Applied Developmental Psychology
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Applied Developmental Psychology explores the practical applications of developmental theory and research across the lifespan, with an emphasis on infancy, childhood, adolescence, and early adulthood. This course examines how principles of cognitive, emotional, and social development can inform educational practices, parenting strategies, intervention programs, and policy decisions. Students will learn to critically assess and implement developmental research in real-world contexts such as schools, healthcare, and community organizations, while considering the impact of culture, family, and diverse backgrounds on developmental outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 3rd edition by Laura E. Berk
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19 Chapters
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2078 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History, theory, and Research Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Annabelle uses symbols and engages in make-believe play.However,her thinking lacks logic.Annabelle is in Piaget's __________ stage of development.
A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational
Answer: B
Q2) Using brain-imaging techniques,Dr.Singh,a neuroscientist,studies how genetic makeup combines with specific experiences to influence the growth of a child's brain.This approach to development is known as A) the information-processing approach.
B) behaviorism.
C) developmental cognitive neuroscience.
D) cognitive-developmental theory.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Genetic and Environmental Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is/are the longest-lasting context(s)for development.
A) Friends
B) Neighbors
C) The school
D) The family
Answer: D
Q2) Maya tested positive for PKU at birth and will __________ to have a normal lifespan.
A) require hormone therapy
B) have to be placed on a diet low in phenylalanine
C) need regular injections of insulin
D) require frequent blood transfusions
Answer: B
Q3) __________ can be routinely used to safely screen for abnormal fetal development.
A) Amniocentesis
B) Maternal blood analysis
C) Ultrasound
D) Fetoscopy
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Prenatal Development, birth, and the Newborn Baby
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about caring for preterm infants is true?
A) Compared with full-term infants, preterm babies are more often held close, touched, and talked to gently.
B) Even parents with stable life circumstances and social supports usually cannot overcome the stresses of caring for a preterm infant.
C) Preterm infants who are left in isolettes and are rarely touched gain weight faster and, at the end of the first year, are more advanced in mental and motor development over preterm babies given massage stimulation.
D) Mothers and fathers practicing kangaroo skin-to-skin contact feel more confident about caring for their preterm babies and interact more sensitively and affectionately with them.
Answer: D
Q2) Babies with poor sleep organization are likely to be
A) above average in intelligence.
B) above average in birth weight.
C) behaviorally disorganized.
D) quiet criers.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Physical Development in Infancy and
Toddlerhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Between ages 3 and 5,
A) fussiness increases.
B) crying increases.
C) most children need one daytime nap.
D) napping subsides.
Q2) What influence does heredity have on physical growth?
Q3) According to the dynamic systems theory of motor development,
A) mastery of motor skills involves increasingly complex systems of action.
B) motor control of the head comes before control of the arms and the trunk.
C) habituation and recovery to visual stimuli underlie the development of complex motor skills.
D) newborn reflexes helped babies survive during our evolutionary past.
Q4) By focusing on the shift from a novelty preference to a familiarity preference,researchers can use habituation to assess
A) remote memory.
B) recent memory.
C) an infant's imitation ability.
D) an infant's motor development.
Q6) Describe the development of pattern perception. Page 6
Q5) Define and describe the cephalocaudal and proximodistal trends in body growth.
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Page 7
Chapter 5: Cognitive Development in Infancy and
Toddlerhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most adults and older children cannot remember events that happened before the age of 3 because
A) they cannot translate early preverbal memories into language.
B) early memories are stored in an explicit memory system that is difficult to recall.
C) long-term memory does not emerge until around age 7.
D) they have most likely forgotten these early memories due to the passage of time.
Q2) Most infant intelligence tests are better at making long-term predications for __________ babies.
A) extremely high-scoring
B) average- to high-scoring
C) low- to average-scoring
D) extremely low-scoring
Q3) Eight-month-old Alexis says "Nananananana!" This is an example of A) an underextension.
B) cooing.
C) babbling.
D) an overextension.
Q4) Discuss the development of cooing and babbling in hearing and deaf infants.
Page 8
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Chapter 6: Emotional and Social Development in Infancy and Toddlerhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two-year-old Brooke points to a photo of herself and says "Brooke." This demonstrates that she has developed
A) self-recognition.
B) a categorical self.
C) continuity of control.
D) effortful control.
Q2) Like anger,expressions of fear
A) are less intense than expressions of sadness.
B) decrease in intensity and frequency with age.
C) occur less frequently in the second half of the first year.
D) rise from the second half of the first year into the second year.
Q3) According to Erikson,a healthy outcome during infancy depends on the A) amount of food offered.
B) amount of oral stimulation offered.
C) channeling of biological drives.
D) quality of caregiving.
Q4) How does paternal depression affect child development?
Q5) Describe categorical self development.How does it relate to gender typing?
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Q6) Define temperament.Describe the difficult child,according to Thomas and Chess.
Chapter 7: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early Childhood
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110 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differences in development of the two cerebral hemispheres suggests that __________ in early childhood.
