Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Applied Microbiology explores the practical uses of microorganisms in areas such as industry, medicine, agriculture, and environmental management. The course covers the fundamental biology of bacteria, fungi, viruses, and other microbes, emphasizing their roles in fermentation, biotechnology, pharmaceutical production, waste treatment, bioremediation, and food safety. Topics also include microbial physiology, genetics, and methods for the detection and control of pathogens. Students will gain an understanding of both traditional and modern microbiological techniques and their applications in solving real-world problems.
Recommended Textbook
Prescotts Microbiology 10th Edition By
Joanne Willey
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Evolution of Microorganisms and Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student is observing microorganisms in a sample of pond water.One organism of interest has an obvious nucleus,small oval structures containing a green pigment,and does not appear to be motile.In which of the following groups would this microbe most likely be classified?
A)Eukaryotes (Fungi)
B)Eukaryotes (Algae)
C)Bacteria
D)Archaea
E)Eukaryotes (Protozoa)
Answer: B
Q2) Viruses and bacteria were first cultured in the laboratory at about the same time. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Fanny Hesse first suggested that agar be used to solidify microbiological media.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Microscopy
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Q1) In the Gram-staining procedure,the decolorizer is
A)iodine.
B)safranin.
C)crystal violet.
D)ethanol or acetone.
Answer: D
Q2) In order to view a specimen with a total magnification of 400*,a __________ objective must be used if the ocular is *.
Answer: 40 *
Q3) If immersion oil was replaced with water,what would happen?
A)The refractive index would increase,improving resolution.
B)The refractive index of water would be greater than air but less than oil,improving resolution less than oil.
C)The refractive index of water would be less than that of air,decreasing resolution.
D)There would be no difference.
Answer: B
Q4) The __________ is the point at which a lens focuses parallel beams of light. Answer: focal point
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Chapter 3: Bacterial Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe bacteria that are rod-shaped is A)coccus.
B)bacillus.
C)vibrio.
D)coccobacillus.
Answer: B
Q2) Sterol-like molecules called hopanoids are thought to be important for the structural integrity of many bacteria because of their suspected role in membrane stabilization.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Proteins that are loosely associated with the cytoplasmic membrane are called __________ proteins.
A)peripheral
B)integral
C)external
D)internal
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Archaeal Cell Structure
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Q1) The DNA of some archaeons is stabilized by association with archaeal histone proteins forming particles resembling eukaryotic nucleosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some archaeal cells lack a cell wall.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cell walls of most Archaea and bacteria contain peptidoglycan.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Archaeal flagella are superficially similar to bacterial flagella,although archaeal flagella are much thicker than bacterial flagella.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Archaeal cell walls
A)are disrupted by treatment with lysozyme or penicillin.
B)are similar to those of gram-negative bacteria.
C)lack murein and D-amino acids.
D)include orthomureine.
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Chapter 5: Eukaryotic Cell Structure
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Q1) Protein filaments with a diameter of 4-7 nm that play a role in cell movement and shape change are called A)microtubules.
B)microfilaments.
C)intermediate filaments. D)mycelia.
Q2) Coated pits containing clathrin do not permit concentration of ingested macromolecules prior to endocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is useful in distinguishing between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A)The use of DNA for the storage of genetic information
B)The presence of ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins
C)The presence of membrane-delimited organelles within the cytoplasm
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The __________ is a complex structure or set of structures lying beneath the plasma membrane of many protozoa and some algae,which serves as a supportive mechanism for these cells.
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Chapter 6: Viruses and Other Acellular Infectious Agents
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Q1) Viruses infecting protists,including algae,have never been detected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The production of cholera toxin by virulent strains of Vibrio cholera is dependent upon genes in a bacteriophage.This is an example of A)lysogenic conversion.
B)induction.
C)bacterial transformation.
D)transduction.
Q3) Bacterial viruses are so named because they have prokaryotic cell structures similar to their bacterial hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true of viruses?
A)Viruses are acellular.
B)Viruses consist of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat of protein and sometimes in other more complex layers.
C)Viruses can exist in two phases: intracellular and extracellular.
D)Viruses replicate by binary fission.
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Chapter 7: Microbial Growth
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Q1) The purpose of the penicillin binding proteins is to link phospholipids together in the cellular membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a continuous culture system,the rate at which media is added and removed is called the __________ rate.
