Applied Genetics Exam Review
Course Introduction
Applied Genetics explores the practical applications of genetic principles in various fields such as medicine, agriculture, biotechnology, and forensic science. This course covers foundational concepts of heredity, gene expression, and molecular genetics, along with advanced topics like genetic engineering, gene therapy, and genome editing technologies. Students will learn how genetic tools are used to improve crop yield, develop disease-resistant organisms, diagnose genetic disorders, and solve crimes. Ethical considerations and real-world case studies are integrated throughout, providing insight into current challenges and innovations in the rapidly evolving field of genetics.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics Analysis and Principles 5th Edition by Robert Brooker
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28 Chapters
1164 Verified Questions
1164 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following began with the work of Gregor Mendel in the 19<sup>th</sup> century?
A) Population genetics
B) Transmission genetics
C) Molecular genetics
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is correct regarding natural selection?
A)It is based on competition for resources
B)Beneficial traits are passed on to the next generation
C)It enables a species to become better adapted to its environment
D)It may drastically change a species over time
E)All of the answers are correct
Answer: E
Q3) Genetic variation is ultimately based upon which of the following?
A)Morphological differences
B)Small variations in nucleotide sequence of the DNA
C)Carbohydrate content of the cell
D)Translation
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual that phenotypically has dominant traits is mated to another individual that also has dominant traits and the progeny have both dominant and recessive traits it indicates that
A)Both parents are homozygotic
B)Both parents are heterozygotic
C)No conclusions can be made about the genotypes of the parents
D)One parent is heterozygotic and one is homozygotic
Answer: B
Q2) The Chi-square test is used to prove that a hypothesis is correct.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The study of family trees in humans is called a _______ analysis.
A)pedigree
B)monohybrid
C)dihybrid
D)statistical
E)probability
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chromosome Transmission During Cell Division and
Sexual Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are studying a type of cell that you don't know much about. You want to determine what organism the cell comes from. You decide to watch cell division in this plant using the appropriate cell biology tools. After some experimentation, you determine that cytokinesis in this cell is sensitive to myosin inhibitors. You are likely studying
A) a plant cell.
B) an animal cell.
C) a bacterial cell.
D) a cell type that has not been previously studied.
Answer: B
Q2) During this phase of the cell cycle the nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes:
A)Metaphase
B)Prometaphase
C)Telophase
D)Anaphase
E)Prophase
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an allele is dominant in one sex and recessive in another, it is an example of
A)sex-limited inheritance
B)sex-influenced inheritance
C)incomplete dominance
D)simple Mendelian inheritance
Q2) If a geneticist describes a trait as being 70% penetrant, what would they mean?
A)Individuals with the trait show variation in expression
B)It is lethal in 30% of the individuals who have the trait
C)Only 70% of the individuals who carry the allele(s) for a trait express the trait
D)The trait is present in 70% of the population
Q3) If a light-eosin eye male Drosophila is crossed to a homozygous red eyed female, what will be the phenotype of their offspring?
A)All offspring will have red eyes.
B)All males will have light-eosin eyes and all females will have eosin eye
C)All females will have red eyes, all males will have light-eosin eyes.
D)All flies will have white eyes.
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Chapter 5: Non-Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of _____.
A) X-inactivation
B) genomic imprinting
C) maternal inheritance
D) extranuclear inheritance
Q2) Where is extranuclear DNA located in mammalian cells?
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Mitochondria
C)Ribosome
D)Plasma membrane
Q3) In which cells do erasure and re-establishment of imprinting marks typically NOT occur?
A)Nurse cells
B)Sperm cells
C)Oocytes
D)Somatic cells
Q4) mtDNA contains all of the genes necessary for the complete function of mitochondrial metabolism.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following crossing-over, chromosomes with genetic combinations that resemble the parents' chromosomes are called nonrecombinant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A fungal reproductive structure that contains all of the products of a single meiotic division is called the ascus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Another name for a chromosome is a _______, since it contains genes that are often inherited together.
A) linkage group
B) crossing over group
C) genetic recombinant
D) bivalent
Q4) The percentage of recombination associated with independent assortment should approximate 50%.
A)True
B)False
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Genetic Transfer and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) Competence factors do which of the following?
A) Allow the formation of a sex pilus
B) Promote bacteriophages binding for transduction
C) Allow DNA in the environment to bind to the cell surface
D) Inhibit genetic transfer between donor and recipient cells
Q2) Which of the following conditions must be correct for transformation to occur?
