Applied Microbiology Exam
Bank
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in various fields such as medicine, agriculture, industry, and environmental management. The course covers microbial physiology, genetics, and ecology, focusing on how bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes are harnessed for beneficial applications. Students will learn about topics including fermentation technology, bioremediation, food and beverage production, biotechnology, and the development of antibiotics and vaccines. Emphasis is placed on laboratory techniques used to identify, manipulate, and utilize microbes, as well as on current trends and innovations in microbial applications that address real-world challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by
Gerard J. Tortora
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28 Chapters
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1820 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is A)microbe.
B)bacterium.
C)virus.
D)pathogen.
E)infection.
Answer: D
Q2) Recombinant DNA refers to the A)study of bacterial ribosomes.
B)study of the function of genes.
C)interaction between human and bacterial cells.
D)synthesis of proteins from genes.
E)DNA resulting when genes from one organism are inserted into another organism. Answer: E
Q3) Biogenesis refers to the
A)spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.
B)development of life forms from preexisting life forms.
C)development of aseptic technique.
D)germ theory of disease.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of molecule is composed of (CH O)units?
A)carbohydrate
B)lipid
C)nucleic acid
D)protein
Answer: A
Q2) Radioisotopes are frequently used to label molecules in a cell.The fate of atoms and molecules in a cell can then be followed.Assume Saccharomyces cerevisiae is grown in a nutrient medium containing the radioisotope ³²P.After a 48-hour incubation,the majority of the ³²P would be found in the S.cerevisiae's
A)plasma membrane.
B)cell wall.
C)water.
D)proteins.
E)carbohydrates.
Answer: A
Q3) Carbon dioxide is an organic molecule.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resolution of a microscope can be improved by changing the A)condenser.
B)fine adjustment.
C)wavelength of light.
D)diaphragm.
E)coarse adjustment.
Answer: C
Q2) You are performing a Gram stain on gram-positive bacteria and you stop after the addition of the first dye.What is the appearance of the bacteria at this point?
A)purple
B)red
C)colorless
D)brown
Answer: A
Q3) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain,they will stain gram-negative.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q2) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell?
A)metachromatic granules
B)organelles
C)the plasma membrane
D)ribosomes
E)the plasma membrane and organelles
Q3) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells?
A)Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
B)They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
C)They typically have a circular chromosome.
D)They reproduce by binary fission.
E)They lack a plasma membrane.
Q4) What is a biofilm and what role does biofilm play in disease?
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) The rates of O and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6.Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O .Then O was added at the time marked X.The data indicate that A)these bacteria don't use O .
B)these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.
C)aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation. D)these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.
Q2) What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q3) If a cell is starved for ATP,which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down?
A)Krebs cycle
B)glycolysis
C)pentose phosphate pathway
D)Krebs cycle and glycolysis
Q4) Explain the overall purpose of metabolic pathways.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an organic growth factor?
A)glucose
B)vitamin B1
C)peptone
D)Mg ²
E)H O
Q2) For the three types of media in Table 6.1,which medium (or media)is/are chemically defined?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)A and B
E)A and C
Q3) The biosafety level (BSL)for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens,such as tuberculosis bacteria,is
A)BSL-1.
B)BSL-2.
C)BSL-3.
D)BSL-4.
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Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ethylene oxide
A)is a good antiseptic.
B)is not sporicidal.
C)requires high heat to be effective.
D)is a sterilizing agent.
E)is the active chemical in household bleach.
Q2) HEPA filters are effective because they are designed to remove all airborne particulates,including microorganisms down to
A)0.01 micrometers.
B)0.3 micrometers.
C)1 micrometer.
D)10 micrometers.
E)10 nanometers.
Q3) In Figure 7.1,the thermal death point for this culture is
A)15 minutes.
B)50°C.
C)30 minutes.
D)170°C.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided
Q4) How is hydrogen peroxide antimicrobial?
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 8.2.If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine,the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is
A)5' ACAGTTTCAAT 3'.
B)5' TCTGCAAAGTTA 3'.
C)3' UGUGCAAAGUUA 5'.
D)3' UCUCGAAAGUUA 5'.
E)3' TCACGUUUCAAU 5'.
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)DNA polymerase - makes a molecule of DNA from a DNA template
B)RNA polymerase - makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template
C)DNA ligase - joins segments of DNA
D)transposase - cuts DNA backbone,leaving "sticky ends"
E)DNA gyrase - relaxes supercoiling in DNA ahead of the replication fork
Q3) Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE?
