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Applied Genetics is a course that explores the practical use of genetic principles and techniques to solve problems and drive innovations in fields such as medicine, agriculture, biotechnology, and forensics. Students will learn about genetic manipulation, gene editing technologies like CRISPR, genome mapping, and the development of genetically modified organisms (GMOs). The course also covers genetic screening, gene therapy, and ethical considerations in the application of genetics. Through case studies and real-world examples, students will understand how genetic knowledge is used to improve crop yields, prevent diseases, and develop new biotechnological products.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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Q1) What Mendel called "factors" we now call ____ .
A) nucleotides
B) DNA
C) chromosomes
D) genes
E) bases
Answer: D
Q2) The main purpose of preparing karyotypes is ____.
A) to reveal chromosome abnormalities
B) to determine gender
C) to determine which genes are on which chromosomes
D) to isolate and analyze genes
E) all of these
Answer: A
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Q1) Autosomes represent ____.
A) all chromosomes including the sex chromosomes
B) the half of the chromosomes inherited from one parent
C) all chromosomes other than the sex chromosomes
D) chromosome pairs with unlike members
E) those chromosomes found only in gametes
Answer: C
Q2) One primary spermatocyte produces ____________________ (how many?) functional sperm(s); one primary oocyte produces ____________________ functional egg(s).
Answer: 4; 1
Q3) The process of meiosis results in ____.
A) the production of four identical cells
B) no change in chromosome number from parental cells
C) a doubling of the chromosome number
D) a reduction in chromosome number
E) two diploid cells
Answer: D
Q4) There are __________ autosomes present in a human egg.
Answer: 22
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Q1) In his monohybrid crosses, Mendel deduced that one trait was recessive because
A) that trait was not present in the F1 and did not reappear in the F2
B) that trait was present in the F1 and in the F2
C) that trait was not present in the F1 and reappeared in the F2
D) that trait was present only in the parents
E) that trait was present only in the F2
Answer: C
Q2) There are four common alleles of the gene that controls human blood type.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Heterozygotes and dominant homozygotes always have the same phenotype. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The inheritance of human traits is predictable because the genes controlling them exhibit the principles of both ____________________ and
Answer: segregation; independent assortment
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Q1) Explain the inheritance of mitochondrial DNA and how a person inherits a mitochondrial genetic disease.
Q2) Hemophilia was a significant issue in the life of
A) Abraham Lincoln.
B) Olympic volleyball star Flo Hyman.
C) Noah.
D) the family of the last tsar of Russia.
E) King George III of England.
Q3) If a trait is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, which of the following is not true?
A) Both sexes are equally affected.
B) The trait will not occur in offspring if one of the parents is homozygous dominant.
C) About one-fourth of the offspring of two heterozygotes will be affected.
D) The trait often appears in the progeny of unaffected parents.
E) Two affected individuals can have an unaffected child.
Q4) The basic method of genetic analysis in humans is ____________________ rather than experimental.
Q5) A defective form of the protein dystrophin is involved in the diseases __________ and ________.
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Q1) Provide evidence from a specific example that argues for a substantial role for the environment in determining IQ.
Q2) The role of nutrition in the improvement of spina bifida is an example of a _____ effect.
A) cumulative
B) polygenic
C) epigenetic
D) penetrative
E) phenotypic
Q3) Using a large poster board, construct a Punnet Square involving three genes for skin color. One of the parents is completely dominant for all three genes and the other parent is completely recessive for all three genes. Then construct a graph of the number of offspring (y-axis) versus phenotype (skin color from lightest to darkest on the x-axis).
Q4) The correlation coefficient for totally unrelated people is
Q5) How would you go about determining whether a trait was controlled by a single gene or by polygenes? Would pedigree analysis be of use in answering this question?
Q6) The hormone leptin is produced in ____________________ cells.
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Q1) The two most common types of polyploidy in humans are
A) trisomy and aneuploidy.
B) triploidy and haploidy.
C) triploidy and tetraploidy.
D) tetraploidy and diploidy.
E) haploidy and diploidy.
Q2) The banding patterns are different for non-homologous chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fragile sites are chromosome locations that
A) show an increased number of chromosome bands.
B) show a decreased number of chromosome bands.
C) are all associated with a specific defective phenotype.
D) indicate that carriers are mentally retarded.
E) are inherited in a codominant fashion.
Q4) The degree of mental retardation in a Down syndrome fetus is predictable.
A)True
B)False

Page 8
Q5) How many chromosomes are in a red blood cell taken from a normal person?
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Q1) The lower neck of the uterus, which opens into the vagina, is called the
Q2) The chorion develops from a part of the blastocyst called the ____________________.
Q3) In dosage compensation, females have the same amount of X-linked gene products as males. This is brought about by
A) the loss of one X chromosome from all somatic cells in females.