A) Temperature
B) Ionic conditions
C) Correct nutrient balance
D) All of the answers are correct
Q3) A cell with an F factor integrated into the bacterial chromosome is called
A) Hfr
B) F+
C) Conjugative plasmid
Q4) Competent cells are those used in studies of conjugation.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) A photographic representation of the chromosomes of an organism is called a(n)
A) allele variation
B) chromosomal spreading
C) chromosome picture
D) karyotype
Q2) Which type of chromosome has the shortest p arm of the chromosome?
A)Acrocentic
B)Metacentric
C)Telocentric
D)Submetacentric
Q3) Edward and Patau syndromes are examples of __________.
A)aneuploidy
B)allopolyploidy
C)autopolyploidy
D)translocations
Q4) Translocations and inversions represent a change in the total genetic material of a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) An RNA strand with sequence 5'-GUACAAUGACUUAUGUAC-3' can potentially form which structure?
A)bulge loop
B)internal loop
C)multibranched junction
D)stem-loop
Q2) Frederick Griffith is responsible for discovering what process?
A)Replication
B)Transmission
C)Transformation
D)Transduction
Q3) The building blocks of DNA are called _________.
A) amino acids
B) codons
C) nucleotides
D) alleles
Q4) DNA is recognized as a left-handed molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Chromosome Organization and Molecular Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) An Alu sequence is an example of what?
A)Retroelement
B)Transposable element
C)Highly repetitive DNA
D)All of the answers are correct
Q2) Which direction would you turn Z-DNA to introduce negative super coils?
A)Right
B)Left
Q3) Each radial loop domain may contain between 10 and 100 base pairs of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why do amphibians have so much more DNA than humans?
A)Amphibians have more repetitive sequences than do humans
B)Amphibians are more biologically complex than mammals are
C)Amphibians have more genes than do humans
D)Amphibians are tetraploid, while humans are diploid
Q5) Over winding of the DNA decreases the number of turns in the double helix, and thus results in super coils in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ability of the DNA polymerase to remove mismatched bases is called exonuclease cleavage (proofreading).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The origin of replication in bacteria is called OriC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following stops the replication of DNA in prokaryotes?
A)Tus proteins
B)DNA ligase
C)Okazaki fragments
D)The end of the chromosome
Q4) Okazaki fragments do which of the following?
A)Assist in forming the replication fork
B)Bind to the oriC region
C)Assist in the synthesis of DNA from the lagging strand
D)Reform the double-helix following replication
E)None of the answers are correct
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13
Chapter 12: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The RNA polymerase forms a closed complex during the process of elongation during transcription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Basal transcription in eukaryotes involves the action of only the core promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What kind of promoter is being used in this experiment?
A)Eukaryotic
B)Prokaryotic
C)Cannot tell from the information given
D)Neither eukaryotic nor prokaryotic
Q4) What is the correct order of elements that comprise a functional protein encoding gene in a prokaryote?
A) Promoter, regulatory region, transcribed region, terminator
B) Regulatory region, promoter, transcribed region, terminator
C) Regulatory region, promoter, terminator, transcribed region
D) Promoter, transcribed region, regulatory region, terminator
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14
Chapter 13: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) What typically stops the process of translation?
A)Rho proteins
B)Aminoacyl tRNA synthase
C)rRNA
D)Stop codons
E)Introns
Q2) 61 different tRNAs are required for translation both in vivo and in vitro.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What site does the initiator tRNA bind to on the ribosome?
A)A
B)E
C)P
Q4) The decoding function is conducted by A)the 16S rRNA.
B)tRNA.
C)mRNA.
D)snRNA.
E) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
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Chapter 14: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes involved in metabolism are most likely regulated via _____.
A) feedback inhibition
B) acetylation
C) methylation
D) none of the answers are correct
Q2) A deletion in an operon removes the terminator. How will that affect the transcript that is produced from the operon?
A)The transcript will be produced and normal in length
B)The transcript will be produced, but shorter than normal
C)The transcript will be produced, but longer than normal
D)The transcript will produced, but will contain a deletion
E) The transcript will not be produced
Q3) In Jacob, Monod, and Pardee's experiment, what would have been the conclusion if all four tubes produced a yellow color when b-ONPG was added?
A)Expression of the lac operon is constitutive whether lacI is functional or not
B)LacI provides the binding site for the repressor
C)LacI encodes a diffusible repressor
D)The researcher added too much b-ONPG
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes I: Transcriptional Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulators exert their effects on gene expression through histone acetyltransferase, histone deacetylase, and RNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nucleosome location may be changed by a process called ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structural motifs promotes dimerization?
