration
Q2) It is believed that mitochondria were acquired by primitive eukaryotic cells before chloroplasts were. What is the evidence for this?
Q3) We might expect virulence of a particular human pathogen to decrease:
A) when opportunities for transmission are limited.
B) when opportunities for transmission are abundant.
C) when animal reservoirs for the pathogen are scarce.
D) in very large human populations, such as a large city.
E) when it uses insect vectors for transmission.
Q4) Explain the rationale for the "RNA world" hypothesis.
Q5) Why is it that natural selection can never result in organisms that are perfectly adapted to their environment?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: An Ecologists Guide to Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following processes directly require the activity of microorganisms?
A) release of organic carbon into the environment from animal and plant remains
B) absorption of sulfate from the environment by green plants
C) release of organic nitrogen into the environment by dead plants and animals
D) conversion of organic phosphorus in animal and plant remains into inorganic phosphorus
E) All of the above require microbial activity.
Q2) Which of the following statements about competition is true?
A) Compared to plants or animals, competition between microorganisms is a rare event.
B) The principle of competitive exclusion suggests that two organisms in competition will eventually reach a stable equilibrium, where both organisms can coexist and survive.
C) A commensial relationship is an example of competition.
D) If you take an environmental sample, and find numerous microbial species within that sample, it suggests that none of these species are in competition with each other.
E) Compared to animals and plants, the resolution of competition between microorganisms is rapid.
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Chapter 10: The Nature of Disease: a Pathogens Perspective
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Q1) What is the difference between biological vector transmission and mechanical vector transmission?
Q2) In a latent viral infection:
A) there is rapid viral replication in an infected cell.
B) there is slow viral replication in an infected cell.
C) there is no viral replication in an infected cell.
D) numerous inclusion bodies are visible in the cytoplasm of an infected cell.
E) we expect oncogenes to be activated, leading to tumor formation.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about endotoxins?
A) They all work in different ways.
B) They are all proteins.
C) They are only produced by Gram-negative bacteria.
D) They are only produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
E) They interfere with host ribosomes, blocking protein synthesis by host cells.
Q4) Why are symptoms in a host, such as diarrhea in the case of intestinal disease, or sneezing and coughing in the case of respiratory disease, beneficial from the perspective of some pathogens that cause these diseases?
Q5) How does our normal flora protect us from some infections by pathogens?
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Chapter 11: Host Defense
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Q1) Which of the following cell types can be considered to be part of the innate immune system?
A) red blood cells
B) neutrophils
C) helper T cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) B cells
Q2) Which antibody type is usually produced in the greatest amount during a humoral reponse?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
E) IgG
Q3) In what way can the fever response be used to illustrate the point that response to pathogens can both be protective and harmful?
Q4) Describe how cells of the innate immune system activate the adaptive immune system under certain circumstances.
Q5) How does HIV reduce immune function?
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Chapter 12: Control of Microbial Growth
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Q1) If the number of microorganisms must be reduced in a beverage that cannot be subjected to high temperatures, ________ would be an effective control method.
A) pasteurization
B) autoclaving
C) filtration
D) the addition of heavy metals
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Selective toxicity is harder to achieve when developing drugs against eukaryotic pathogens than it is against bacteria.
B) Compared to antibiotics, antifungal drugs usually have limited side effects.
C) To date, drug resistance has not been a problem with antimalarial drugs.
D) Drugs against eukaryotic pathogens generally act by interfering with ribosomes.
E) An advantage of most drugs against eukaryotic pathogens is that they tend to be extremely narrow spectrum.
Q3) In what situations would UV radiation be an appropriate method for microbial control?
Q4) What are some of the problems associated with the development of antiviral drugs?
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Chapter 13: Epidemiology: Who, What, When, Where, and Why
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Q1) How can a vaccine program prevent epidemics?
Q2) The incidence of disease:
A) is the total number of cases of a particular disease during an epidemic.
B) is calculated by subtracting the number of recovered individuals from the number of sick individuals.
C) is the number of new cases of a particular disease during a specified time period.
D) is the period of time measured in days, weeks, or years, during which an epidemic occurs.
E) is the average number of new cases infected by a single sick individual for a specific disease.
Q3) In which of the following types of viruses is antigenic shift most likely?
A) RNA viruses
B) DNA viruses
C) enveloped viruses
D) non-enveloped viruses
E) viruses with a segmented genome
Q4) Describe the design of a case-control study and how it is used to identify the cause of an epidemic.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Future Is Here: Microorganisms and Biotechnology
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Q1) The sequencing of the human genome has shown us that:
A) the number of genes in the human genome is much smaller than previously thought.
B) the number of genes in the human genome is much larger than previously thought.
C) the number of genes in the human genome is about the same number as previously thought.
D) the DNA of humans is much different from that of even our closest nonhuman ancestors.
Q2) Southern blotting can be used to:
A) insert donor DNA into recipient DNA.
B) determine if a specific gene is present in a DNA molecule.
C) separate DNA fragments based on size.
D) make many copies of a particular gene.
E) determine the exact nucleotide sequence in a DNA molecule.
Q3) One of the concerns about genetically modified plants is how they might affect wild plants. In what way? Why is this worrisome?
Q4) What exactly is a DNA library? What is a genomic library?
Q5) What is the polymerase chain reaction? Briefly state how it works.
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Chapter 15: Guess Whos Coming to Dinner: Microorganisms and
Food
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Q1) In what way is the production of vinegar different from the production of the fermented food products discussed in this chapter?
Q2) If you make homemade wine, which of the following accurately describes the relationship between sweetness and alcohol content?
A) The sweeter the wine, the higher the alcohol content.
B) The sweeter the wine, the lower the alcohol content.
C) The dryer the wine, the lower the alcohol content.
D) There is no specific relationship between sweetness and alcohol content.
Q3) Provide a biochemical explanation for why bread rises during its production.
Q4) When baking bread, all of the following steps occur. In which answer are the steps presented in the correct order?
A) yeast is kneaded into dough » loaf is baked » yeast ferments » bread rises
B) loaf is baked » yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments » bread rises
C) yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments » loaf is baked » bread rises
D) loaf is baked » bread rises » yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments
E) yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments » bread rises » loaf is baked
Q5) Microbial fermentation only occurs under certain environmental conditions. Why, in terms of metabolism, do these organisms ferment under such conditions?
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Chapter 16: Better Living With Microorganisms: Industrial and Applied Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of an extremozyme?
A) a microorganism that is isolated from a very hot, thermal pool of water
B) the Taq polymerase, isolated from Thermus aquaticus, which is used in PCR
C) a cellulase enzyme, which can digest cellulose, used in a stain remover
D) a biopesticide used to control insect pests in the garden
E) a microorganism used in nanotechnology
Q2) Some bacteria release electrons, which can then be bound to an electrode, generating electricity. This process may be used:
A) to produce cellulosic ethanol.
B) to produce biodegradable plastics.
C) to create microbial fuel cells.
D) to separate valuable minerals from rock deposits.
E) as a biologically produced hydrocarbon.
Q3) The easiest step when it comes to developing a new antibiotic is:
A) finding a microorganism that produces an antibiotic.
B) determining the optimum growth conditions for the microorganism in question.
C) the scale-up process.
D) improving the bacterial strain so that commercially valuable quantities of the antibiotic are produced.
Page 18
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