B) the accelerated production by genes on the Y chromosome.
C) the lowered rate of synthesis by genes on the X chromosome.
D) the inactivation of one X chromosome in all somatic cells of females.
E) none of these.
Q4) Teratogens affect the ____ more than any other part of the fetal body.
A) central nervous system
B) upper limbs
C) heart
D) lower limbs
E) external genitalia
Q5) Androgen insensitivity is caused by lack of a specific ____________________ protein.
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Q6) Meiosis I in females is completed at ____________.
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Q1) The woman scientist who made a major contribution to the discovery of the structure of DNA was _____________________.
Q2) In Fredrick Griffith's classic experiments,
A) mice injected with strain R cells died of pneumonia.
B) mice injected with strain S cells died of pneumonia.
C) mice injected with live strain R cells and heat-killed strain S cells died of pneumonia.
D) mice injected with strain S cells, or live strain R cells and heat-killed strain S cells died of pneumonia.
E) mice injected with strain R cells, or live strain R cells and heat-killed strain S cells died of pneumonia.
Q3) The sugar found in DNA is a ____________________.
Q4) Chromosome territories do not overlap each other. A)True B)False
Q5) The type of chemical bond that holds together adenine and thymine in the middle of a DNA molecule is a ________________ bond.
Q6) The name of the enzyme that replicates DNA is ____________________.
Q7) Describe the structure of nucleosomes.
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Q1) Describe what happens during the initiation, elongation, and termination phases of translation.
Q2) Hydrogen bonds join amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) After RNA polymerase binds to the promoter sequence and causes the adjacent double-strand DNA to unwind, only one strand can be used as the template for RNA formation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ have two binding sites for tRNA to allow the formation of peptide bonds.
Q5) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by an error in ____________.
A) DNA replication
B) translation
C) transcription
D) protein folding
E) the genetic code
Q6) Pre-mRNA is ____________________ and ____________________ before it becomes mRNA and moves to the cytoplasm.
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Q1) What actually happens to the blood cells of people with sickle cell anemia that causes the cells to change their shape ("sickle")?
A) Polymerization of hemoglobin molecules into long fibers.
B) Destruction of the hemoglobin molecules.
C) Loss of hemoglobin through leaky cell membranes.
D) Attachment of phosphate groups to the hemoglobin molecules.
E) Binding of methyl groups to the heme group of the hemoglobin molecule.
Q2) Certain traits in humans are incompletely penetrant, or show variations in expressivity. Can you suggest a biochemical explanation for these observations in such cases caused by a metabolic error?
Q3) The research of which of the following scientists showed that genetic disorders and abnormal metabolism are related?
A) Sir Archibald Garrod
B) Francis Crick
C) Linus Pauling
D) Linda Bartoshuk
E) James Neel
Q4) Why must dietary therapy for PKU be instituted soon after birth?
Q5) Phenylketonuria is a result of a deficiency of the enzyme
Page 12
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Q1) All chromosomally normal individuals have an equal number of autosomes from each parent.
A)True B)False
Q2) Genomic imprinting is caused by epigenetic changes to DNA
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some genes with a number of trinucleotide repeats significantly above normal produce a mutant phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All genes on all human chromosomes are subject to imprinting. A)True
B)False
Q5) Nonsense mutations are mutations caused by nucleotide substitutions that change one amino acid into another.
A)True B)False
Q6) A ____________________ heterozygote is an individual with two different mutant alleles of a gene.
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Q1) The ras gene is an example of a tumor-suppressing gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Targeted drug therapies that stop the growth of cancer cells do so by blocking the action of __________ proteins.
Q3) Mutations that convert proto-oncogenes to oncogenes are mutations that cause
A) the gene to produce an altered gene product.
B) underproduction of a normal gene product.
C) overproduction of a normal gene product.
D) an increase in the number of copies of the normal gene.
E) all of these.
Q4) Individuals have different ____________________ to environmental agents that cause cancer.
Q5) What phrase best describes the field of epidemiology?
A) It is the study of factors that control the presence or absence of disease.
B) It is the study of infectious disease.
C) It is a direct and experimental science.
D) It begins with laboratory studies on experimental animals.
E) It is none of these.
Q6) BRCA1 and BRCA2 are inherited in a ______________ fashion.
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Q1) Cloning by embryo splitting
A) uses an unfertilized egg as the starting point.
B) does not require the use of a host uterus.
C) cannot be used for cloning human embryos.
D) is characterized by all of these.
E) is characterized by none of these
Q2) In recombinant DNA techniques, primers and DNA fragments are linked together by _________.
A) restriction enzymes
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase
D) DNA replicase
E) reverse transcriptase
Q3) ____________________ are short nucleotide sequences used to begin replication in PCR, and to which the polymerase adds nucleotides.
