Applied Developmental Psychology Final Exam
Course Introduction
Applied Developmental Psychology focuses on the practical application of developmental theories and research to real-world settings, such as schools, healthcare environments, and community organizations. The course explores how developmental principles influence learning, behavior, and well-being across the lifespan, from infancy through old age. Students will examine the impact of biological, cognitive, and social factors on development and learn how to design interventions that promote positive outcomes for individuals and groups. Emphasis is placed on understanding diverse developmental trajectories and tailoring approaches to suit the needs of various populations, with particular attention to ethical considerations and evidence-based practice.
Recommended Textbook
Human Development A Life Span View 6th Edition by Robert V. Kail
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Study of Human Development
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Q1) Rutger believes that, rather than progressing through a sequence of stages, mental processes gradually get more complex and efficient. Rutger is most likely a proponent of A) Piaget's theory.
B) Kohlberg's theory.
C) information-processing theory.
D) Erikson's theory.
Answer: C
Q2) Sophia notices that children seem to mature socially much faster in Argentina than in the United States. Sophia is most likely to support a ________ position regarding human development.
A) nature
B) discontinuous
C) context-specific
D) continuous
Answer: C
Q3) You are going to do a study of the development of teammate behavior on a college hockey team. Describe the research methods you would use and justify why these methods are most effective in this case.
Answer: Answer not provided.
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Chapter 2: Biological Foundations: Heredity, Prenatal
Development, and Birth
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Q1) Which is not considered part of prenatal development?
A) Period of the fetus
B) Period of the zygote
C) Period of the neonate
D) Period of the embryo
Answer: C
Q2) Prenatal development begins
A) with sperm production.
B) with ovulation.
C) at conception.
D) at implantation into the uterus.
Answer: C
Q3) Which best exemplifies the concept of incomplete dominance?
A) An individual with two alleles for baldness who has long hair
B) An individual with two alleles for shyness who is shy
C) An individual with one allele for obesity and another for thinness who is of average weight
D) An individual with a single allele for aggression who is violent
Answer: C
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Tools for Exploring the World: Physical,
Perceptual, and Motor Development
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Q1) Synaptic pruning significantly increases the number of neural connections in the brain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which technique is recommended for making finicky eaters more open-minded about the food they eat?
A) Force children to clean their plates
B) Talk about the correct way to eat during meals
C) Use food to reward good behavior
D) Allow children to pick among healthy foods
Answer: D
Q3) Jeffrey is a three-year-old who is beginning to make connections between people's thoughts, intentions, and behaviors. According to Wellman (2002), Jeffrey is developing
A) a theory of mind.
B) a temperament.
C) motor skills.
D) retinal disparity.
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Emergence of Thought and Language:
Cognitive Development in Infancy and Early Childhood
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Q1) Which is an example of a grammatical morpheme?
A) "Fish"
B) "-ing"
C) "Fishing"
D) "Fisherman"
Q2) Piaget used the term ____ to describe the difficulty children often have in taking another person's perspective.
A) animism
B) scaffolding
C) a tertiary circular reaction
D) egocentrism
Q3) Theory on the emergence of autobiographical memory suggests that in order to improve the autobiographical memory skills of his or her child, a parent would most likely
A) give the child multivitamins that include vitamin B.
B) begin to encourage the child to talk about what happened at school each day.
C) emphasize the importance of the one-to-one principle.
D) teach children how to solve conservation tasks.
Q4) The belief that all living organisms have an unseen essence that gives them an identity is called _____.
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Chapter 5: Entering the Social World: Socioemotional
Development in Infancy and Early Childhood
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Q1) Parents who model altruism tend to raise more altruistic children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Concerning play, which statement best exemplifies enabling?
A) "You are doing great, keep going."
B) "You are in for a world of hurt if you win."
C) "I am so much better than you."
D) "I have never played that before."
Q3) You are studying the basic emotions of infants from the United States and China. What differences would you expect in how these basic emotions are expressed?
A) Chinese infants will be less expressive than American infants.
B) American infants will be less expressive than Chinese infants.
C) Chinese infants will be more expressive of pain; American infants will be more expressive of "joy."
D) Chinese and American infants will express basic emotions the same way.
Q4) Describe how social referencing could be used to help explain how a child might acquire a fear through modeling.
