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Applied Marketing Research focuses on the practical application of research methodologies to solve real-world marketing problems. Students learn how to design research projects, collect and analyze qualitative and quantitative data, and interpret findings to inform strategic marketing decisions. The course covers topics such as survey design, sampling techniques, experimental methods, data analysis, and the use of statistical software. Emphasis is placed on transforming insights from research into actionable marketing recommendations, with case studies and hands-on projects to develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills relevant to contemporary marketing challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Marketing Research Using Microsoft Excel Data Analysis 1st Canadian Edition by Alvin
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Q1) Allison is the CEO of a large consumer products company. She asks the marketing research department to gather information to help her determine target markets having the most potential from among several market segments. She also asks the research department to give her an assessment as to the best product, price, distribution, and promotion to appeal to the various market segments. Allison is collecting information to help her implement a:
A) marketing mix
B) marketing audit
C) marketing concept
D) marketing strategy
Answer: D
Q2) One of the uses of marketing research is to identify market opportunities; however, the identification of problems is not a use of marketing research, but rather a use of the firm's internal auditing system.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 11 steps in the marketing research process presented in the textbook assumes:
A) a three step process is too short.
B) that the research process examines secondary data and continues on to collect primary data.
C) each step must be taken in succession.
D) that regardless of the project's complexity or simplicity, researchers must follow the steps in the step-by-step process.
E) that one does not revisit any steps.
Answer: B
Q2) The purpose of an action standard is to:
A) define what action will be taken by the researcher to address the problem statement.
B) provide focus for the client it deciding whether or not to conduct marketing research.
C) operationalize a construct.
D) define what action will be taken given the results of the research findings.
E) measure the progress through a marketing research study.
Answer: D
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Q1) A toothpaste manufacturer wanted to know the effects that shelf placement has on unit sales. What type of study would answer the question?
A) exploratory
B) descriptive
C) retail
D) causal
E) impulse
Answer: D
Q2) Exploratory research can be used to help define terms such as "satisfaction with service."
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Electronic test markets require consumers, who are members of a panel, to carry identification cards.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Firms subscribing to syndicated data have substantial control over what information is collected and in what format the information comes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) VALS<sup>TM</sup> is a system that has identified consumer segments based upon psychographics. VALS<sup>TM</sup> has also associated psychographics with purchase behaviour.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following sources of secondary data would you use if you were the brand manager for "Here Kitty Kitty" cat food and you wanted to know the psychographic profile of cat owners?
A) Feline Reporter
B) Dun's Market Identifiers
C) VALS<sup>TM</sup>
D) Market Index Reporter
E) Statscan
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Q1) A college checks the garbage bins in the classrooms to determine if the new recycling program is changing behaviours. This is an example of:
A) direct observation
B) archives
C) physical traces
D) human observation
E) undisguised observation
Q2) Laddering is a technique used with in-depth interviews which attempts to determine which product attributes are linked to values held by consumers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Focus group moderators are sometimes called Qualitative Research Consultants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The sentence-completion test is one in which respondents are given incomplete sentences and then asked to complete them in their own words.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which one of the reasons below does NOT explain why in-office interviews are more costly per respondent than those conducted for in-home interviews?
A) interviewers need specialized skills for handling gatekeepers
B) in-depth understanding of product features is required
C) use of technical jargon takes more training than for consumer products
D) business respondents charge more for interviews
E) ability to address technical questions from respondents by interviewers
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the definition of surveys?
A) interviews
B) large number
C) predesigned questionnaires
D) respondents
E) telephone
Q3) Which of the following is a disadvantage of self-administered surveys?
A) Lack of interview-evalution
B) Lack of monitoring.
C) Respondent relaxed state over pacing.
D) Cost of computer set-up.
E) Inability to ask sensitive questions.
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Q1) Which of the following encourages the respondent to provide information beyond the initial and possibly superficial first comments?