A)Zinc finger
B)Leucine zipper
C)Helix-turn-helix
D)Helix-loop-helix
Q4) A repressor protein would enhance the ability of TFIID to bind to the TATA box of the promoter.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When cortisol binds to the glucocorticoid receptor, HSP90 is released.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes II: Epigenetics and
Regulation at the RNA Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the consequence if an individual was homozygous for an IBP that could not bind iron but could bind to the IRE?
A) Unregulated transferrin receptor levels
B) Increased degradation of ferritin
C) Possible iron toxicity to the cells at levels of iron that would not normally be toxic to a cell
D) There would be no predicted consequence to iron metabolism in the cell
Q2) Which of the following statements are correct?
A)Changes in gene expression based on environmental conditions are not considered normal while developmental changes are
B)Environmental epigenetic changes can vary due to the exposure of the organism to different environmental conditions, while those programmed during development are the result of stimuli generated by the organism itself
C)Environmental epigenetic gene regulation only occurs in reptiles and insects, while developmental epigenetic regulation occurs in all animals
D)Environmental epigenetic gene regulation is typically reversible while developmental epigenetic gene regulation is typically not reversible.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What piece of the RNA HIV genome is used as a primer during the synthesis of double-stranded DNA from HIV RNA?
A)tRNA
B)U3
C)gag
D)PPT
Q2) In phage \(\lambda\), the relative affinities of the lambda repressor and the cro protein to the three binding sites in the O<sub>R</sub> region are:
A)the same.
B)inversely proportional.
C)unrelated.
Q3) If you created a strain of bacteria that overexpressed protease inhibitors, and then infected this bacteria with phage \(\lambda\) , would you expect the phage to follow the lytic or lysogenic cycle?
A)Lytic
B)Lysogenic
C)The protease inhibitors would have no bearing on which life cycle is chosen.
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Chapter 18: Gene Mutation and Dna Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photolyase in yeast is an example of what kind of DNA repair mechanism?
A) Recombinational repair
B) Direct repair
C) Base excision repair
D) Mismatch repair
E) Nucleotide excision repair
F) Nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ)
Q2) Breakpoints in chromosome can lead to mutant phenotypes when they occur in the middle of a gene.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does position effect influence gene expression?
A) Point mutations in promoters frequently occur by this mechanism
B) Translocations may result in a promoter that is normally used for one gene now controlling an entirely different gene.
C) Since this mechanism relies on recombination it relies on the positioning of one allele so that it is under the control of the other allele.
D) Translocations always result in a gene being recombined into an area of heterochromatin.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Recombination and Transposition at the
Molecular Level
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes accounts for the tremendous variation in antibody structure?
A)RNA editing
B)Site-specific recombination
C)Integrase activity
D)Physiological adaptation
E)Hot spots of mutation in the immunoglobin genes
Q2) Which enzyme is unique to the retro elements?
A)Reverse transcriptase
B)Reverse resolvase
C)Transposase
D)Integrase
E)Reverse integrase
Q3) Insertion sequences can be identified by which of the following?
A)Presence of an integrase enzyme
B)High level of mutation
C)Presence of inverted repeats at the end of the sequence
D)Presence of a reverse transcriptase enzyme
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Chapter 20: DNA Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) cDNA is made using what as the starting material?
A)plasmid vectors
B)viral DNA
C)chromosomal DNA
D)mRNA
Q2) Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequences in the DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Real-time PCR can be used for which of the following?
A)Conduct a PCR reaction without the use of primers
B)Generate cDNA
C)Quantify expression of a specific gene in a cell
D)Nonspecific DNA amplification
Q4) A scientist does not have an antibody to detect the protein of interest, but wants to know if the gene is expressed at low levels. What technique could the researcher use to detect, but not quantify the expression of the gene of interest?
A)Western Blotting
B)real-time PCR
C)cloning
D)reverse transcriptase PCR
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Chapter 21: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of the cyanogen bromide (CNBr) in the manufacture of insulin and somatostatin by recombinant bacteria?
A)Allows for the uptake of the plasmid
B)Enhances the activity of the restriction enzymes
C)Creates sticky ends for integration into the plasmid
D)Cleaves the protein from the b-galactosidase protein
Q2) The fact that in mammalian systems multiple genes may compensate for the loss of a gene is called gene redundancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A major disadvantage with current gene therapy techniques using viral vectors is the possibility of an immune response against the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not an advantage of a transgenic plant?