Q5) Beliefs and images about males and females that may or may not be true are called gender _____.
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Chapter 6: Off to School: Cognitive and Physical Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) As the parent of a third-grader, you are growing concerned about your daughter's level of fitness and are considering putting her into an organized sports program. If your daughter is a typical American child, why would your concern over lack of fitness likely be warranted? Also, what are the pros and cons of placing a child into organized sports?
Q2) Ginny is an architect who is excellent at picturing what an existing building would look like with certain modifications. This ability is probably most reflective of a high level of _____ intelligence.
A) personal
B) bodily-kinesthetic
C) spatial
D) intrapersonal
Q3) Donovan is really into football and is able to remember all of the professional teams because he has mentally sorted them by division. This indicates that Donavan is using ____ to help him recall the information.
A) divergent thinking
B) organization
C) abstract thinking
D) rehearsal
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Chapter 7: Expanding Social Horizons: Socioemotional Development in Middle Childhood
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Q1) Children who are rejected by their peers have often been A) disciplined inconsistently by their parents.
B) raised in environments that lacked a sense of intimidation. C) raised by parents with an authoritative style. D) the victims of time-out procedures.
Q2) Peer pressure is never positive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Members of high status groups are more likely to be prejudiced.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Child abuse is more prevalent in the United States than in countries that do not condone physically punishing children.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Direct instruction involves telling a child when, what, and why he should do something.
A)True
B)False
Q6) _____ children are liked by most of their classmates. Page 9
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Chapter 8: Rites of Passage: Physical and Cognitive
Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Which measure would be used to determine whether a child is overweight?
A) BMI
B) MMPI
C) WISC
D) WAIS
Q2) The exact timing of puberty varies. Discuss psychological advantages and disadvantages of early and later puberty for both females and males.
Q3) According to Kohlberg, abstract notions of justice or equity are examples of
A) preconventional thought.
B) social norms.
C) universal ethical principles.
D) social contracts.
Q4) Based on statistics, which of the following 16-year-old males is most likely to die in an incident involving a firearm?
A) Fred, who is European American
B) Ned, who is African American
C) Ed, who is Hispanic American
D) Ted, who is Asian American
Q5) The onset of menstruation is referred to as _____.
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Chapter 9: Moving into the Adult Social World:
Socioemotional Development in Adolescence
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Q1) Erikson's theory has been very influential in helping us understand identity formation in adolescence.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A __________ identity status is based largely on the input of adults (i.e., parents, role models).
A) diffusion
B) moratorium
C) foreclosure
D) achievement
Q3) Personal fables are based on seeing one's self as unique.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Young adults are especially susceptible to acquiring AIDS because compared to older adults, they are
A) more likely to be homosexual.
B) more likely to use intravenous drugs.
C) less likely to engage in unprotected sex.
D) less likely to possess functional immune systems.
Q5) The second stage in Super's vocational choice theory is called _____.
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Chapter 10: Becoming an Adult: Physical, Cognitive, and Personality Development
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Q1) Costanzia has a firm sense of her childhood, who she is as a person today, and how she will live her life in the future. This constitutes Costanza's
A) possible selves.
B) fluid intelligence.
C) life-span construct.
D) scenario.
Q2) In order to qualify as a "postformal thinker," you must be able to accept
A) egocentric thought as a necessity.
B) the existence of a single truth.
C) experience as the source of all knowledge.
D) contradiction as normal.
Q3) Which of the following statements about returning students is False?
A) Returning students tend to be problem-solvers.
B) Returning students tend to need more direction from instructors.
C) Returning students tend to experience conflicts between school, work, and family.
D) Returning students often have life experience relevant to coursework.
Q4) The ability to understand relationships between concepts and to respond adaptively to new situations is termed _____ intelligence.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Being with Others: Forming Relationships in Young and Middle Adulthood
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Q1) In the United States, the out-of-wedlock birthrate
A) is highest in African Americans.
B) is highest in Latinos.
C) is highest in European Americans.
D) does not vary by ethnicity.
Q2) The defining belief among individuals experiencing "battered woman's syndrome" is that
A) the abuse is tied to a sense of personal high self-esteem.
B) the abuse is not harmful to them.
C) the abuser is acting out of unconditional love.
D) they are powerless to get away from the abuse.
Q3) Juliet wants Romeo physically, and she wants him badly! Juliet is most likely experiencing A) intimacy.
