Applied Microbiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Microbiology explores the practical applications of microbial science in various industries and sectors such as healthcare, agriculture, food production, and environmental management. The course covers fundamental concepts of microbiology, including microbial physiology, genetics, and ecology, and examines how microorganisms are harnessed for biotechnological innovations. Students learn about the role of microbes in fermentation, pharmaceuticals, biotechnology, bioremediation, and disease control. Emphasis is placed on modern laboratory techniques, regulatory and safety considerations, and emerging trends in microbial applications to address real-world challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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Q1) Which substance or process decreases the virulence of a bacterial pathogen in a host?
A)Peptidoglycan
B)Adaptive immune cells
C)Virulence factor
D)Binary fission
E)Toxins
Answer: B
Q2) What is the general term for the first obstacles to infection which can prevent the pathogenic organism from doing harm?
A)Nosocomial response
B)Virulence factor
C)Host defense
D)Toxins
E)Digestive enzyme
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) The purines of nucleic acids are
A)Adenine and guanine
B)Thymine and guanine
C)Adenine and cytosine
D)Thymine and cytosine
E)Uracil and guanine
Answer: A
Q2) A triglyceride contains fatty acids that are _____ and therefore do not dissolve with water.
A)Hydrophilic
B)Carbohydrates
C)No lipid groups
D)Ribose sugars
E)Hydrophobic
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding NAD? is incorrect?
A)NAD? is a vitamin
B)NAD? is a coenzyme
C)NAD? enters the electron transport chain as NADH
D)In its reduced form NADH becomes NAD?
E)More NADH is formed more often than FADH? in the Krebs cycle
Answer: D
Q2) Enzymes catalyze reactions because they increase the difference in energy between the substrate and the products.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) During alcoholic fermentation the intermediate _____ is synthesized from pyruvic acid.
A)NAD?
B)Acetaldehyde
C)Lactic acid
D)ATP
E)Acetyl CoA
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Explain why basic dyes and not acidic dyes are used when examining the morphology and arrangement of bacterial cells.
Q2) Describe the molecular composition and structure of the phospholipid bilayer.Where is the phospholipid bilayer located in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Q3) All of the following are present in eukaryotic cells except A)Lysosomes
B)Endosomes
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Cholesterol
E)Plasma membrane bound oxidative electron transport
Q4) What is the function of a flagellum?
A)Resistance to antibodies
B)Motility
C)Resistance to antibiotics
D)Resistance of disinfectants
E)Endospore formation
Q5) What is a biofilm and why are biofilms clinically problematic? Provide a specific example.
Q6) What is the endosymbiont theory? Provide an example of this process.
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Which of the following is not associated with the parenteral route?
A)Contaminated needles used by drug users
B)Transmission of malaria by mosquitoes
C)Contaminated food
D)Tick-derived Lyme disease
E)Blood products used by hemophiliacs
Q2) Both M protein and mycolic acid are
A)The same thing with different names
B)Made by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Produced by the host as defensive molecules
D)Part of the cell wall
E)Inducers of phagocytosis
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of exotoxins?
A)Highly antigenic
B)Cause disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC)
C)Converted to toxoids for vaccine use
D)Lethal in small quantities
E)Unstable at high temperatures
Q4) What is the test used to detect the presence of endotoxins on clinical instrumentation? Explain how the test is performed.
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) The mode of transmission for malaria is
A)Droplets
B)Mosquito
C)Flea
D)Drinking water
E)Direct contact
Q2) What is the mode of transmission for plague?
A)Droplets
B)Mosquito
C)Flea
D)Drinking water
E)Direct contact
Q3) A factor that affects disease transmission is
A)Crowding
B)Travel
C)Potable water supply
D)War
E)All of the choices
Q4) It is sometimes difficult to identify human reservoirs of infectious disease.Discuss three reasons and provide an example.
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Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Diseases that take a long period to develop and also remain for long periods are referred to as
A)Sub-acute
B)Acute
C)Chronic
D)Subclinical
E)Nosocomial
Q2) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
Q3) What is the study of the underlying cause of a disease?
A)Toxemia
B)Etiology
C)Focal infection
D)Primary infection
E)Parasitism
Q4) Carriers of Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi,the agents of typhoid fever,can have persistent infections in the A)Gall bladder
B)Respiratory tract
C)Nasopharynx
D)Digestive tract
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which is not a characteristic of prions?
