Applied Laboratory Techniques
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Applied Laboratory Techniques is a hands-on course designed to equip students with practical skills essential for scientific research and experimentation. The course covers fundamental laboratory procedures such as accurate measurement, solution preparation, use of laboratory equipment, data recording, and adherence to safety protocols. Students will gain experience with techniques relevant to biology, chemistry, or other sciences, including pipetting, titration, centrifugation, spectrophotometry, and microscopy. Emphasis is placed on troubleshooting, proper documentation, analysis of results, and collaboration within a laboratory setting to prepare students for further scientific work or industry roles.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436
2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of adding antibody-sensitized red cells following the antiglobulin test is to:
A) make sure a weak antibody reaction was not missed.
B) confirm positive reactions.
C) check that the wash procedure was sufficient to remove unbound antibodies.
D) check that sufficient incubation took place.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?
A) Bacteria
B) Foreign proteins
C) Virus
D) Antibody bound to antigen
Answer: D
Q3) What immunoglobulin class reacts best by antiglobulin testing?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgE
D) IgG
Answer: D
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evidence for reagent red cell deterioration may include which of the following?
A) Spontaneous agglutination
B) Significant hemolysis
C) Loss of agglutination strength over time
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Reagent used to determine the ABO antigenic composition of a patient's red cells
A)Panel cells
B)Screening cells
C)A<sub>1</sub> and B cells
D)ABO antisera
E)Rh antisera
F)Lectins
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Having two or more alleles at a given gene locus
A)Haplotypes
B)Recessive
C)Amorphic genes
D)Codominant genes
E)Polymorphic
Answer: E
Q2) When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be true?
A) The population statistics must be large.
B) Mutations cannot occur.
C) Mating must be random.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q3) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's red cells are agglutinated by anti-B, but not by anti-A. This person would have which of the following ABO phenotypes?
A) Group B
B) Group O
C) Group AB
D) Group A
Q2) What would be the agglutination reaction of red cells from a Bombay phenotype with anti-H lectin?
A) Strong 4+
B) Mixed field
C) Weak 1+
D) Negative
Q3) Select the appropriate strategy if the results of red cell and serum testing in the ABO typing procedure have negative agglutination reactions.
A) Wash patient cells with warm saline.
B) Use polyclonal typing reagents.
C) Perform an autocontrol.
D) Incubate tubes at room temperature or 4° C with an autocontrol.
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Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ce
A)R<sub>1</sub>r
B)R<sub>1</sub>R<sub>1</sub>
C)R<sub>2</sub>R<sub>2</sub>
D)rr
Q2) r<sup>y</sup>
A)Ce
B)CE
C)DCE
D)Dce
Q3) An anti-E was identified in a patient who recently received a transfusion. What other Rh system antibody should be investigated?
A) Anti-G
B) Anti-f
C) Anti-D
D) Anti-c
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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to Kidd, Kell, and Duffy blood group antigens share all the following characteristics except:
A) can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B) usually detected only by the indirect antiglobulin test.
C) enhanced with enzyme treatment.
D) can cause transfusion reactions.
Q2) Antigens Yt<sup>a</sup> and Yt<sup>b</sup> are in this system
A)Cartwright
B)MNSs
C)Kidd
D)Bg
E)Xg<sup>a</sup>
F)Sd<sup>a</sup> antigen
G)Chido
H)Knops
I)Duffy
J)Vel
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a cold alloantibody includes:
A) anti-M.
B) anti-I.
C) anti-Lu<sup>b</sup>.
D) anti-k.
Q2) In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The antibody most likely to be responsible is:
A) anti-E.
B) anti-D.
C) anti-I.
D) anti-Le<sup>a</sup>.
Q3) Both screening cells 2+ at antihuman globulin phase, DAT positive, IgG 2+
A)Alloantibody, IgG
B)Alloantibody, IgM
C)Autoantibody, IgM
D)Autoantibody or transfusion reaction, IgG
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9
Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How long following transfusion must the recipient sample be stored?
A) 5 days
B) 7 days
C) 10 days
D) 14 days
Q2) Select the correct statement regarding the collection of a blood sample for compatibility testing.
A) The sample must be labeled at the bedside.
B) The sample requires a new numeric identifier for the patient for each admittance.
C) The sample may be labeled at any time in an emergency.