Q4) In genomic libraries, DNA fragments are stored in ______________ chromosomes.
Q5) Adult cells cannot be used as the source of nuclei for cloning animals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the benefits of cloning animals?
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Q1) Once a gene has been cloned, it can be used for A) disease diagnosis.
B) detecting heterozygotes in the population.
C) making biosynthetic products for commercial use.
D) all of these.
E) none of these.
Q2) Monarch butterflies are a beloved species. They feed almost exclusively on milkweed. Why are people concerned about monarchs feeding on milkweed growing near fields in which Bt crops are grown?
Q3) Which of the following statements is correct concerning the current regulation of genetically modified foods by the FDA?
A) They are not allowed for human consumption.
B) They are allowed in plant products but not in animal products.
C) They are allowed in animal products but not in plant products.
D) Labelling of genetically modified foods is not required.
E) Only genetically modified food grown in the USA is allowed.
Q4) Hundreds of thousands of vitamin A deficiencies, and its resulting blindness, may be avoided with the use of genetically modified ____________________.
Q5) GAA, used to treat Pompe disease, is now synthesized by ____________.
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Q1) A branch of genomics that generates three-dimensional structures from their amino acid sequences is _____________.
A) bioinformatics
B) comparative genomics
C) structural genomics
D) pharmacogenomics
E) proteomics
Q2) The Human Genome Project took much longer to complete and cost more than was originally anticipated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The goal of pharmacogenetics is to identify genes related to human diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Distances on genetic maps are measured in ______________ and distances on physical maps are measured in _______________.
Q5) The scientific field of study that analyzes genes and proteins to identify targets for therapeutic drugs is ___________________.
Q6) A set of SNPs close together on a chromosome is called a _______________.
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Q1) Surrogacy is legal in every state in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a genetic counselor, you have assessed a risk factor of 1 in 50 for a couple having a child with Down syndrome. Your earlier interview leads you to believe that they do not have a clear understanding of probability. How would you go about explaining this risk factor and what steps would you take to ensure that they understand your explanation?
Q3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection is used by couples in which
A) the female has blocked oviducts.
B) the female has very irregular ovulation.
C) the female is approaching menopause.
D) the source of sperm is a sperm bank.
E) the male is infertile.
Q4) The first successful outcome of gene therapy was in a case of a young girl suffering from ____________________ who was supplied with copies of the ADR gene.
Q5) What are the problems and benefits associated with presymptomatic testing for late-onset disorders such as Huntington disease?
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Q6) The most direct way to detect Down Syndrome in a fetus is by ___________.

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Q1) HIV targets ______________ cells for infection.
A) the helper T cells
B) the cytotoxic T cells
C) the B cells
D) the red blood cells
E) more than one of these
Q2) Suppose that an infectious agent, such as a virus or bacteria, had surface antigens identical to those displayed on the surface of human cells. Would the immune system be able to detect and destroy these agents? What prevents this from happening?
Q3) In an inflammatory response, the direct effect of histamine is to
A) dilate blood vessels causing increased blood flow to the area of infection
B) decrease heat accumulation in the area of infection
C) directly kill bacteria
D) attack cytotoxic T cells
E) cause B cells to release antibodies
Q4) John and all his brothers have no antibodies caused by non-functional B cells, thus they are highly susceptible to bacterial infections. John and his brothers most likely have a condition called __________________.
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Q1) Discuss the tools used to see if human behavior has a genetic component, and give two examples of either normal or abnormal behavior that appears to have a genetic component.
Q2) A mutation in the MAOA gene is associated with ____________ behavior. A) fear-based B) risk-taking C) violent
D) schizophrenic
E) bipolar
Q3) Since sons adopted by alcoholic men show a rate of alcoholism more like that of their biological father, there is an argument for the role of genetic factors in this disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All behavioral traits have an early onset.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The lesions in the brains of people with Alzheimer disease are caused by a protein fragment called ___________________.
Q6) Alcohol dehydrogenase converts alcohol into _____________________.
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Q1) Most geneticists would agree that human races are distinct genetic entities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genomic studies of Neanderthals, modern humans, and chimpanzees confirms which of the following?
A) Humans evolved from Neanderthals.
B) Humans and Neanderthals interbred.
C) Humans and Neanderthals are not closely related.
D) Humans and Neanderthals both evolved from chimpanzees.
E) More than one of these is confirmed by the genomic comparisons.
Q3) To be effective as a force changing genetic diversity, drift requires A) a long period of time.
B) selection.
C) small, isolated populations.
D) large-scale migrations.
E) geographic stability.
Q4) The measure of differential survival and reproductive success is termed
Q5) A deficiency in the enzyme G6PD confers resistance to the disease

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