A)Resistant to degradation by proteinases
B)Found mainly on outer membranes of nerve cells.
C)Resistant to autoclave treatment.
D)Unable to pass through the intestinal wall
E) Resistant to autoclave treatment and unable to pass through the intestinal wall
Q2) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates apoptosis?
Q3) Which of the following describes the process of point mutation?
A)Synthesis of a nearly perfect copy of a molecule
B)Portions of chromosomes from different pathogens link
C)Single base in genetic material converts to another
D)Two chromosomes from different pathogens form a pair
Q4) Which of the following is not an explanation for the re-emergence of TB?
A)Failure of patients with TB to take all of there prescribed antibiotics
B)An increase in the number of elderly living in nursing homes
C)An increase in the rodent population in urban areas
D)An increase in the number of immigrants born in areas where TB occurs
E)The HIV/AIDs epidemic
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a macrophage?
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Bacterial conjugation is a process in which
A)Genetic material is transferred from a donor to a recipient by means of a pilus
B)The host binds to the surface of the bacterium and then ingests it by phagocytosis
C)Biofilms form through glycocalyx formation
D)End flagella rotate and move the bacterium in a corkscrew motion
E)Nutrients are transported to the cytoplasm down a concentration gradient
Q2) Which is not an example of the way Neisseria use basal body pili modification during an infection?
A)Secretion of S pili
B)Post-translational modification
C)Phase variation
D)Secretion of pili-specific proteases
E)Antigenic variation
Q3) You are examining a blood agar plate that contains colonies exhibiting a wet,sticky appearance.Explain what characteristic of bacteria gives rise to this feature and why it can be problematic in the host during an infection.
Q4) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a Gram-negative cell portion?
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) Which growth medium is needed to culture Haemophilus influenzae in the laboratory? How is this medium made and why is it needed?
Q2) What part of the growth curve is the region where number of living cells is increasing exponentially?
Q3) Explain the difference between selective and differential growth media,providing an example of each.Identify two media (other than those already used as examples)which act as both selective and differential media,and explain how to interpret the results.
Q4) A consequence of raising the pH above the optimum pH when culturing bacteria is
A)Dissolved oxygen is depleted
B)There is an increase in hydroxyl ions, which disrupts hydrogen bonding
C)Salts crystallize out of solution
D)There is an increase in hydrogen ions, which disrupts hydrogen bonding
E) There is an increase in hydroxyl and hydrogen ions, which disrupts hydrogen bonding
Q5) Answer true or false to the following statement: Chemically defined media are used to study bacterial end products.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Rearrange the following events in the order in which they occur during DNA proofreading.Which is the first event?
A)Nuclease activity catalyzes nucleotide removal
B)The elongating DNA strand leaves the exonuclease site
C)The elongating DNA strand slides to the exonuclease active site
D)DNA polymerase action slows
Q2) A phage that has integrated into a host cell's chromosome is called a A)Transformant
B)"Sex" pilus
C)Transductant
D)Transposon
E)Prophage
Q3) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Anticodon loop: codon recognition
B)Promoter: DNA polymerase
C)Origin of replication: DNA polymerase
D)P site: peptidyl-tRNA
E)Acceptor arm: amino acid
Q4) Discuss five ways in which transcription differs from DNA replication.
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-C)refers to the codon,UAA?
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) A capsomere is
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q2) Which of these processes is not used by viruses to spread within a host?
A)Syncytia
B)The production of decoy virions to confuse and distract the host defenses
C)Movement through the apical surface of epithelial cells to spread to neighboring cells
D)Transportation by microtubules
E)Lysis of the host cell
Q3) A nucleocapsid
A)A protective protein shell surrounding nucleic acid
B)The complete viral particle
C)A phospholipid bilayer that contains glycoproteins
D)A protein molecule that forms the capsid
E)The sum of the nucleic acid and the capsid
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) An oncogenic virus is one that
A)Stimulates ongoing immunity and memory responses
B)Integrates into the genome of the host cell it infects
C)Enters the body through the genitourinary tract
D)Has been eradicated and is no longer used in immunization programs
E)Can induce cancer in animals
Q2) Which of the following explains why some acute viral infections are asymptomatic in individuals exposed to a virus for the first time?