A)dilution
B)chemostatic
C)pass-through
D)flow-through
Q3) Organisms that require increased pressure for optimum growth are called A)barotolerant.
B)osmotolerant.
C)barophilic.
D)osmophilic.
Q4) The site at which replication of DNA starts in bacterial cells is known as the __________ of ___________.
Q5) Macroscopically visible growths or clusters of microorganisms on solid media are called __________.
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Chapter 8: Control of Microorganisms in the Environment
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Q1) Heavy metals are effective antimicrobial agents but are not widely used because of their high toxicity to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When comparing dry heat and moist heat sterilization,dry heat is A)faster.
B)slower.
C)equally as fast.
D)sometimes faster but sometimes slower.
Q3) The higher the phenol coefficient value,the _______ effective the disinfectant under the test conditions.
Q4) Which of the following is/are advantages of using bacteriophage to treat human bacterial infections?
A)Bacteriophage can kill the bacteria.
B)Bacteriophage will not cause disease or harm humans.
C)Bacteriophage are very specific for the target bacteria and won't affect normal microbiota.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) An agent that kills bacteria is referred to as __________.
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Chapter 9: Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) In a disk diffusion assay for drug susceptibility,a drug producing a larger clear zone is always more effective than a drug than to one producing a smaller clear zone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most selective antibacterial agents are those that interfere with bacterial cell wall synthesis.This is because
A)bacterial cell walls have a unique structure not found in eukaryotic host cells.
B)bacterial cell wall synthesis is easily inhibited whereas eukaryotic cell wall synthesis is more resistant to the actions of the drugs.
C)eukaryotic cells do not take up the drugs.
D)eukaryotic cells inactivate the drugs before they can do any damage.
Q3) The minimal lethal concentration (MLC)is the
A)lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.
B)highest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.
C)lowest concentration of a drug that kills a particular pathogen.
D)highest concentration of a drug that kills a particular pathogen.
Q4) A(n)__________ is a drug that blocks the function of a metabolic pathway.
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11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) In an ATP molecule,the phosphates are bonded to the adenine ring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some endergonic reactions can be made to proceed forward if they are coupled to hydrolysis of one or more of the phosphates of ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The equilibrium constant for a redox reaction is called the standard reduction potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Consider a biochemical pathway with five steps that lead to the production of product Q.If there is an abundance of product Q,the most efficient way to slow down the entire pathway would be to regulate _____________________.
A)the first enzyme in the pathway
B)the last enzyme in the pathway
C)every enzyme in the pathway
Q5) __________ reactions capture energy from the organisms' energy source.
Q6) RNA molecules that have catalytic activity are known as ____________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Catabolism: Energy Release and Conservation
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Q1) The substances that donate electrons to the electron transport chains of chemolithotrophs are ___________.
A)carbohydrates
B)inorganic compounds
C)lipids
D)methane gas and alcohols
Q2) How is ATP produced during fermentation?
A)Cyclic phosphorylation
B)Substrate-level phosphorylation
C)Oxidative phosphorylation
D)Use of proton motive force to drive ATP synthase
E)Chemosynthetic phosphorylation
Q3) The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex oxidizes and cleaves pyruvate to form one CO<sub>2</sub> and A)lactate.
B)isocitric acid.
C)acetyl-CoA.
D)succinyl-CoA.
Q4) __________ pathways are those that function both catabolically and anabolically.
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Q5) TCA cycle enzymes are found in the _____________ _________ of eukaryotic cells.
Chapter 12: Anabolism: the Use of Energy in Biosynthesis
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Q1) In the biosynthesis of nucleotides,pyrimidines are assembled starting with ribose-5-phosphate while ribose-5-phosphate is added after synthesis of the nitrogenous base for purines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Phosphorous is usually assimilated by microorganisms as ______.
A)polyphosphate (volutin)
B)phosphene
C)elemental phosphate (P<sup>o</sup>)
D)phosphate
Q3) The reduction of sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration is called __________ sulfate reduction.
A)assimilatory
B)dissimilatory
C)amodulatory
D)demodulatory
Q4) A pyrimidine or purine base that has been joined with a ribose or deoxyribose sugar moiety is now termed a _____.
Q5) Unsaturated fatty acids are those containing carbon-carbon ________ bonds.