A)The genes coding for them are on plasmids.
B)They cause food-poisoning symptoms.
C)They can be used to identify certain bacteria.
D)Bacteriocins kill bacteria.
Q4) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because A)the DNA primer is specific to particular target DNA sequences.
B)DNA polymerase will replicate any bacterial DNA.
C)DNA can be electrophoresed.
D)all cells have DNA.
E)all cells have RNA.
Q2) A restriction fragment is A)a gene.
B)a segment of DNA.
C)a segment of mRNA.
D)a segment of tRNA.
E)cDNA.
Q3) Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants?
A)gene guns
B)protoplast fusion
C)Ti plasmids and Agrobacterium
D)microinjection
E)electroporation
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Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing phage typing to identify an unknown bacterium,you must have ________ in your possession.
A)DNA that will hybridize to the DNA of the bacterium to be identified
B)RNA that will hybridize to the RNA of the bacterium to be identified
C)antiserum containing antibodies that will bind to the bacterium to be identified
D)fluorescent molecules that will light up when bound to the DNA of the bacterium
E)viruses that will specifically infect the bacterium you're trying to identify
Q2) Data collected to date indicate that
A)humans and marine mammals cannot be infected by the same pathogens.
B)marine mammals do not get infectious diseases.
C)new species of bacteria will not be discovered in wild animals.
D)marine mammals don't have an immune system.
E)None of the answers is correct.
Q3) How are a Southern blot and fluorescent in situ hybridization similar and different from each other? What are the pros and cons of each method for identification of microorganisms?
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Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the rationale for using molecular data for classification,in the place of morphology.
Q2) Which of the following bacteria is gram-positive?
A)Pseudomonas
B)Salmonella
C)Streptococcus
D)Bacteroides
E)Rickettsia
Q3) All of the following bacteria are motile.Which does NOT have flagella?
A)Escherichia
B)Spirillum
C)Pseudomonas
D)spirochetes
E)Salmonella
Q4) Which one of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others?
A)Bacillus
B)Escherichia
C)Lactobacillus
D)Staphylococcus
E)Streptococcus
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Chapter 12: The Eukaryotes: Fungi, algae, protozoa, and
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms,tapeworms,and flukes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) West Nile Virus is transmitted by mosquitoes as they take a blood meal.Flies can also transmit pathogens,but not in the process of taking a blood meal.Differentiate the ways in which flies and mosquitoes acquire and transmit infectious agents,and suggest 1-2 ways in which these methods might be disrupted.
Q3) The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders,ticks,mosquitoes,and lice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?
A)Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.
B)Lichens represent a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and an alga.
C)Lichens are often the first life form to colonize rock or soil.
D)The algal partner produces carbohydrates that are absorbed by the fungal partner.
E)The fungal partner provides a means of attachment and protects the algal partner from desiccation.
Q5) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss why viruses are considered infectious "particles" on the borderline between living and non-living.
Q2) What is NOT true regarding viruses that infect plants?
A)They can spread via pollination.
B)They must enter through a wound or be introduced by an inset feeding.
C)They can sometimes be cultured in insect cells.
D)They are often cultured in embryonated chicken eggs.
E)They are morphologically similar to animal viruses.
Q3) Viruses are the only known infectious agents that are obligatory intracellular parasites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Binomial nomenclature is used to name viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A segmented genome can result in antigenic shift.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher has performed a prospective study on a disease.To which specific kind of epidemiological study is this referring?
A)analytical
B)case control
C)descriptive
D)experimental
E)prodromal
Q2) Both normal and transient flora can become opportunistic pathogens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
A)using syringes more than once
B)normal microbiota on the operating room staff
C)errors in aseptic technique
D)antibiotic resistance
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) A researcher only needs to select a cohort group when implementing an analytical epidemiological study.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonpathogenic Vibrio cholerae can acquire the cholera toxin gene by A)phagocytosis.
B)lysogenic conversion.
C)conjugation.
D)transformation.
E)infecting a pathogenic Vibrio cholerae.
Q2) A retired contract administrator who enjoyed gardening sought medical attention for what appeared to be a sinus infection.He received antimicrobials but the conditioned worsened and he was experiencing severe painful spasms in his jaw.He admitted to injuring himself with a gardening tool while wearing sandals in the yard but did not seek medical attention for the wound.The man is likely experiencing A)septic shock.
B)LPS-mediated inflammatory response.
C)intoxication caused by a focal C.tetani infection.
D)allergic rhinitis.