A)Widely accepted by the public
B)Increased resistance to disease and pests
C)Adaptability to harsh environments
D)Improved shelf life
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Chapter 22: Genomics I: Analysis of DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common microsatellite in humans is ____. A)(AT)<sub>100</sub> B)(CA)<sub>n</sub> C)(TG)<sub>n</sub> D)(CAT)<sub>n</sub>
Q2) Metagenomics is a common approach for studying the genes of a clonal population of bacteria in the laboratory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Map units correspond to fixed physical distances.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is the most direct benefit of high-throughput Sanger sequencing?
A)Bases can be identified as soon as they are added to the template.
B)RNA can be directly sequenced without first reverse transcribing it into DNA.
C)An entire chromosome can be sequenced without disrupting it into smaller fragments.
D)Many DNA samples can be sequenced simultaneously.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Genomics II: Functional Genomics, Proteomics, and Bioinformatics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genetic sequences may be useful in predicting protein structure because
A) there is a high statistical frequency of specific amino acids within a given secondary structure
B) the folding of the protein is based on how the mRNA folds.
C) the physical and energetic properties of the DNA influence protein folding.
D) knowing what specific codons are used for each amino acid in the protein can help predict its structure.
Q2) _______ can be used to determine the amino acid sequence of a protein or peptide.
A)X-ray crystallography
B)Nuclear magnetic resonance
C)Mass spectrometry
D)The ChIP assay
Q3) What field of study of genetics applies statistics and mathematical tools to genetic sequences in order to better understand the genetic information?
A)Structural genomics
B)Functional genomics
C)Proteomics
D)Bioinformatics
25
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Chapter 24: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) An environmental agent that causes cancer is called a _______.
A) carcinogen
B) malignant agent
C) invasive agent
D) metastatic agent
Q2) A gene that promotes the development of cancer is called a(n) _______.
A)clone
B)tumor suppressor gene
C)mutagen
D)carcinogen
E) oncogene
Q3) In a disease that is caused by a single gene, the concordance among monozygotic twins should be ____.
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
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Chapter 25: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) A
C.elegans with a heterochronic mutation in lin-14 will lay eggs normally.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The consensus coding sequence of homeotic genes is called a _______.
A)TATA box
B)Pribnow box
C)homeobox
D)parasegment
Q3) Programmed cell death is called _______.
A) destruction initiation
B) apoptosis
C) myogenesis
D) morphogens
Q4) The ABC model explains the process of _______.
A)brain development
B)flower development
C)sex determination
D)muscle development
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Chapter 26: Population Genetics
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Q1) Mutations are the only source of genetic variation in a population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c<sup>+</sup>). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool?
A) 2
B) 150
C) 230
D) 300
E) 140
Q3) A SNP would best be described as _____.
A)A gene that comes in multiple different alleles
B)A balanced polymorphism system
C)A single nucleotide difference between two DNA sequences
D)The most likely mutation to affect protein function
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Chapter 27: Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is trure concerning a quantitative trait?
A)Individuals fall into distinct classes for comparison
B)The phenotypic variation for the trait is continuous
C)The phenotypic variation for the trait falls into two to three classes
D)The frequency distribution of the trait will have an asymmetrical shape
Q2) What is the correlation coefficient between mother and daughter height and would it be considered significant?
A)Correlation coefficcient: 0.49 Not significant
B)Correlation coefficcient: 0.31 Not significant
C)Correlation coefficcient: 0.49 Significant
D)Correlation coefficcient: 0.31 Significant
Q3) After calculating a correlation coefficient you discover that the value is not significant at the 5% level. What can be done to produce a significant difference?
A)Increase the sample size
B)Decrease the sample size
C)Nothing, the value will remain the same regardless of sample size
Q4) A population that is homozygous for a given allele is called polymorphic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Evolutionary Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the microevolutionary level, natural selection is based on genetic differences that give an individual a selective advantage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The production of sterile offspring is an example of a prezygotic isolation mechanism.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The formation of polyploids in plants is an example of which model of cladogenesis?
A)Parapatric speciation
B)Allopatric speciation
C)Sympatric speciation
Q4) In which form of cladogenesis do hybrid zones exist?
A)Parapatric speciation
B)Allopatric speciation
C)Sympatric speciation
Q5) Orthologous genes may form gene families in a species.
A)True
B)False
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