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genome Replication and Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) During transcription elongation,how many pyrophosphate molecules are produced from the incorporation of 20 ribonucleoside monophosphates?
A)20
B)40
C)60
D)5
Q2) Which enzyme is a topoisomerase?
A)DNA gyrase
B)DNA ligase
C)DNA polymerase I
D)DNA polymerase III
Q3) By using enzymes that destroyed DNA,RNA,or protein,Avery and colleagues were able to determine which of the three molecules was required to transform bacterial cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bacterial chromosomes,unlike eukaryotic chromosomes,often consist of a single replicon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Regulation of Bacterial Cellular Processes
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Q1) In which situation might methylation of membrane proteins in Escherichia coli initiate a phosphorelay system that evokes clockwise rotation of flagella?
A)Presence of a chemorepellent in the extracellular environment.
B)Change in environmental osmotic pressure.
C)Utilization of lactose due during diauxic growth.
D)Cellular population reaches a quorum.
Q2) Which is a false statement regarding riboswitches?
A)Riboswitches are regions in the 5' untranslated leader of an mRNA.
B)The effector molecules that bind to riboswitches are proteins.
C)When the effector binds the riboswitch,it may serve to terminate transcription of its target mRNA.
D)When the effector binds the riboswitch,it may serve to continue transcription of its target mRNA.
Q3) Which of the following is not a regulatory mechanism used to control the tryptophan operon in Escherichia coli?
A)Repression
B)Catabolite repression
C)Attenuation
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 15: Eukaryotic and Archaeal Genome Replication and
Expression
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Q1) The transcribed,but not translated,sequence that is immediately upstream of the region that encodes the functional product is called the __________ region.
A)leader
B)promoter
C)coding
D)trailer
Q2) The majority of control elements for regulation of cellular processes in eukaryotes and archaea occurs at the level of _____ initiation. or
Q3) A bacterial __________ is the nontranscribed region of the DNA to which RNA polymerase binds in order to initiate transcription.
A)operon
B)operator
C)promoter
D)initiator
Q4) Splicing of eukaryotic heteronuclear RNA is catalyzed by ________.
Q5) A DNA site called a _____ is the binding location for a transcriptional repressor.
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Chapter 16: Mechanisms of Genetic Variation
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Q1) The __________ __________ is the most prevalent form of a gene in a population.
Q2) A public health microbiologist plans to screen a particular bacterial species that was isolated from several patients in an intensive care unit to detect if any of the cells are penicillin-resistant mutants.What is the first step in conducting this experiment?
A)Determine whether or not wild type cells of the same bacterial species are susceptible to penicillin.
B)Test the cells to see if they can grow on media to which penicillin has been added.
C)Perform an antibiotic susceptibility test on the cells using antibiotics other than penicillin that are known to be effective.
D)Set up an Ames test to see if any of the isolates are mutagenic.
Q3) An insertion sequence is distinguishable from other mobile genetic elements because
A)it is smallest.
B)it encodes a transposase.
C)it is highly complex.
D)it is composed of DNA.
Q4) __________ are physical or chemical agents that cause mutation.
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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) In order to express eukaryotic genes in a bacterium,the __________ must first be removed.
A)introns
B)exons
C)enhancers
D)3' poly A sequence
Q2) Which of the following techniques exemplifies phenotypic rescue in a host cell?
A)Introducing a genomic library from a cell that produces a particular gene product into a mutant host cell auxotroph that cannot synthesize the product.
B)Introducing a genomic library from a mutant cell auxotroph for a particular gene product into a host cell that can synthesize that product constitutively.
C)Removing genes that encode a particular gene product from a cell that expresses that product constitutively before creating a genomic library.
D)Replacing a mutant gene with a functional gene in a DNA library from an auxotrophic mutant cell prior to introducing the library into a related host cell.
Q3) The production of large quantities of a particular DNA sequence is known as gene
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Chapter 18: Microbial Genomics
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Q1) As systems biology matured,genomics led to understanding cellular regulatory systems and a new level of metabolic engineering,called _____,such that a microbe could be constructed with novel genetic networks (e.g.,rerouting amino acid biosynthetic pathways in
A)synthetic biology
B)functional proteomics
C)metaprotein genetics
D)"parts listing"
E)coli to produce biofuels).