E)meningitis.
Q3) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins.Why are exotoxins more potent than endotoxins?
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT
A)multiple layers of cells.
B)tears.
C)saliva.
D)HCl.
E)the "ciliary escalator."
Q2) The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid
A)returns to the blood.
B)goes into lymph capillaries.
C)is excreted in urine.
D)is lost as perspiration.
E)is transported into macrophages.
Q3) Describe the nonspecific antimicrobial effects of mucus,lysozyme,and acidic pH.For each of these substances,list where they are found in the body and how they function in fighting pathogens.
Q4) Complement proteins in their intact and nonactivated form act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Cytokines released by TH1 cells
A)activate CD8 cells to CTLs.
B)convert TH1 cells to TH2 cells.
C)convert TH2 cells to TH1 cells.
D)directly kill parasites.
E)convert B cells to T cells.
Q2) Which of the following statements about natural killer cells is FALSE?
A)They destroy virus-infected cells.
B)They destroy tumor cells.
C)They destroy cells lacking MHC I.
D)They are stimulated by an antigen.
E)None of the answers are correct;all of these statements are true.
Q3) The importance of M cells concerns
A)facilitation of contact between antigens in the intestinal tract and the immune system.
B)presentation of epitopes in MHCII molecules.
C)having microvilli to facilitate antigen capture.
D)preventing damage to adaptive immune system cells.
E)ability to migrate along the intestinal tract.
Q4) Describe the production of antibodies using the clonal selection theory.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?
A)agglutination
B)complement fixation
C)neutralization
D)indirect ELISA
E)direct fluorescent-antibody
Q2) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A)substrate for the enzyme
B)antigen
C)antihuman immune serum
D)antibodies against the antigen
Q3) A patient's serum,Mycobacterium,guinea pig complement,sheep red blood cells,and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube.What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium?
A)Bacteria fluoresce.
B)Hemagglutination occurs.
C)Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.
D)Hemolysis occurs.
E)No hemolysis occurs.
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Detecting HIV antibodies during HIV infection
A)is not possible due to immunosuppression during infection.
B)is used to diagnose infection.
C)is possible after a few weeks after infection.
D)is possible after a few weeks and is used to diagnose infection.
E)can occur during phase 2 and 3 of infection.
Q2) Which of the following is the least likely vaccine against HIV?
A)attenuated virus
B)glycoprotein
C)protein core
D)subunit
E)All of these vaccines are equally likely.
Q3) Which of the terms regarding treatments after transplantation of an organ is mismatched?
A)cyclosporine-suppression of B cells.
B)cyclosporine- kidney toxicity.
C)sirolimus-inhibit cell mediated and humoral immunity.
D)basiliximab-chimeric monoclonal.
E)tacrolimus-suppression of IL-2 secretion.
Q4) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because
A)bacteria from other animals replace those killed by the antibiotics.
B)the few surviving bacteria that are affected by the antibiotics develop immunity to the antibiotics,which they pass on to their progeny.
C)the antibiotics cause new mutations to occur in the surviving bacteria,which results in resistance to antibiotics.
D)the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria,but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce,and their progeny repopulate the host animal.
E)the antibiotics persist in soil and water.
Q2) Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis.
B)Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis.
C)Amantadine inhibits the release of viral nucleic acid.
D)Interferon inhibits glycolysis.
E)Azoles inhibit plasma membrane synthesis.
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Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Describe the protective characteristics of the skin and mucus membranes and the ways pathogens may circumvent these to cause infections.
Q2) The majority of the staphylococci isolated from human skin are coagulase-positive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following cause(s)ringworm?
A)Microsporum
B)Epidermophyton
C)Mycobacterium
D)Microsporum and Epidermophyton
E)Microsporum,Epidermophyton,and Mycobacterium
Q4) Which of the following is used to treat candidiasis of the skin or mucous membranes?
A)penicillin
B)sulfonamide
C)trifluridine
D)miconazole
E)acyclovir
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) Arboviruses cause ________ and are transmitted by ________.
A)meningitis;bee stings
B)meningitis;mosquitoes
C)encephalitis;dog bites
D)encephalitis;mosquitoes
E)both meningitis and encephalitis;mosquitoes
Q2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A)tetanus - releases potent neurotoxin
B)botulism - stimulates transmission of nerve impulse
C)poliomyelitis - multiplication of virus occurs in throat and small intestine
D)rabies virus - destroys cells of the CNS
E)leprosy - deformation of nose and hands can occur
Q3) Bacterial meningitis is much more common than viral meningitis and tends to cause a milder form of disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There is an antitoxin for botulism.Why,then,is the outcome of botulism often fatal?