A)Innate immune defenses restrict the spread and severity of viral infections
B)They have a short incubation period
C)The adaptive immune response is deployed quickly
D)Acute viruses become avirulent soon after infection
Q3) Which of the following is true about persistent viral infections?
A)Virions continue to be produced for months
B)Such an infection can become chronic
C)Such an infection can remain for a lifetime
D)A persistent viral infection can occur if the virus mutates to become an escape mutant
E)All of the choices are true
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) Schistosomiasis is often treated with _____ to limit severe infections.
A)Penicillin
B)Corticosteroids
C)Metronidazole
D)Sulfonamides
E)Arsenic-containing compounds
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: Glucan provides structural stability for fungal cell walls.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rearrange the following into the order of events following ingestion of Ascaris eggs.Which is the fourth event?
A)Invasion of intestinal epithelium
B)Pumped into the lung
C)Conversion to larval stage
D)Coughed into mouth
E)Liver invasion
Q4) Explain how genetic recombination occurs in fungi.
Q5) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: The skin is free of microorganism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The interaction between natural killer (NK)cells and macrophages amplifies the innate immune response.Rearrange the following into the order of events during this amplification.Which is the last event?
A)Macrophage production of cytokines TNF and IL-12 increases
B)Increased production of IL-2 by NK cells
C)NK cells produce gamma interferon (IFN-?)
D)Proliferation of NK cells
Q3) What are released from injured tissues and recruit responding leukocytes to damaged sites?
A)Pyrogens
B)Chemotactic factors
C)Transferrins
D)Interferons
E)Lectins
Q4) Name the four phases of phagocytosis.Provide a brief explanation of what takes place during each phase.
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Cytotoxic T cells use all of the following to destroy target cells except
A)Granulysin
B)Perforin
C)Granzyme
D)Histamine
Q2) Explain why it is essential for TH1 and cytotoxic T cells,but not B cells,to leave peripheral lymphoid tissues after their activation.
Q3) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Gene rearrangement of antigen-receptor genes enables the generation of a huge repertoire of antigen receptors from a limited number of gene segments
B)The thymus shrinks as one ages
C)B cells are located in paracortical regions of lymph nodes
D)Co-stimulatory signals are required for lymphocyte activation
E)Clones of lymphocytes bear the same antigen receptor
Q4) Explain the difference between GALT,MALT,and BALT.Describe what they have in common.
Q5) Explain the key differences between superantigens and conventional antigens recognized by T cells.Provide an example of a super antigen.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Autoimmunity can be induced by infection, drugs, and toxins
B)Some individuals are genetically predisposed to the development of autoimmune disease
C)Autoimmune diseases are classified according to whether they are organ-specific or systemic
D)Graves' disease affects the nervous system
Q2) Which of the following body fluids contains the highest number of infectious HIV particles per milliliter of fluid from infected individuals?
A)Saliva
B)Vaginal-cervical fluid
C)Cerebrospinal fluid
D)Breast milk
E)Tears
Q3) Which malignancy is commonly associated with HIV infection?
A)Breast cancer
B)Prostate cancer
C)Kaposi's sarcoma
D)T-cell lymphoma
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the phospholipid bilayer of plasma membranes is nonpolar,they have hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The sizes of the zones of inhibition seen with different chemicals are not comparable because bacteria move at different rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not susceptible to the effects of surfactants?
A)Non-endospore forming Gram-positive bacteria
B)Gram-negative bacteria
C)Non-enveloped viruses
D)Enveloped viruses
E)Protozoans
Q4) Identify and describe five factors that affect the death of microbes by antimicrobial agents.
20
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Penicillin resistance in bacteria is conferred by the production of A)Lysozyme
B)Transglycosylase
C) -lactamase
D)N-acetylglucosamine
E)Penicillin-binding proteins
Q2) Clavulanic acid is an
A)Penicillin-binding protein modifier
B) -lactamase inhibitor
C)Efflux pump inhibitor
D)Immune response stimulator
Q3) An antimicrobial compound that is activated enzymatically after its introduction into the body is a
A)Prodrug
B)Antibiotic
C)Probiotic
D)Competitive inhibitor
Q4) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Q5) Compare the mechanisms of the anti-trypanosomal drugs eflomithine and melasoprol.
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Which of the following is not used for susceptibility testing of antibiotics?