Q2) One reason to study DNA-protein interactions is because many proteins (e.g.,regulatory proteins and proteins involved in replication and transcription)directly interact with DNA,and by understanding those interactions,we may be able to inhibit microorganism pathways in the future.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nucleic acids to be analyzed using microarrays are usually tagged by covalent attachment of ___________ molecules.
Q4) _______________ is the field concerned with the management and analysis of biological data using computers.
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Chapter 19: Microbial Taxonomy and the Evolution of Diversity
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Q1) Microorganisms do not generally reproduce sexually; therefore,species are usually defined by phenotypic and genotypic similarities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type strain is the most representative strain of a particular species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The science dealing with classification is called ______.
A)taxonomy
B)nomenclature
C)systematics
D)identification
Q4) The second edition of Bergey's Manual classifies bacteria ______.
A)phylogenetically
B)phonetically
C)numerically
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q5) The two major approaches used in taxonomic classification of microorganisms that have been isolated and grown in pure culture are termed .
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Chapter 20: Archaea
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Q1) The RNA polymerase enzymes of the Archaea are more similar to eukaryotic enzymes than to bacterial enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glycogen is used as a major carbon and energy reserve by some archaeons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An organism with a temperature growth optimum near 80<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C and a pH growth optimum between two and three is usually referred to as a(n)______.
A)halophile
B)thermoacidophile
C)thermophile
D)thermoalkalophile
Q4) Some archaeons are symbionts in animal digestive tracts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A peptidoglycan-like polymer found in the cell walls of some Archaea is called __________.
Q6) The metabolic feature that defines Thaumarchaeota is _______ _______.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Deinococci, Mollicutes, and
Nonproteobacterial Gram-Negative
Bacteria
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Q1) Some anoxygenic photosynthetic bacteria use __________ as their electron source.
A)hydrogen sulfide
B)sulfur
C)hydrogen
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Dormant,thick-walled resting cells of cyanobacteria that are resistant to desiccation are called _______.
A)baeocytes
B)akinetes
C)hormogonia
D)thylakoids
Q3) Which of the following groups of photosynthetic bacteria are capable of oxygenic photosynthesis?
A)The green bacteria
B)The purple bacteria
C)The cyanobacteria
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The site of anaerobic ammonia oxidation in the recently described genera Brocadia,Kuenenia,Scalindua,and Anammoxoglobus is called the _______.
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Chapter 22: The Proteobacteria
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Q1) An organism that uses methane or methanol as its sole carbon and energy source is called a ______.
A)methanogen
B)methylotroph
C)methanotroph
D)methylogen
Q2) The class of proteobacteria that may be incorporated into the gamma proteobacteria is the ______.
A)alpha proteobacteria
B)beta proteobacteria
C)delta proteobacteria
D)epsilon proteobacteria
Q3) A strategy used by dissimilatory metal-reducing bacteria that enable their use of insoluble compounds as electron acceptors is to transfer electrons to the metal via external,intermediary compounds such as .
Q4) Of the can be used either as reductants for biosynthesis or be donated to the electron transport chain to reduce the terminal electron acceptor,oxygen.
Q5) When using as an electron donor.
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Chapter 23: Firmicutes: The Low G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) Leuconostoc species have the ability to grow in high concentrations of sugar,making them a major problem in sugar refineries during the production of heavy syrup.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gene duplications in Bacillus subtilis have resulted in a large gene family that encodes __________ transporters.
Q3) A new species,_____,was recently shown to have two membranes,like a Gram-negative bacterium,but be phylogenetically related to the Gram-positive family Veillonellaceae.
Q4) Species of Veillonella are always parasites of warm-blooded animals and are never found as part of the normal biota.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Staphylococcus aureus appears to be very adept at acquiring virulence and antibiotic resistance genes from other bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Bacteria in the genus ________ are sulfate and sulfite reducers.
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Chapter 24: Actinobacteria: the High G-C Gram-Positive Bacteria
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Q1) Actinomycetes are usually found in __________ habitats.
A)soil
B)freshwater
C)marine
D)medical
Q2) The medically useful compounds some actinomycetes produce when forming aerial mycelia are called ______.
A)anti-metabolites
B)primary metabolites
C)secondary metabolites
D)inhibitory metabolites
Q3) A distinguishing characteristic of actinomycetes that can be used to classify these organisms is the types of sugars found in extracts of the organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Although the actinomycetes are generally nonmotile,the spores may be flagellated and,therefore,motile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Protists
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Q1) Protothecosis is an infection of humans or animals that is caused by a chlorophyte (green algae).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sexual reproduction in protists involves diverse strategies.Which of the following is common to all types of sexual reproduction in protists?