A) the right hemisphere is more important than the left hemisphere
B) the left hemisphere is more important than the right hemisphere
C) they are continuing to lateralize
D) activity in both hemispheres is slow
Q2) Eighteen-month-old Gabriella witnesses her mother finding a Duplo block in its labeled canister.When her mother isn't looking,Gabriella watches as her father moves the block to an unmarked canister.When her mother again searches for the block in the original canister,Gabriella helps her locate the block in the unmarked canister.This indicates that Gabriella may have an implicit grasp of A) false beliefs.
B) conservation.
C) irreversibility.
D) class inclusion.
Q3) Discuss episodic memory,including memory for familiar events and memory for one-time events.
Q4) Describe the development of writing.What does a preschooler's early printing look like?
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Emotional and Social Development in Early Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over time,maltreated children show
A) cognitive gains.
B) improved executive function.
C) serious adjustment problems.
D) few long-term problems.
Q2) Which of the following statements is supported by research on emotional understanding?
A) Preschoolers whose parents explain emotions to them show delayed emotional understanding.
B) With age, preschoolers engage in less emotion talk with siblings and friends.
C) Make-believe play can cause emotional confusion, especially when children play with younger children or siblings.
D) Preschoolers who are securely attached to their mothers better understand emotion than preschoolers who are insecurely attached.
Q3) The majority of abusive and neglectful parents
A) lack "lifelines."
B) have developmental problems.
C) hyperfocus on their children.
D) are skilled at establishing social relationships.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children who are fluent in two languages
A) are behind in detection of errors in grammar and meaning.
B) outperform others on tests of cognitive flexibility.
C) have difficulty on selective attention tasks.
D) are behind in reading achievement tests in both languages.
Q2) In dynamic assessment,
A) a more expert peer works together with a child, each focusing on the same aspect of the problem.
B) an adult directs a child to carry out an aspect of a problem, and the child works independently.
C) an adult introduces purposeful teaching into a testing situation to find out what a child can attain with social support.
D) children are made consciously aware of ethnic stereotypes in the test questions.
Q3) Compared to their peers,__________ are at greater risk for developing asthma.
A) children who live in rural areas
B) middle-SES children
C) Asian children
D) boys
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Chapter 10: Emotional and Social Development in Middle Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ encourages learned-helpless children to believe that they can overcome failure by exerting more effort.
A) Attribution retraining
B) Vicarious learning
C) Identity achievement
D) An ability-oriented approach
Q2) Having received a bad grade on a test,Aiden employs internal strategies such as distraction.Aiden is using
A) problem-centered coping.
B) emotion-centered coping.
C) analogical problem solving.
D) defensive coping.
Q3) Employed mothers who value their parenting role are more likely to use
A) coercive discipline.
B) coregulation.
C) authoritarian child rearing.
D) high-quality child care.
Q4) Discuss sibling rivalry in middle childhood.What steps can parents take to reduce it?
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Q5) Discuss the impact of maternal employment on development in middle childhood.
Chapter 11: Physical and Cognitive Development in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most gay,lesbian,or bisexual youths experience
A) earlier intercourse than their heterosexual agemates.
B) an inner struggle that is intensified by a lack of role models and social support.
C) same-sex physical attraction, on average, between ages 6 and 8.
D) gender confusion and sexual questioning.
Q2) __________ youths rank highest in drug taking.
A) African-American
B) Native-American
C) Hispanic
D) Caucasian-American
Q3) In a study involving weather predictions,media multitaskers
A) activated the hippocampus, which plays a vital role in explicit memory.
B) activated subcortical areas involved in implicit memory.
C) were able to apply their learning to new weather problems.
D) learned more thoroughly than participants working only on the weather task.
Q4) Discuss the role of sleep in adolescent development.
Q5) Describe adolescent drug experimentation.What types of school and community prevention programs are the most effective?
Q6) How does heredity impact homosexuality?
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Chapter 12: Emotional and Social Development in Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) After graduating from high school,Raymond floundered for a brief period.He did not know what he wanted to do or who he wanted to be.He tried several different things.According to Erikson,Raymond experienced A) generativity.
B) identity foreclosure.
C) inferiority.
D) an identity crisis.
Q2) Which of the following delinquent youths is the most likely to experience a life-course pattern of aggression and criminality?
A) David, who first displayed antisocial behavior around puberty
B) Doug, who first showed signs of physical aggression at age 3
C) Shonna, who was first arrested at age 15 when she fell in with the wrong crowd
D) Lana, who was arrested three times in high school but is now doing well in college
Q3) Describe how sibling interactions adapt to development at adolescence.
Q4) Discuss the impact of religious involvement on moral development in adolescence.
Q5) Define gender intensification.Explain the role of gender typing and androgyny in adolescent development.
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Chapter 13: Physical and Cognitive Development in Early
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about the sex lives of American adults is true?
A) People who engage in casual dating have the most physically satisfying sex lives.
B) As number of sex partners increases, satisfaction declines sharply.
C) Most married adults say they are only somewhat happy with their sex lives.
D) More men than women report persistent sexual problems.
Q2) When men are taught from an early age to be __________ and women to be __________,the themes of rape are reinforced.