D) The sample does not require a means to identify the phlebotomist.
Q3) An infant less than 4 months old requires which procedures for compatibility testing?
A) Antibody screen with each unit released in a 48-hour period
B) ABO and D typing and antibody screen initially only; units released without additional testing if the screen is negative
C) Immediate spin crossmatch with each unit released
D) Group O, D-negative units; no testing is necessary
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation?
A) 8 weeks
B) 2 weeks
C) 48 hours
D) 24 hours
Q2) Which of the following contributes to permanent rejection status of a donor?
A) A tattoo 5 months previously
B) Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C) Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously
Q3) How long must a donor wait to donate red blood cells again following a 2-unit red blood cell apheresis donation?
A) 56 days
B) 4 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 16 weeks
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11
Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common transmission of hepatitis B virus is by:
A) contaminated food and water.
B) transfusion.
C) sexual transmission.
D) intravenous drug use.
Q2) When are surrogate marker tests useful?
A) When the required test is too expensive
B) When direct testing is not yet available
C) If the required test detects too many false-positive results
D) When the internal controls are not valid
Q3) Cytomegalovirus-positive blood is dangerous for which of the following types of patients?
A) Premature infants
B) HIV-positive patients
C) Bone marrow recipients
D) Unborn infants of pregnant women who are seronegative
E) All of the above
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Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukoreduced (AS-3)
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
Q2) The correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets are:
A) 20° to 24°<sup> </sup>C, 5 days.
B) 1° to 6°<sup> </sup>C, 7 days.
C) 1° to 10°<sup> </sup>C, 24 hours.
D) 20° to 24°<sup> </sup>C, 4 hours.
Q3) Platelet concentrates that are prepared from whole blood have a minimum quality control limit of __________ platelets in __________ of the units tested.
A) 3 * 10<sup>11</sup>, 75%
B) 1 *10<sup>10</sup>, 75%
C) 5.5* 10<sup>10</sup>, all
D) 5.5 * 10<sup>10</sup>, 75%
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Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following transfusion reactions has the highest incidence?
A) Hemolytic reactions due to ABO incompatibility
B) Urticarial
C) Graft-versus-host disease
D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
Q2) The clinical sequelae of a hemolytic transfusion reaction may include all of the following except:
A) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
B) renal failure.
C) shock.
D) graft-versus-host disease.
Q3) Circulatory overload
A)Prevented by leukoreduced components
B)Prevented by irradiation of components
C)Symptoms include hives and itching
D)Associated with ABO incompatibilities
E)Caused by donor white cell antibodies
F)Alloantibodies to red cell antigens
G)Can be prevented by transfusion slowly
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14
Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) To be considered a candidate for Rh immune globulin, the mother is __________ and the infant is __________.
A) D-positive, D-negative
B) D-negative, D-positive
C) D-negative, D-negative
D) D-positive, D-positive
Q2) Which elution method is ideal in the investigation of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A) Glycine-acid
B) Freeze-thaw
C) Xylene
D) Chloroform
Q3) Select the situation where the administration of Rh immune globulin would be contraindicated. MOTHER NEWBORN
A) r"r; no antibody detected R<sub>o</sub>r; direct antiglobulin test (DAT) negative
B) Rr; no antibody detected R<sub>1</sub>r; DAT negative
C) Rr; anti-E detected R<sub>2</sub>r; DAT positive
D) r"r; anti-D detected R<sub>2</sub>r: DAT positive
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Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specific clotting deficiencies of VIII, V, and X
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leukoreduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
Q2) A patient demonstrated the following symptoms: hypotension, tachycardia, cold or clammy skin, and cyanosis. What is the most likely cause?
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Graft-versus-host disease
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Hypovolemic shock
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Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calibration
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
Q2) All of the following are true regarding competency testing except:
A) it must be performed following training.
B) it must be performed on an annual basis.
C) it is required only if the technologist has no experience.
D) retraining is required if there is a failure in competency testing.
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Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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Sample Questions
Q1) HCFA
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Government agency that determines whether a health facility meets standards for reimbursement for Medicare
C)Assessment of medical wastes
D)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
E)Voluntary accrediting agency for hospitals
F)Writes fire safety standards
G)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
H)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
I)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
J)Governs all transportation except by mail
Q2) The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing gloves between donors.
A) True
B) False
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