A)Syngamy
B)Isogamy
C)Heterogamy
D)Anisogamy
E)Conjugation
Q3) What conditions result in the release of cAMP from Dictyostelium discoideum?
A)Abundance of nutrients
B)Adequate moisture
C)Shortage of nutrients
D)Presence of predator bacteria
Q4) Pigment is contained in an eyespot or __________ that helps certain organisms orient to light.
Q5) _____________ produce 40 to 50 percent of the organic carbon in the ocean.
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Chapter 26: Fungi Eumycota
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Q1) Which of the following strategies of sexual reproduction will result in the most genetic diversity?
A)Sexual reproduction of homothallic species
B)Sexual reproduction via sporangiospores
C)Sexual reproduction via arthroconidia
D)Sexual reproduction of heterothallic species
Q2) Which of the following conditions would encourage the development of sclerotia?
A)Nutrient-rich
B)Warm,humid
C)Nutrient-poor
D)Nutrient-rich and warm and humid
Q3) Which of the following genetic notations refers to a dikaryotic fungal stage?
A)n
B)2n
C)n + n
D)2n +2n
E)2n + n
Q4) Fungi are essential in industrial production of food and spirits.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses
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Q1) If a single stranded RNA virus contains genomic RNA that is complementary to the mRNA that it produces,what type of virus is this categorized as?
A)Plus Strand
B)Positive Strand
C)Minus Strand or Negative Strand is acceptable.
D)Minus Strand
E)Negative Strand
Q2) Which of the following must bring in a virion-associated RNA-dependent RNA polymerase when it infects host cells?
A)+ssRNA viruses
B)-ssRNA viruses
C)+dsRNA viruses
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) RNA-dependent RNA polymerases are needed by which group of viruses?
A)Double stranded RNA viruses
B)Plus strand RNA viruses
C)Minus strand RNA Viruses
D)All of these types of RNA viruses require RNA Dependent RNA polymerase.
Q4) __________ is an unusual base found in the DNA of T4 phages.
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Chapter 28: Biogeochemical Cycling and Global Climate Change
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Q1) Biomagnification involves compounds having higher relative concentrations in ______.
A)lower trophic levels
B)higher trophic levels
C)top consumers
D)top consumers or higher trophic levels
Q2) Nitrogen fixation is an energy-yielding process.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The carbon cycle begins with ______.
A)the conversion of carbon dioxide to methane
B)carbon dioxide fixation
C)aerobic respiration
D)anaerobic respiration
Q4) A single outbreak of a tropical infectious disease in a temperate climate is considered evidence of the effects of global climate change on infectious disease epidemiology.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Methods in Microbial Ecology
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Q1) __________ techniques are based on recreating a microenvironment in the laboratory to promote the growth of a microorganism formerly restricted to a small ecological niche.
A)Enrichment culture
B)Fastidious growth
C)PCR
D)Community growth
Q2) The goal of _______ is to identify each protein present in a given microenvironment at the time of sampling.
A)metagenomics
B)metaproteomics
C)both metagenomics and metaproteomics
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q3) While there are many uses for flow cytometry,a powerful addition to this technique is the ability to further sort,count,and collect individual fluorescent cells,known as fluorescence activated cell sorting (FACS).
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______ culture are pure cultures,consisting of a single species.
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Chapter 30: Microorganisms in Marine and Freshwater
Ecosystems
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/52003
Sample Questions
Q1) In the open ocean,_______.
A)the relative abundance of Archaea versus Bacteria increases with depth
B)the relative abundance of Archaea versus Bacteria decreases with depth
C)Archaea are not present
D)Archaea are only found in extreme environments such as near thermal vents
Q2) Most microbes that inhabit estuaries are ______.
A)halophilic
B)halotolerant
C)halophobic
D)halovariable
Q3) The genome of Pelagibacter ubique ______.
A)is the smallest one thus far sequenced for a non-parasitic bacterium
B)contains no pseudogenes
C)has a very limited number of nucleotides between coding regions
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Silicobacter pomeroyi produces carbon monoxide dehydrogenases so that it can use carbon monoxide as a source of carbon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Microorganisms in Terrestrial Ecosystems
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57 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the more important genera of gram-positive aerobic actinomycetes found in soils is ________.