B) passion.
C) commitment.
D) companionate love.
Q4) The "A" in the ABCDE model of adult friendship development stands for _____.
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Q5) The inability to let go of one's spouse following a divorce is called "divorce _____."
Chapter 12: Work and Leisure: Occupational and Lifestyle
Issues in Young and Middle Adulthood
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Q1) Sexual harassment tends to occur when there is a(n) _____ difference between two people.
A) sex
B) power
C) educational
D) age
Q2) Alienated employees tend to view their work as meaningless.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following ethnic groups tends to have the lowest leadership aspirations?
A) African Americans
B) European Americans
C) Latino Americans
D) Research has failed to identify any ethnic differences in leadership aspiration
Q4) Super's _____ occupational developmental task involves taking a series of temporary jobs to find out about work roles.
Q5) A worker who is matched with a mentor is referred to as a(n) _____.
Q6) Denying an individual a promotion due to that person's age is called _____.
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Chapter 13: Making It in Midlife: The Biopsychosocial
Challenges of Middle Adulthood
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Q1) _____ exercise requires maintaining a pulse rate between 60 and 90 percent of your maximum heart rate.
Q2) Someone high in filial obligation feels responsible for the care of his or her parents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While at a checkup, 40-year-old Betty listens as her physician, Dr. White, describes Betty's current health. Which of Dr. White's statements would suggest that Betty is experiencing the climacteric?
A) "Do genetic disorders run in your family?"
B) "I hope that you have all the children you want."
C) "The loss of memory will be slow but significant."
D) "Some of your blood cells have begun to alter their shape."
Q4) Aerobic exercise is defined as a pulse rate between ____ percent of a person's maximum rate.
A) 40-70
B) 50-80
C) 60-90
D) 70-100
Q5) _____ is a disease characterized by severe loss of bone mass.
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Chapter 14: The Personal Context of Later Life: Physical, Cognitive, and Mental Health Issues
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Q1) As a person reaches old age, the metabolic rate declines. How should older people adjust their diets to compensate for this change?
A) Reduce the amount of protein in their diet
B) Consume the amount of carbohydrates in their diet they did when younger
C) Take vitamin supplements
D) Increase their intake of fiber
Q2) While looking at slides of brain tissue in a physiology class, you see groups of damaged neurons that have collected around a core of protein. What are you looking at?
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Neuritic plaques
C) Neurofibrillary tangles
D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
Q3) ____ are chemicals produced during normal cell metabolism that may cause cellular damage that impairs functioning.
A) Neurofibrillary tangles
B) Neuritic plaques
C) Transient ischemic attacks
D) Free radicals
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Chapter 15: Social Aspects of Later Life: Psychosocial,
Retirement, Relationship, and Societal Issues
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Q1) Hanna is a 70-year-old woman who has a choice: she can either go out with some old friends or make some new friends at the community center. Socioemotional selectivity theory would predict that if Hanna's decision is based on emotional regulation, she will
A) choose to make new friends.
B) go out with her old friends.
C) stay home and see no one.
D) invite her old friends to the community center so that they can all make new friends.
Q2) Gender differences in subjective well-being are often thought to be due to all of the following factors except
A) prevalence of widowhood.
B) nursing home attendance rates.
C) rates of chronic illnesses.
D) social network quality.
Q3) Describe the challenges faced when a spouse must care for a partner when the partner is chronically ill or has Alzheimer's disease.
Q4) _____ theory proposes that older people tend to cope with daily life using familiar strategies based on past experience.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: The Final Passage: Dying and Bereavement
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Q1) By definition, euthanasia is defined as the practice of ending life for reasons of A) mercy.
B) health.
C) speed.
D) religiosity.
Q2) Who is most likely to have positive ratings concerning their marriage?
A) Paula, who has been a widow for two years and who is depressed
B) Dean, who has been a widower for two years and who is not depressed
C) Rachael, who is still married and who is depressed
D) Ray, who is still married and who is not depressed
Q3) Mourning rituals and states of bereavement are pretty much the same across all cultures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the strengths and weaknesses of the Kübler-Ross theory of dying. Be sure to include a discussion of how well this approach fits with contextual theories of dying.
Q5) When a person's cortical function ceases, but brain-stem activity continues, the person is said to be in a persistent _____ state.
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