A) dominant; competitive
B) competitive; submissive
C) aggressive; dominant
D) submissive; dominant
Q3) Shelby is adventurous,persuasive,and a strong leader.According to Holland's six personality types,Shelby is a(n)__________ person.
A) social
B) investigative
C) conventional
D) enterprising
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Emotional and Social Development in Early
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The average age of leaving home
A) is lower today than it was in the 1960s.
B) is lower in the United States than it is in the Scandinavian countries.
C) resembles the departure age at the beginning of the twentieth century.
D) is higher in the United States than it is in Mediterranean countries.
Q2) In the transformation of romantic involvements from passionate to companionate,__________ may be the aspect of love that determines whether a relationship survives.
A) intimacy
B) passion
C) sexual attraction
D) commitment
Q3) Many emerging adults
A) are settled in their careers.
B) explore alternatives in education and work.
C) move from identity achievement to identity diffusion.
D) are married and financially secure.
Q4) Describe the gender differences in same-sex adult friendships.
Q5) Discuss the changes that adolescence brings to parenthood.
Q6) Discuss career development in early adulthood,focusing on career establishment. Page 17
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Page 18
Chapter 15: Physical and Cognitive Development in Middle
Adulthood
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108 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung cancer
A) rates have just begun to decrease in men after a long period of increase.
B) rates have dropped in women over the past two decades.
C) is the most common cause of cancer deaths in both genders, worldwide.
D) is the leading malignancy for both genders.
Q2) In the "middle-age spread," women accumulate fat __________,whereas men accumulate it __________.
A) on the upper abdomen; around the waist
B) around the waist; on the back
C) around the upper arms; around the waist
D) on the back; around the upper arms
Q3) On __________ reaction-time tasks,response time __________ from the early twenties into the nineties.
A) simple; decreases dramatically
B) complex; decreases steadily
C) both simple and complex; increases steadily
D) simple; decreases slightly
Q4) Discuss the changes in hearing that individuals experience during the aging process.
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Q5) Discuss changes to creativity that individuals experience in the aging process.
Chapter 16: Emotional and Social Development in Middle
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Martin,age 47,is single and has no children.Which of the following of Martin's activities reflects generativity?
A) Martin works out at the gym three evenings a week and runs every night.
B) Martin attends worship services two times per week and participates in a Bible study group.
C) Martin volunteers at the YMCA as a basketball coach for the youth program.
D) Martin participates in community theater and starred in a local production of Guys and Dolls.
Q2) Less well-educated people with lower lifetime earnings are the __________ likely to __________ retirement preparation programs.
A) least; attend
B) least; benefit from
C) most; attend
D) least; apply what they learn in
Q3) With age,possible selves become
A) loftier.
B) more modest.
C) less concrete.
D) greater in number.
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Chapter 17: Physical and Cognitive Development in Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in the number of __________ after age 60 contributes to declines in __________ sensitivity.
A) taste buds; taste
B) smell receptors: odor
C) taste receptors; food
D) neural synapses; odor
Q2) Which of the following statements about falling in late adulthood is true?
A) While falls in old age can be devastating, only about 15 percent of adults over age 80 have experienced a fall.
B) Use of medication that affects mental processing decreases the risk of falling.
C) When older adults do fall, serious injury results about 70 percent of the time.
D) Falling can impair health indirectly by promoting fear of falling.
Q3) Discuss the impact that falls can have in late adulthood.
Q4) Age differences in __________ memory are much smaller than in __________ memory.
A) explicit; implicit
B) deliberate; implicit
C) implicit; deliberate
D) associative; implicit
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Chapter 18: Emotional and Social Development in Late
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trey,age 72,is most likely to
A) relocate to live closer to his children.
B) move to a more temperate climate.
C) remain living in or near his home.
D) relocate to a place to pursue leisure interests.
Q2) Congregate housing
A) offers a range of housing alternatives, from independent living to full nursing home care.
B) is the most extreme restriction of autonomy and social integration.
C) provides a variety of support services, including meals in a common dining room.
D) differs from an ordinary home only in that it has been modified to suit older adults' capacities.
Q3) In late adulthood,most siblings
A) do not communicate regularly.
B) visit only a few times a year.
C) live within 100 miles of each other.
D) are not close.
Q4) Discuss gay and lesbian partnerships in late adulthood.What unique challenges do they face?
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Death, dying, and Bereavement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ethnic groups does not believe in telling terminally ill patients about their condition partly because dying disrupts important interdependent relationships?
A) Irish
B) French
C) Middle Eastern
D) Japanese
Q2) The most serious drawback to Kübler-Ross's theory is that
A) dying people are unlikely to display denial after learning of their condition because most people trust doctors.
B) it looks at dying patients' thoughts and feelings outside the contexts that give them meaning.
C) a normal dying person goes through the five stages, but not in Kübler-Ross's sequence.
D) it fails to recognize that as dying people move closer to death, their reactions are predictable.
Q3) Discuss the benefits and consequences of dying at home.
Q4) What is bereavement overload? Who is at risk for it?
Q5) Discuss the practice of voluntary active euthanasia.
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