A)Streptomyces
B)Bdellovibrio
C)Acinetobacter
D)Pseudomonas
Q2) A common resident of the rhizosphere that can enhance plant growth is ________.
A)Azotobacter
B)Erwinia
C)Sphingomonas
D)Pseudomonas
Q3) A fungus that destroys host plant cells by releasing toxins and enzymes would be categorized as which of these?
A)Biotrophic fungi
B)Enzytrophic fungi
C)Necrotrophic fungi
D)Parasitic fungi
Q4) Oxygen diffuses equally well through waterlogged soil and dry soil.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Microbial Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Methanogens are always engaged in relationships with other microbes because methane production requires
A)removal of oxygen from the environment by another microbe.
B)energy provided by another microbe.
C)interspecies hydrogen transfer.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Microbiota of the skin are most likely to be found
A)where there is little moisture.
B)where the pH of the skin secretions is below 4.
C)in association with oil and sweat glands.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) A species of bacterium associated with the oil glands of the skin belongs to the genus
A)Staphylococcus.
B)Pityrosporum.
C)Propionibacterium.
D)Pityrosporum
Q4) __________ enzymes catalyze the hydrolysis of beta (1-4)linkages between successive D-glucose residues of cellulose.
Q5) A _________ is any disease-producing microorganism.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Innate Host Resistance
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/52000
Sample Questions
Q1) Substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke immune responses are called _________.
A)antibodies.
B)antigens.
C)infective agents.
D)inducers.
Q2) Which of the following is a physical barrier in the nonspecific defense of a mammalian host?
A)Inflammation
B)Phagocytosis
C)Fever
D)Mucous membranes
Q3) The skin surface is a very favorable environment for colonization by most microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The shorter urethra in females is one reason why urinary tract infections are more common in females than in males.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-reactive B cells are removed during embryonic development in the bone marrow through a process referred to as _____________ selection.
A)negative
B)positive
C)clonal
D)ablative
Q2) Which of the following is (are)involved with an antigen binding to an antibody?
A)Folding of both the V(H)and V(L)regions
B)Amino acids and the antigen's epitope determinant
C)Noncovalent bonds
D)All of these are correct.
Q3) The specific regions within the variable region of an antibody that are responsible for antibody diversity and antigen specificity are called __________ regions.
Q4) Which type(s)of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells?
A)Macrophages
B)B cells
C)Dendritic cells
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) In an antibody molecule,the __________ region mediates binding to host cells.
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Chapter 35: Pathogenicity and Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because LPS is bound to the surface of bacteria,it is called a(n)__________.
Q2) Colonization specifically refers to the multiplication of a pathogen on or within a host,and includes the resulting tissue invasion and damage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While exotoxin production is most generally associated with Gram-positive bacteria,some Gram-negative bacteria also produce exotoxins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A neutralizing antibody against a toxin is called a(n)__________.
Q5) Which of the following is not a characteristic of lipid A?
A)Heat stable
B)Toxic in nanogram amounts
C)Weakly immunogenic
D)Neurotoxic
Q6) Transfer of pathogens from host to environment and then to another host are said to be transmitted _________.
Q7) An __________ pathogen can cause disease in a host with impaired resistance.
Q8) The term __________ refers to the degree or intensity of pathogenicity.
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Chapter 36: Clinical Microbiology and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not used to culture viruses?
A)Growth on artificial media
B)Growth in cell cultures
C)Growth in embryonated hen's eggs
D)Growth in whole animals
Q2) Recommendations regarding hand-washing,handling of pipettes and sharps,prohibition of personal activities such as eating,applying makeup and handing contact lenses,directions regarding decontamination of work surfaces,cultures,and other potentially infectious material are all included in a set of guidelines known as
Q3) PCR is considered more flexible and easier to modify than antibody-based identification technologies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of rRNA gene sequences to identify bacterial strains is referred to as ___________.
Q5) ________ can also be used to differentiate strains of microorganisms that differ in the antigenic composition of a structure or product.
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Chapter 37: Epidemiology and Public Health Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ rate refers to the total number of individuals infected at any one time regardless of when the disease began.