A) open-ended, unaided format
B) closed-ended, exploratory format
C) metric natural format
D) categorical format
E) open-ended, aided format
Q2) Some researchers believe that a mid-point, or neutral position, should NOT be included in a scale question because:
A) it violates the statistical assumption of symmetry
B) it creates an odd number
C) it allows respondents to hide their feelings
D) it creates a problem in trying to code the scale items
E) it creates a problem in terms of how you value the neutral point in the calculation of statistics
Q3) Face validity simply means that the measurement "looks like" it's measuring what it is intended to measure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In a personal interview, the introduction is normally stated in the opening comments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unfortunately, commonly used words sometimes encourage biased answers when they appear on a questionnaire.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One reason to disguise the true sponsor of a survey is to prevent alerting competitors to the survey.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Screening questions is a process used to screen out questions that are deemed to be too difficult or ambiguous for respondents.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In a mail survey, the introduction is normally provided in the "cover letter."
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In Canada a census is taken every five years of:
A) all households
B) 80% of the population
C) 1 in 5 households
D) 50% of the population
E) In Canada is a census is taken every 4 years.
Q2) Nonprobability samples are those for which members of the population do not have a known chance of completing and turning in a survey.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A sampling method that separates the population into subgroups where each subgroup represents the entire population is called:
A) cluster sampling.
B) subgroup sampling.
C) stratified sampling.
D) systematic sampling.
E) sub-sampling.
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Q1) As stated in your text, some believe that nonresponse is a problem because:
A) companies now have to increase monetary incentives.
B) it is caused by fears of invasion of privacy, skepticism on the benefits of participating in research, and the use of research as a guise for telemarketing.
C) with it calculating sample size is a complete waste of time.
D) the alternative is to conduct experimentation.
E) actually, response rates are increasing dramatically due to the increase in interviewer skills.
Q2) When the concern around multiple submissions and bogus respondents and responses is high, researchers turn to using:
A) traditional paper and pencil surveys.
B) personal interviews.
C) online panels.
D) electronic blocking.
E) third-person techniques.
Q3) The percentage distribution is much more intuitive than the other forms of central tendency.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The sample finding and hypothesized population parameter are compared because in a hypothesis test, one tests the __________ hypothesis, a formal statement that there is no difference.
A) sample
B) alternative
C) null
D) parameter
E) directional
Q2) The proper command sequence in XL Data Analyst to generate a confidence interval for a mean is:
A) "Confidence Interval", "Average", select a variable, "OK"
B) "Generalize", "Mean", select a variable, "OK"
C) "Inference", "Confidence Interval", "Average", select a variable, "OK"
D) "Inference", "Mean", select a variable, "OK"
E) "Generalize", "Confidence Interval", "Average", select a variable, "OK"
Q3) The standard error of the average is determined by dividing the standard deviation from the same sample that yielded the average by the square root of the sample size.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When testing the differences between two percentages a metric variable is used.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When testing for differences between two groups, if the computed z value at 99% confidence is 1.98 we can conclude that:
A) we can reject the null hypothesis that there is no difference between the groups.
B) we can accept the null hypothesis that there is no difference between the groups.
C) there is a statistically significant difference between the two groups.
D) that there is a difference, but not a statistically significant one, between the two groups.
E) we need to run more tests because 1.98 is too close to the 1.96 z-value for 99% level of confidence.
Q3) Directional hypotheses are also feasible in the case of tests of statistically significant differences.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When we want to use one variable to predict another and use the equation: y = a + bx, we use the technique known as multiple regression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the formula for a straight line, the intercept is known as:
A) the dependent variable.
B) the variable used to predict the dependent variable.
C) the change in y for any unit change in x.
D) the point where the line cuts the y axis when x = 0.
E) "b".
Q3) Which type of relationship is described by the formula: y = a + bx?
A) causal relationship
B) linear relationship
C) Boolean relationship
D) algebraic relationship
E) curvilinear relationship
Q4) There is no connection between scatter diagrams and correlation coefficients.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT qualify as a figure?
A) graph
B) chart
C) map
D) picture
E) table
Q2) The results section is the most important portion of the report and should therefore not be presented in narrative form.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Names of individuals on the title page must be presented in alphabetical order.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A reference page or endnotes (if appropriate) should precede the appendix.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The listing of the research objectives should follow the statement of the problem.
A)True
B)False
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