A)Kirby-Bauer method
B)Phenol coefficient
C)E test
D)Disk diffusion method
Q2) Which type of resistance occurs when one metabolic pathway is blocked and others are used?
A)Drug inactivation
B)Target modification
C)Efflux pumping
D)Alternate pathway
Q3) Describe the four types of protective mechanism microbes use to develop resistance to antibiotics.Provide an example of each type.
Q4) Which of the following antibiotics is MRSA not resistant to?
A)Aminoglucosides
B)Methicillin
C)Tetracyclines
D)Vancomycin
E)Erythromycin
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) A mild form of pneumonia called "walking pneumonia" is associated with bacterial infections caused by
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae
C)Bordetella pertussis
D)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q2) Which of the following is false?
A)Coccidiomycosis infections usually occur in the lower respiratory tract
B)The lower respiratory tract is a relatively sterile anatomical location compared with the upper respiratory tract
C)Diphtheria and whooping cough are still prevalent in underdeveloped nations despite the availability of effective vaccines
D)Chlamydophila psittaci is transmitted from one human to another
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: HIV infection has had a significant role in the increase of tuberculosis,because HIV and tuberculosis are transmitted together.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Helicobacter pylori organisms survive in acid environments by generating _____ through the production of _____.
A)Ruffles of intestinal tract; pili
B)Apoptotic lesions; vacuolating cytotoxin
C)Ulcers; micro abscesses
D)Ammonia; urease
E)microtubule-associated vacuoles; distending cytotoxin
Q2) Which family of viruses does Hepatitis G belong to?
A)Hepadnaviridae
B)Flaviviridae
C)Reoviridae
D)Picornaviridae
E)Caliciviridae
Q3) Which of the following is not a Gram-negative rod?
A)Vibrio cholerae
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Campylobacter jejuni
Q4) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Compare syphilis to gonorrhea in relation to the following statement: The organism that causes it is exclusively a human pathogen.
A)Only syphilis
B)Only gonorrhea
C)Both syphilis and gonorrhea
D)Neither syphilis or gonorrhea
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of pelvic inflammatory disease?
A)Caused by human papillomavirus
B)May cause infertility
C)Can lead to ectopic pregnancy
D)Sometimes causes infection of fetus or newborn
Q3) Compare syphilis to gonorrhea in relation to the following statement: It drills its way into cells.
A)Only syphilis
B)Only gonorrhea
C)Both syphilis and gonorrhea
D)Neither syphilis or gonorrhea
Q4) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
Q5) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because there is no room for swelling of the nervous tissue enclosed by the skull,any pathology that occurs in the brain and results in increased intracranial pressure can have disastrous and potentially lethal consequences.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following does not cause chronic meningitis?
A)Rabies virus
B)Toxoplasma gondii
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E)Treponema pallidum
Q3) Identify two ways in which polio virus can gain entry into the central nervous system (CNS).Describe three types of infection that may result from the polio virus.
Q4) All of the following are layers of the meninges except
A)Pia mater
B)Arachnoid mater
C)Choroid mater
D)Dura mater
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) Which of the following statements about filariasis is false?
A)Filariasis is caused by threadlike nematodes
B)Microfilariae move between the systemic circulation during the day to the pulmonary circulation during the night
C)Humans are the only host for the causative agents of filariasis
D)Recurrent filariasis may lead to elephantiasis
E)There are no known treatments for filariasis
Q2) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Embolus: derived from mature vegetation
B)Endocarditis: extravascular infection
C)Immune complex aggregates: nephritis
D)Thrombophlebitis: infection of the veins
E)Subacute infective endocarditis: low-grade fever
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: Because the ID<sub>50</sub> for tularemia is large there are many routes to tularemia infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss three conditions that facilitate the accumulation of pathogens on heart valves during infectious endocarditis.
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Tissue invasion by Candida albicans is facilitated by the formation of A)Yeast cells
B)Koplik's spots
C)Hyphae
D)Cutaneous warts
Q2) A skin lesion called a(n)_____ develops after ulceration in cutaneous anthrax.
A)Crepitant lesion
B)Necrotoma
C)Carbuncle
D)Eschar
E)Papulovesicular rash
Q3) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which produces eschars?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q4) What is the etiological agent of gas gangrene? Explain the sequence of events leading to the development of this condition and the associated pathology.How is gas gangrene treated?
Q5) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
Page 28
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