A)prevalence
B)morbidity
C)mortality
D)index
Q2) A __________ epidemic is characterized by a sharp rise to a peak then a rapid,but not as pronounced,decline in the number of individuals infected.
A)propagated
B)common-source
C)herd
D)sporadic
Q3) Which of the following contributes to the emergence of new diseases?
A)Rapid transportation systems and the mobility of the population
B)Ecological disruption such as the loss of predators and the destruction of rain forests
C)Increased drug usage and sexual promiscuity
D)All of the choices are correct.
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Chapter 38: Human Diseases Caused by Viruses and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prevention and control of rabies includes
A)pre-exposure vaccination of dogs and cats.
B)post-exposure vaccination of humans.
C)pre-exposure vaccination of humans at high risk.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) In humans,equine encephalitis can present as a spectrum from fever and headache to ___________ ____________and encephalitis.
Q3) Which of the following did not play a role in the eradication of smallpox?
A)Ease of diagnosis by readily recognized clinical features
B)No known reservoir outside of human hosts
C)A short period of infectivity
D)The availability of effective antiviral agents that block replication
E)All of these characteristics played a role in the eradication of smallpox
Q4) Who should be vaccinated against rabies?
A)Nurses
B)Farmers
C)Veterinarians
D)Physicians
Q5) A major cause of blindness in the United States that results from the HSV 1 virus is
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the target of anthrax protective antigen (PA),edema factor,and lethal factor?
A)Endothelial cells lining the capillaries
B)Cells lining the alveoli in the lungs
C)Neurons
D)Macrophages
Q2) Legionella pneumophila may be found in
A)soil and aquatic ecosystems.
B)air-conditioning systems.
C)shower stalls.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) In tuberculosis,when a caseous lesion calcifies,it is called a _________.
A)tubercle
B)Ghon complex
C)tuberculous cavity
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Once the initial case has occurred,Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51993
Sample Questions
Q1) Acanthamoeba species
A)are facultative parasites.
B)cause encephalitis.
C)cause keratitis.
D)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The fever paroxysms of malaria correlate with
A)the release of merozoites from infected liver cells during the exoerythrocytic cycle.
B)the entry of sporozoites into the blood following the bite of an infected mosquito.
C)the synchronized rupture of infected blood cells and release of merozoites.
D)the production of gametocytes within infected erythrocytes.
Q3) Fungal diseases are usually divided into __________ groups according to the level of infected tissue and the mode of entry into the host.
Q4) Diagnosis of malaria is made by demonstrating the presence of parasites within Gram-stained erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Microbiology of Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) Food-borne pathogens are most commonly identified by A)polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
B)standard culture techniques.
C)pulsed-field gel electrophoresis.
D)None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Growth of yeasts and molds will be favored in more acidic foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis can be used to link a particular pathogen associated with disease outbreaks in a specific food source.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A major organism considered to cause food-borne infection is A)Salmonella.
B)Staphylococcus.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Bacillus.
Q5) Microorganisms that grow in media with low water availability are called
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Chapter 42: Biotechnology and Industrial Microbiology
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51991
Sample Questions
Q1) The most commonly used substrate for the production of ethanol for use in fuel comes from which plant source?
A)Algae
B)Crop residue
C)Corn
D)Rice
Q2) To ensure maximum production of desired metabolites,it is always necessary to maintain organisms in active logarithmic growth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Use of microbial enzymes for bioconversion reactions is preferred because alternative chemical synthesis requires harsh manufacturing conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An amino acid that is used as a supplement for breads is _________.
A)leucine
B)aspartate
C)proline
D)lysine
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Chapter 43: Applied Environmental Microbiology
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44 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51990
Sample Questions
Q1) Potable water
A)requires boiling to make it safe to drink.
B)is not suitable for human consumption.
C)is suitable for human consumption.
D)requires chemical or biological treatment to remove heavy metals.
Q2) Indicator organisms are added to drinking water to test whether the purification process is being carried out effectively.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which causes the most stress to overloaded municipal wastewater plants?
A)Population growth associated with increased volume delivered to the plant
B)Global warming
C)Too many people who flush prescription drugs down the toilet
D)Antibiotic resistant bacteria in the system
Q4) What is the target threshold to meet EPA maximum containment level goals?
A)100% inactivation of microbes present.
B)99.9% inactivation of microbes present.
C)90% inactivation of microbes present.
D)At least 50% inactivation of microbes present.
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