Q5) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the Salk and Sabin vaccines.
Q6) Explain the transmission and etiology of meningococcal meningitis.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Compare and contrast the diseases plague,Lyme disease,and Rocky Mountain spotted fever.Include the causative agents,vectors,reservoirs,symptoms and treatments in your answer.
Q2) Humans are not the normal hosts for Ixodes and Xenopsylla.How,then,do humans contract Lyme disease and plague?
Q3) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT A)plague.
B)epidemic typhus.
C)endemic murine typhus.
D)Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E)relapsing fever.
Q4) Worldwide,which disease is the most serious public health threat: malaria,Chagas' disease,or brucellosis? Explain why,and provide a plan to reduce the incidence of the disease.
Q5) Yellow fever and chikungunya fever are not currently endemic in the United States.Is it possible that they could become established in the future? What factors would play a role? Be sure to include a comparison of the causative agents and vectors in your answer.
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Soil is a reservoir for the pathogen for all of the following diseases EXCEPT A)Q fever.
B)melioidosis.
C)blastomycosis.
D)histoplasmosis.
E)coccidioidomycosis.
Q2) All of the following are classified as fungi EXCEPT
A)Blastomyces.
B)Coccidioides.
C)Histoplasma.
D)Mycobacterium.
E)Pneumocystis.
Q3) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia,also known as "walking pneumonia."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using diphtheria and whooping cough as examples,discuss why it is necessary to continue to vaccinate against diseases that are relatively rare in the U.S.today.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) A young child received a red-eared slider turtle as a birthday gift.Within a week the child was suffering from a severe gastroenteritis that required a visit to urgent care.What is the child likely suffering from?
A)salmonellosis
B)Campylobacter infection
C)shigellosis
D)hepatitis A infection
E)cholera
Q2) Bacterial infections,but not intoxications,can cause diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria.The bacteria probably belong to the genus
A)Campylobacter jejuni.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Salmonella Typhi.
D)Shigella spp.
E)Vibrio cholerae.
Q4) Discuss why cholera epidemics are often associated with floods.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Leukocytes at the infected site are a symptom of A)Gardnerella vaginosis.
B)genital herpes.
C)candidiasis.
D)trichomoniasis.
E)lymphogranuloma venereum.
Q2) A positive LE test and greater than 100 CFU/ml of a single species in urine indicates A)cystitis.
B)gonorrhea.
C)urethritis.
D)pyelonephritis.
E)genital herpes.
Q3) Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by A)Escherichia coli.
B)Enterococcus.
C)Proteus.
D)Klebsiella.
E)Pseudomonas.
Q4) Why are the unreported cases of STIs an important public health concern?
28
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate set of terms.In a(n)________ sludge digester,________ bacteria decrease organic solids by degrading them.
A)activated;benthic
B)sedimentation;suspended
C)tertiary;Zooglea
D)anaerobic;methane-producing
E)aerobic;hydrogen-gas producing.
Q2) 6H S + 6CO \(\stackrel { l i g h t } { \longrightarrow }\) 6S + glucose
A)takes place under aerobic conditions.
B)takes place under anaerobic conditions.
C)The amount of oxygen does not make any difference.
Q3) Which of the following is mismatched?
A)CO + 4H CH + 2H O - Methane-producing bacteria
B)2 NO + O 2 NO - Nitrobacter
C)6CO + 6H O C H O + 6O - Clostridium
D)N + 6H 2NH - Beijerinckia
E)SO ² + 10H H S + 4H O - Desulfovibrio
Q4) A newspaper headline reported "Algal Bloom Kills Fish." What actually caused fish death,given that the algae were not toxic? What could have caused the algal bloom?
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What process does yeast use to produce ethanol for automobile fuel from corn?
A)anaerobic respiration
B)fermentation
C)the Krebs cycle
D)oxidation
E)photosynthesis
Q2) You are growing Bacillus subtilis,an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out fermentation,when required,in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and the pH has decreased.You suspect the bacteria are
A)using the Krebs cycle.
B)fermenting.
C)photosynthesizing.
D)using proteins.
E)dead.
Q3) Which of the following microbes produces a natural biopesticide?
A)Penicillium chryssogenum
B)Saccharomyces cerevisiae
C)Bacillus thuringiensis
D)Lactobacillus buggaricus
E)Thiobacillus ferroxidans
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